Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Farm (Chloe) > Lameness > Flashcards

Lameness Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the risk factors for sole ulcers/haemorrhage?

A
  1. Walking and standing for long periods on hard surfaces, especially post-calving
  2. Periparturient increase in movement of the pedal bone
  3. Loss of fat from the digital cushion and new bone formation on P3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can you reduce the incidence of sole ulcers in the dairy herd?

A

Promote lying and make use of rubber matting.
Cubicle train heifers
Group fresh cows together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What bedding promotes the longest length of lying time?

A

Proprietary cow cushions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the general aims of foot trimming?

A

Maintain optimum weight bearing and foot balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the risk factors of white line disease?

A
  1. Periparturient increase in movement of the pedal bones
  2. Loss of fat from digital cushions
  3. Poor underfoot condition
  4. Presence of small sharp foreign bodies in the environment
  5. Turning sharper on concrete surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the ideal track to promote healthy feet?

A

Cushioned for comfort, wide (3.5m), no sharp turns, quick drying, good grip but not abrasive, cheap, for cow use only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What management techniques can increase the risk of white line disease in dairy cattle and why?

A

Pressuring cows with motorbikes, dogs and sticks.
Prevents them watching and controlling foot placement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be put down if cattle need to cross the road?

A

Carpet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What resources can increase the incidence of bullying in a herd?

A

Space, feed, cubicles, parlour, water, licks, grooming posts and brushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What supplement can be added to the diet to aid a reduction in white lines disease?

A

Biotin - 20mg/cow/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are the risk factors for digital dermatitis?

A

Housing
Wet and dirty conditions, scrapers
Herd/expansion/poor biosecurity
Younger cows
High production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the general rule for quantities of footbath solution?

A

1 cow passage per litre of footbath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What 2 products are typically used in a footbath?

A

Formalin 2-5%
Copper or zinc sulphate 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what age of calves is septic arthritis most common?

A

Less than 3 weeks of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for septic arthritis in calves?

A

Analgesia (NSAIDS), antibiotics (oxytetracycline), joint lavage, supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in calves?

A

Truperella pyogenes (gram positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What deficiency causes white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E/selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for white muscle disease?

A

Young, fast growing animas (calves <6 months)
Sudden expectation of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the clinical signs of white muscle disease?

A

Recumbency and difficulty standing.
Stiff, trembling legs
Weakness
Rotation of distal hindlimbs from hocks
Gluteal, shoulder and dorso-lumbar musculature palpably enlarged and firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is seen on clinpath in white muscle disease?

A

Urinalysis: Myoglobin
Biochemistry: Elevated CK and AST. Low selenium or glutathione peroxidase
Liver biopsy: Low selenium/vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What calf fracture types are good candidates to cast or splint?

A

Transverse/short oblique
Salter-harris type 1 and 2 growth plate fractures
Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What bacterium causes blackleg?

A

Clostridium chauvoei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What pathology is associated with blackleg?

A

Severe necrotising myositis, severe lameness and upper limb swelling, sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for blackleg?

