cards

Question 1

what is the latin for head lice

Answer 1

pediculosis capitis

Question 2

what is the spirometry pattern for PF

Answer 2

normal FEV1/FVC ratio >70%
but both values reduced

reduced transfer factor

Question 3

what is the most common lung cancer in non smokers

Answer 3

adenocarcinoma

usually normal bronchoscopy

Question 4

what are the three main types of non small cell lung cancer

Answer 4

squamous cell

adenocarcinoma

large cell lung carcinoma

Question 5

what are the features of squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 5

central (would see on bronchoscopy)

PTHrP (parathyroid hormone related protein) so hypercalcaemia

finger clubbing

hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

Question 6

what are the features of adencarcinoma

Answer 6

peripheral

non smokers most likely to get this one

normal bronchoscopy

Question 7

what are the features of large cell lung carcinoma

Answer 7

typically peripheral

anaplastic poorly differentiated
poor prognosis

may secrete beta hCG

Question 8

what are the features of Bell’s palsy

Answer 8

acute 
unilateral 
idiopathic 
facial nerve paralysis
most common in pregnant women 

lower motor neuron lesion so forehead also affected

post auricular pain
altered taste
dry eyes
hyperacusis

Question 9

what would a vesicular rash around the ear suggest

Answer 9

ramsey hunt syndrome

Question 10

what is ramsey hunt syndrome

Answer 10

shingles in cn 7 
near the ear
facial paralysis
hearing loss
vesicular rash around the ear

Question 11

what is the treatment for bells palsy

Answer 11

no treatment or
prednisolone

supportive eye care

Question 12

how can you differentiate between facial paralysis from a stroke and from bells palsy

Answer 12

stroke will usually spare the forehead

Question 13

what are the features of prader willi syndrome

Answer 13

genetic disorder

newborns: weak muscles, poor feeding, slow development, floppyness

constant hunger

intellectual impairment
behaviour problems

Question 14

what are some causes of neonatal hypotonia

Answer 14

neonatal sepsis
werdnig hoffman (SMA1)
hypothyroidism
Prader wili

maternal drugs (benzos)
maternal myesthenia gravis

Question 15

what is the treatment for pseudogout

Answer 15

NSAIDS
Colchinine

methotrexate 2nd line
aspirate
steroids

Question 16

what is pseudogout

Answer 16

calcium pyrophosphate deposition causing microcrystal synovitis

caused by haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia , hypothyroidism, hypomagnesaemia, wilsons disease, acromegaly

normally affects larger joints eg knees
gout normally affects first MCP joint

Question 17

what is zoons balanitis

Answer 17

rash on glans and foreskin
no itch, pain or discharge
usually older men 
shiny moist, orange-red, well demarcated plaque
pinpoint lesions

Question 18

what is lichen sclerosis on the penis

Answer 18

tip of foreskin develops a tight white ring which may cause phimosis

Question 19

what is seborrhoeic dermatitis

Answer 19

rash on penis
itchy
not well demarcated

Question 20

why is mastoiditis a medical emergency

Answer 20

risk of meningitis

Question 21

sitagliptin

Answer 21

DPP4 inhibitor

Question 22

what condition presents similarly to turners syndrome

Answer 22

noonan syndrome

Question 23

why do renal transplant patients have an increased risk of SCC

Answer 23

immunocompromised

Question 24

what is marjolins ulcer

Answer 24

SCC in an area of chronic inflammation

Question 25

which skin cancer is multipigmented

Answer 25

malignant melanoma

Question 26

where do basal cell carcinomas often appear

Answer 26

face, scalp, nose and ear (rodent ulcers with telangectasia)

Question 27

what antibiotic is used to treat whooping cough

Answer 27

azithromycin

Question 28

what do brisk tendon reflexes in a pregnant woman suggest

Answer 28

pre eclampsia

Question 29

what does pre eclampsia predispose to

Answer 29

``` fetal prematurity and growth retardation eclampsia haemorrhage cardiac failure multi organ failure ```

Question 30

what are the risk factors for pre eclampsia

Answer 30

``` hypertensive disease in previous pregnancy CKD autoimmune diabetes hypertension ``` >40 years old high BMI family history multiple pregnancy

Question 31

what is the treatment for pre eclampsia

Answer 31

labetalol nifedinpine hydralazine

Question 32

what is dacrycystitis

Answer 32

infection of the lacrimal sac

Question 33

what are the symptoms ofdacrycystitis

Answer 33

watering of the eye | swelling and eythema of the inner canthus of the eye

Question 34

what can concurrent prescription of trimethoprim and methotrexate cause

Answer 34

myelosuppression and pancytpaenia causing infection and bleeding

Question 35

which anaesthetic has the strongest analgesic effect

Answer 35

ketamine

Question 36

what are the features of propofol

Answer 36

``` rapid onset pain on injection anti emetic myocardial depression maintains sedation on ITU ```

Question 37

sodium thiopentone

Answer 37

very rapid onset of action myocardial depression unsuitable for maintenence little analgesic effect

Question 38

what are the features of ketamine

Answer 38

induction of anaesthesia strong analgesia little myocardial depression nightmares

Question 39

etomidate

Answer 39

cardiac safety no analgesia adrenal suppression vomiting

Question 40

what is the autism triad

Answer 40

communication problems impaired relationships ritualistic behaviour

Question 41

what are the features of myometrial fibroids

Answer 41

menorrhagia subfertililty abdominal mass sometimes pain later: dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, sciatica

Question 42

what is the treatment for uterine fibroids

Answer 42

``` tranexamic acid NSAIDS Progesterones surgery IUD ```

Question 43

how might ALL present

Answer 43

DIC- petechial rash | consider meningitis if pyrexia

Question 44

what are the symptoms of ALL

Answer 44

``` anaemia neutropaenia thrombocytopaenia bone pain splenomegaly hepatomegaly testicular swelling ```

Question 45

what drugs could be used to manage AF

Answer 45

``` beta blockers calcium channel blockers digoxin sotalol amiodarone ```

Question 46

what conditions are associated with polyhydramnios

Answer 46

diabetes anencephaly twins oesophageal atresia

Question 47

what conditions are associated with oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid)

Answer 47

pre eclampsia

Question 48

which oral steroid has the least amount of mineralcorticoid activity

Answer 48

dexamethasone

Question 49

what are the risk factors for meconium aspiration

Answer 49

post term delivery

Question 50

what is neonatal death

Answer 50

death between 1-28 days

Question 51

what is stillbirth

Answer 51

born with no signs of life after 28 weeks

Question 52

what are perinatal deaths

Answer 52

still birth and death within first 5 weeks of life

Question 53

what is early neonatal death

Answer 53

death in the first 7 days of life

Question 54

what brain problem can lead to torsades de point

Answer 54

subarachnoid haemorrhage