Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Farm (Chloe) > Cardiorespiratory > Flashcards

Cardiorespiratory Flashcards

(80 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the most common pericardial condition in ruminants?

A

Traumatic reticulo-pericarditis (TRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the result of septic pericarditis?

A

Cardiac tamponade -> CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the typical history for septic pericarditis?

A

Non-specific
Milk drop
Inappetence
Unresolved non-specific illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the early clinical signs of septic pericarditis?

A

Pain - abducted elbows, withers positive, arched back, firm palpation
Rubbing/friction sounds on auscultation
Tachycardia
Pyrexia +/- associated with BRD signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the later clinical signs of septic pericarditis?

A

Muffled heart sounds bilaterally
Squeaking, splashing, rubbing
Difficulty to palpate apex beat
Pyrexia +/-
Congestive heart failure signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you diagnose septic pericarditis?

A

Ultrasound ICS 3-5 on both sides
Purulent fluid in the pericardial sac +/- fibrin
Hepatic congestion
PME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you treat septic pericarditis?

A

Magnet bolus and broad spectrum antibiotics = amoxicillin or oxytetracycline
Late stages - prognosis poor to hopeless so PTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main bacteria involved in bacterial endocarditis?

A

Truperella pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the predilection sites for bacterial endocarditis?

A

Right AV valve (tricuspid)
Left Av valve (mitral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical signs of bacterial endocarditis?

A

Murmur +/- palpable thrill
Persistent tachycardia
Ill thrift
Milk drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you diagnose bacterial endocarditis?

A

Ultrasound
Blood culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you treat bacterial endocarditis?

A

Long-term antibiotic therapy for a minimum of 3 weeks.
Penicillin/amoxicillin
Furosemide if CHF present and analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the clinical signs of congenital cardiac diseases?

A

Murmurs
Poor growth
Increased respiratory rate/effort
Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac defect in the calf?

A

Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does hyperkalaemia cause?

A

Bradycardia
Severe, acute diarrhoea
Urinary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What deficiency causes white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E/ selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does BRD stand for?

A

Bovine respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the top 3 viruses that can cause BRD?

A

IBR, RSV and PI3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the bacterial causes of BRD?

A

Pasteurella multocida
Mycoplasma bovis
Mannhaemia haemolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the clinical signs for IBR?

A

Harsh URT sounds
Very pyrexic
Impact on fertility and yield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the incubation period for IBR?

A

2-20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the incubation period for RSV?

A

2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the pathophysiology of RSV?

A

Necrotising bronchiolitis and interstitial pneumonia.
Emphysematous lesions may develop in caudodorsal lung lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does PI3 affect the respiratory tract?