A

High dose penicillin - double dose for 12 to 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is osteochondrosis dissecans?
Foetal defect in articular cartilage resulting from failure of blood supply development during ossification. Young, fast growing animals
26
What NMSK mechanism is crucial in the maintainance of healthy feet?
Suspensory apparatus
27
What are the three gradings of sole ulcer?
Mild - incorporation of blood into horn as sole is produced Moderate - Partial/intermitted interruption of horn production at sole ulcer site Severe - horn production completely arrested at sole ulcer site for prolonged periods
28
What are the 3 animal types presenting with digital dermatitis?
1. Does not develop M2 lesions but can show M1 or M4 2. Single episode of M2, followed by a prolonged period of absence of acute DD 3. Repeat episodes of acute M2 lesions
29
What is the pathology of interdigital necrobacillosis?
Acute necrotising inflammation of interdigital skin
30
What are the clinical signs of interdigital necrobacillosis?
Sudden onset of moderate to severe lameness. Swollen, hot, inflamed, painful. Split ID space discharging pus and necrotic tissue May track up leg Anorexia, milk drop, weight loss, pyrexia
31
What is the definition of a down cow?
Inability to rise and stand for a period of at least 12-24 hours - bovine secondary recumbancy
32
What are the metabolic differentials for a down cow?
Hypocalcaemia Hypomagnesaemia Ketosis Hypokalaemia Fatty liver disease
33
What does movement from sparse to lush pasture cause?
Fog fever - acute bovine pulmonary oedema and emphysema
34
What is the treatment for fog fever?
Steroids and diuretics to support the lungs
35
What are the pre-disposing factors for hypomagnesaemia?
New flush of grass in spring Stale grass in autumn High potassium and ammonium fertiliser
36
What are the top 3 traumatic differentials of a down cow?
Sacroiliac luxation Coxo-femoral luxation Gastrocnemius rupture
37
What are the top 2 neurological differentials for a down cow?
Obturator paralysis Bilateral peroneal paralysis
38
What are the top 2 toxic differentials for a down cow?
Septic metritis Acute toxic mastitis - usually with coliform
39
What is compartment syndrome
Reduced blood flow to tissues under pressure - damaging muscles and nerves followed by ischaemic necrosis
40
What tube should be selected for a haematology sample?
EDTA (purple top)
41
What tube should be used for most biochemistry tests?
Lithium heparin (green top)
42
What salvage procedures are available in a bad situation?
Clay removal Perimortem caesarean Tibial neurectomy Emergency slaughter Ovary removal Semen harvesting Teat removal - better alternatives
43
What are the main differentials for a down sheep?
Hypocalcaemia Twin lamb Scrapie Lameness Respiratory Listeria Hypomagnesaemia Trauma
44
What is the clinical presentation of hypocalcaemia in the sheep?
Bloating due to ruminal stasis Dried faecal pellets in rectum Green fluid in external nares/lower jaw
45
How to manage the hypocalcaemia case in the sheep?
25-40ml 40% calcium borogluconate over 30-60 seconds I/V
46
How do you manage the pregnancy toxaemia case in the sheep?
I/V glucose, oral glucose, induce parturition, encourage eating
47
What deficiency causes cerebrocortical necrosis (CCN)?
Thiamine (B1)
48
What cattle are pre-disposed to sulphur induced cerebrocortical necrosis?
Young cattle on feedlots (6-18 months) fed on diets high in sulphur
49
What are the clinical signs of cerebrocortical necrosis?
Sudden onset blindness, aimless wandering, circling, head pressing, star gazing Lateral recumbency and opisthotonos Death
50
What deficiency causes swayback in sheep and goats mid-pregnancy?
Copper
51
What are the three presentations of copper deficiency in sheep and goats?
1. Congenital cerebrospinal swayback 2. Progressive spinal swayback 3. Cerebral oedema
52
What are the clinical signs of a vitamin A deficiency?
Night blindness, corneal keratinisation, skeletal muscle paralysis, encephalopathy, dry brittle hooves, reduced reproductive performance
53
What sample can be taken on PME to confirm diagnosis of hypomagnesemia?
Vitreous humour
54
What is the pathology of hydrocephalus?
Brain ventricle distention with fluid - increased CSF production, obstruction of outflow, decreased CSF absorption
55
What are the clinical signs of cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy?
Recumbency and opisthotonos Generalised ataxia, hypermetric gait
56
What breeds are predisposed to hydrocephalus?
Holstein and Hereford cattle. Suffolk sheep
57
What breeds are pre-disposed to cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy?
Herefords, shorthorns, Ayrshire, Aberdeen angus
58
At what age is spastic paresis seen in calves?
From a few weeks to 6 months old
59
What are the clinical signs of spastic paresis?
Very straight hocks, excess tone in gastrocnemius, tail elevated Progressive lameness to recumbency
60
What is the treatment for spastic paresis?
Partial tibial neurectomy
61
What congenital abnormality is most commonly seen with BVD?
Cerebellar hypoplasia
62
What are the risk factors of listeriosis?
Poor nutritional status, suppressed immunity, sudden weather changes
63
What tickborne encephalitis disease is associated with rough hill grazing in sheep?
Louping ill
64
What are the clinical signs of louping ill?
Muscle tremors Nibbling Ataxia Drooling Death after 1-3 days
65
What neurological condition is associated with slowly developing unilateral blindness?
Coenurus cerebralis
66
What bacterium causes tetanus?
Clostridium tetani
67
What are the clinical signs of tetanus?
Muscle stiffness, inability to open mouth, drooling, anxious, constipation, tail held away from body, recumbency, convulsions, death
68
What is the treatment for tetanus?
Tetanus antitoxin, penicillin, sedation, TLC
69
How is clostridium botulism transmitted?
Ingested toxins. Contamination of forage with poultry faeces.
70
What are the clinical signs of botulism?
Flaccid paralysis, initial muscle stiffness and ataxia
71
What are the clinical signs of lead toxicity?
Acute - Tremors, staggering, blindness, twitching, seizures, death Sub-acute - GIT dysfunction, dull, blindness, twitching, death

Farm (Chloe) (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions