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Manchester Progress Test > Cards > Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the side effects of tamsulosin

A

dizziness and postural hypotension

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2
Q

how can you catergorise urinary symptoms

A

voiding symptoms
storage symptoms
post- micturition

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3
Q

what are the management options for BPH

A 
watch and wait
alpha 1 antagonists
5 alpha reductase inhibitors
combination therapy 
TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate)
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4
Q

what class of drug is tamsulosin and alfuzosin

A

alpha one antagonist

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5
Q

how does tamsulosin work

A

decreases smooth muscle tone of the prostate and bladder

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6
Q

what class of drug is finasteride

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

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7
Q

how does finasteride work

A

blocks the conversion of testosterone to DHT which induces BPH
this can reduce the size of the prostate

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8
Q

what are the side effects of finasteride

A

erectile dysfunction, reduced libido, ejaculation problems

increases PSA levels

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9
Q

how is pre eclampsia prevented in at risk women

A

aspirin 75mg from 12 weeks

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10
Q

discribe BP changes during pregnancy

A

blood pressure falls in the first trimester until 20 weeks

after this BP usuallly increases to pre pregnancy levels

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11
Q

how is hypertension in pregnancy usually defined

A

140/90

or an increase from normal of over 30

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12
Q

what is pregnancy induced hypertension

A

hypertension in the latter half of pregnancy

no proteinuria or oedema

increased risk of pre eclampsia or hypertension

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13
Q

what is pre eclampsia

A

pregnancy induced hypertension with proteinuria

may also be oedema

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14
Q

what are the features of papilloedema

A

venous engorgement
blurring of the optic disc margin
elevation of the optic disc
loss of optic cup

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15
Q

what are the causes of papilloedema

A 
SOL
malignant hypertension 
intercranial hypertension 
hydrocephalus
hypercapnia
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16
Q

what is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea

A

e coli

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of giardia lamblia

A 
watery non bloody diarrhoea
bloating
apyrexial
dry mucous membranes
lethargy 
malabsorption
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18
Q

how do you treat giardiasis

A

metronidazole

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19
Q

what are the features of MND

A

upper and lower motor neurone signs

  • fasculations
  • no sensory signs
  • mixture of UMN and LMN
  • wasting of small hand muscles
  • no cerebellar signs
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20
Q

what are the features of C diff

A

usually occurs after prolonged antibiotic use in in patients
gram postive
treat with metronidazole or vancomycin

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21
Q

What organism causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

c diff

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22
Q

what are the features of c diff

A

diarrhoea
abdo pain
raised white cell count
toxic megacolon

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23
Q

what is thumb printing a sign of

A

bowel inflammation

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24
Q

what does QDS mean

A

four times a day

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25
what are some features of GORD
delayed gastric emptying (40%) impaired oesophageal clearance of refluxed acid presence of columnar epithelium
26
what causes prothrombotic tendency in nephrotic syndrome
loss of antithrombin 3 in the urine increased plasma conc of fibrinogen increased plasma conc of factors 5, 7, 8, 10 increased risk of developing renal vein thrombosis
27
what is nephritic syndrome
inflammation of the kidneys (glomerulus), with blood in the urine
28
what are the signs and symptoms of nephritic syndrome
``` haematuria proteinuria hypertension blurred vision azotemia oligouria ```
29
what are some causes of nephritic syndrome
``` post strep glomerulonephritis haemolytic uraemic syndrome goodpastures syndrome SLE infective endocarditis ```
30
what are the signs of nephrotic syndrome
``` protein in the blood low albumin levels swelling anasarca (dropsy) hyponatraemia ```
31
what is anasarca aka dropsy
extreme generalised oedema
32
what is mass effect
a growing mass (eg cancer or haematoma) that causes symptoms by pushing on or displacing surrounding tissues
33
what is paraneoplastic syndrome
a syndrome caused by humoural factors released by a neoplasm or an immune response to that neoplasm
34
what cancers commonly have associated paraneoplastic syndromes
lung breast ovaries lymphatic system
35
what is a lymphoma
cancer of lymphocytes
36
what is the defining feature of Hodgkins lymphoma
reed sternberg cell
37
what are lymphocytes
NK cells, T cells and B cells main cell type found in lymph
38
Diabetes insipidus
not enough ADH polyuria and polydipsia
39
SIAHD features
too much ADH oligouria
40
causes of SIADH
too much release from posterior pituitary gland release from an inappropriate source (eg a small cell lung cancer)
41
what are the symptoms of a SVC obstruction
SOB dilated chest wall veins facial swelling plethora
42
why is albumin a good marker of liver function
only produced by hepatocytes
43
what LFT is raised in billiary disease
ALP due to it being synthesised in the biliary tree
44
what pathology would you find unconjugated bilirubin
pre hepatic jaundice
45
what pathology would you find conjugated bilirubin
hepatic or post hepatic jaundice
46
what pathology would you find an elevated prothrombin time
vitamin K deficiency
47
when would you request a group and save
elective surgery involves identifying the blood group and cross matching for antibodies
48
what ECG signs would you expect with hypertension
left ventricular hypertrophy shown by tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2.
49
what is Conn's
primary hyperaldosteronism - salt and water retention with hypokalaemia
50
what causes Conn's
adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
51
where are phaeochromocytomas found
adrenal medulla - headaches - sweating - palpitations - weight loss - tremours
52
what are the causes of phaeochromocytomas
MEN2 Von Hippel Lindau syndrome NF1
53
what is Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
autosomal dominant angiomatosis
54
what are the features of familial hypercholesterolaemia
autosomal dominant condition due to mutation in the LDL receptor, causing elevation of LDL increased risk of coronary artery disease
55
abnormal extension (2)
decerebrate rigidity
56
abnormal flexion (3)
decorticate rigidity
57
what arteries supply blood to the lung parenchyma
bronchial arteries from descending aorta
58
where do bronchial veins drain to
pulmonary vein
59
what does the ductus arteriosis connect
pulmonary artery to the aortic arch
60
what is the function of the DA
allows blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus' lungs
61
what is erythema nodusum
tender red nodules usually seen on the shins | inflammation of the fat cells
62
what are some causes of erythema nodusum
``` TB mycoplasma pneumoniae EBV IBD sarcoidosis cancer ```
63
what are some signs and symptoms of sarcoidosis
``` fatigue SOB weight loss erythema nodudosum hilar lymphadenopathy hypercalcaemia ```

Manchester Progress Test (15 decks)

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