A

Infects ciliated epithelium of the respiratory tract, alveolar epithelium and macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is mycoplasma bovis transmitted?
Transmitted by aerosols through coughing between cows. Infected cows can shed it in their milk and pass onto calves.
26
What are the four ways to diagnose BRD?
Pathogen detection Lung pathology detection Clinical signs based Epidemiology based
27
What swabs can be taken to help aid diagnosis of BRD?
Conjunctival swab - IFAT or PCR for IBR Nasopharyngeal swab and BAL - not first line
28
What are the secondary problems linked to BRD?
Failure of passive transfer BVD Selenium deficiency Liver fluke Parasitic gastroenteritis
29
What are the early signs of BRD?
Pyrexia Isolation and behaviour changes Slow to feed, don't drink milk allowance
30
What are the treatment options for BRD?
NSAIDS Antibiotics - oxytetracycline Electrolytes TLC
31
What are the four key environmental factors that contribute towards the prevention of BRD?
Cleanliness Fresh air Temperature Humidity
32
What system should be adopted in calf sheds to help with the prevention of disease outbreaks?
All in all out system, with calves in age groups that don't mix.
33
What is the pre-patent period of lungworm in cattle?
3 to 5 weeks
34
What are the clinical signs of lungworm in cattle?
Mild - intermittent coughing, particularly after running Moderate - Frequent coughing at rest. Tachypnoea and hypernea. Squeaks and crackles over posterior lung lobes. Severe - dyspnoea, air-hunger posture, tongue out, sudden death
35
What diagnostics can be used for lungworm?
Baermann's test Tracheal wash/BAL ELISA for antibody
36
What are the high risk conditions for lungworm?
Wet summers Heavy stocking density Lack of immunity due to low exposure
37
What are the key differences between lungworms and gut worms?
1. Lungworms generally shorter free-living development period and larval survival 2. Carrier animals are an important source of lungworm infection 3. Appearance of lungworm disease is unpredictable and low-risk grazing is not possible
38
What are the four steps to lungworm control?
Delayed turnout Vaccination Rotational grazing Dose and move
39
What is the technical name for bovine lungworm?
Dictyocaulus viviparus
40
What pathogen causes shipping fever?
Mannhaemia haemolitica
41
What virus causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)?
Bovine herpes virus 1
42
What are some of the reproductive signs of IBR?
Abortion (up to 100days after respiratory signs) Genital lesions
43
What are the control options for IBR?
Do nothing Vaccinate to control clinical signs Accreditation/eradication (+/- vaccination)
44
What pathogen causes malignant catarrhal fever?
Ovine herpes virus-2
45
What are the clinical signs of malignant catarrhal fever?
Pyrexia Enlarged lymph nodes Mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge Corneal opacity Sloughing of oral and nasal mucosa
46
How long can bovine Tb survive on pasture?
6 to 8 weeks
47
What are the clinical signs of bovine Tb?
Soft, productive cough Weight loss, LN enlargement Sometimes mastitis with udder induration
48
What diseases is mycoplasma bovis involved in?
BRD Arthritis Mastitis
49
What are some clinical signs of mycoplasma bovis?
Chronic pneumonia Head tilt Ear droop ` Head tilt
50
What are the clinical signs of fog fever?
Acute bovine pulmonary oedema Emphysema
51
How to prevent fog fever?
Introduce lush grass slowly Graze youngstock instead of adults on lush pasture
52
What parasites can cause sudden death in sheep?
Haemonchus contortus Nematodirus battus Fasciola hepatica Coccidiosis
53
What is the pre-patent period of haemonchus contortus?
14 to 15 days
54
What are the clinical signs of acute H.contortus infestation in sheep?
Weakness/collapse Marked pallor of mms Hyperpnoea/tachycardia Good BCS Sudden death
55
What are the clinical signs of sub-acute H.contortus infestation?
Bottle jaw - sub-mandibular oedema
56
What are the clinical signs of chronic H.contortus infestation?
Ill thrift Poor BCS Bottle-jaw Lethargy Weakness Microcytic anaemia
57
How do you treat a H.contortus infestation?
Improve diet to boost mineral reserves Move pasture Treat with ivermectin/albendizole wormers (yellow/clear)
58
In an emergency, what natural product can be used as a haemostat in sheep?
Cobwebs
59
What is the primary differential for haemolysis anaemia?
Toxin ingestion
60
What are common toxicities seen in sheep?
Sulphur from onions and brassicas Nitrates Copper
61
What are clinical signs of copper toxicity in sheep?
Jaundice seen on sclera and skin. Urine black in colour Anorexia Depressed Diarrhoea Abdominal pain Weakness Sudden death
62
What is seen on PME following copper toxicity?
Bronze coloured liver and gun-metal coloured kidney
63
What sheep breeds are prone to copper toxicity?
Texels and Suffolks
64
What are the 4 possible causes of water toxicity in sheep?
1. Excess Na ingestion with adequate water intake 2. Normal Na ingestion with inadequate water intake 3. Consumption of high Na water 4. Administration of hypertonic oral electrolytes
65
What are the clinical signs of water toxicity?
Thirst, hyperthermia, tachycardia Muscle fasciculation, rumen stasis Diarrhoea, mucoid faeces Nasal discharge Convulsions Sudden death
66
How do you treat water toxicity in sheep?
Restrict water intake, little and often Corticosteroids to reduce CNS oedema Frusemide and IV fluid at modest rate
67
What are the 5 production limiting diseases in sheep?
1. Maedi Visna (MV) 2. Ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma (OPA) 3. Caseous Lymphadenitis 4. Johne's 5. Border disease
68
What type of virus causes Maedi Visna?
Retrovirus
69
What are the clinical signs of maedi visna?
Ill thrift Pneumonia incidence Mastitis incidence Low milk production Poor lamb growth Increased young lamb loss Swollen joints and lameness
70
What is the only reliable method to detect maedi visna?
Blood testing
71
What methods are used to reduce the incidence of maedi visna?
Source animals from accredited flocks Monitor Reduce density Increase biosecurity Severe: Cull and re-populate
72
What type of virus causes ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma?
Beta retrovirus
73
How is ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma transmitted between sheep?
Aerosol but also colostrum/milk.
74
What are the clinical signs of ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma (OPA)?
Weight loss Laboured breathing Increased RR Some animals cough or produce nasal discharge Sudden death
75
What bacteria causes caseous lymphadenitis?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
76
How is caseous lymphadenitis transmitted?
New stock contact Infected pus on fomite Shearing season Aerosol if in lungs
77
What are the clinical signs in caseous lymphaditis?
Lumps or bumps on face and neck May have internal, undetectable abscesses where only clinical signs may be loss of condition Mastitis Inguinal and scrotal lymph nodes
78
What sheep are typically affected by laryngeal chondritis?
18-24 month old Texels, Beltex and Southdowns. More typically rams than ewes.
79
What are the clinical signs of laryngeal chondritis
Severe dyspnoea Laryngeal stridor Often fatal
80
How do you treat laryngeal chondritis?
Dexamethasone along with a weeks course of ABs (amox/clav off licence) Emergency tracheostomy

Farm (Chloe) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions