CDC 7 lvl vol 1 Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
who appoints the ABMSO in writing?
A
the MTF commander
2
Q
who is normally appointed as the MLFC?
A
the ABMSO
3
Q
if no MSC officer is available to function as the interim ABMSO, a waiver needs to be coordinated and submitted to which two offices?
A
- MAJCOM/SGS
2. AFMOA/SGAL
4
Q
the ABMSO is required to maintain physical accountability for what type of assets?
A
AFWCF/MDD-owned
5
Q
the ABMSO is the approving authority for the acquisition and issue of all medical supplies and equipment for which two on-base organization types?
A
medical and non-medical
6
Q
whose approval is required before the ABMSO may issue medical materiel to non-medical units?
A
MTF Commander
7
Q
what are the grade requirements for appointment as the MTF linen supply officer?
A
NCO or GS-04 or higher civilian
8
Q
the ABMSO ensures appropriate management controls are in place to minimize the occurrences of which inappropriate actions?
A
Fraud, negligence, theft, Etc.
9
Q
what is pecuniary liability ?
A
a monetary obligation
10
Q
to whom does pecuniary liability apply?
A
all persons having property responsibility
11
Q
list three ways that someone can be relieved of property responsibility?
A
- documents showing turn-in or transfer of an item to another property custodian, 2. approved reports that provide for disposition of, or relief from,
- approved inventory adjustment for losses
12
Q
name the documents or electronic/computer records that can provide relief from property responsibility ?
A
CALs, CR/LL, approved AF form 601
13
Q
what step do you take if the evidence to relieve an individual(s) of custodial responsibility is not available?
A
initiate a ROS
14
Q
list four general purposes of a ROS?
A
- research and investigate
- assess monetary liability
- provide documentation to support adjustments
- provide commanders with case histories for corrective action.
15
Q
what are two primary categories of items that require ROS documentation?
A
supply system stocks and property record items
16
Q
what category of stocks include those inventories which required stock actions and balances to be recorded?
A
supply system stocks
17
Q
real property falls under what category of items?
A
property book
18
Q
what three conditions require a ROS regardless of the dollar value?
A
- equipment inventory
- controlled items
- as directed
19
Q
who initiates a ROS when property is lost, damaged, or destroyed by an individual or an organization?
A
the organization that has accountability for the property
20
Q
what are the requirements for appointment of an investigating officer?
A
must be “disinterested” and have no interest in the custodianship, care, accountability, or safekeeping of the property
21
Q
to what individual is the ROS referred for adjustment of records?
A
accountable officer
22
Q
what agency reviews the ROS if financial responsibility is assessed against an individual?
A
legal office
23
Q
what individual reviews the ROS and assigns financial responsibility or relieves the individual(s) of responsibility?
A
approving authority
24
Q
in the Air Force, which system is the method used for declaring a claim against military and civilian personnel who have lost, damaged, or destroyed public property in their possession?
A
ROS
25
generally, what is the pecuniary liability limit for a person who lost or damaged property?
a maximum of one month''s base pay
26
who decides if a case warrants taking disciplinary action under the UCMJ?
commanders
27
what are the two sources for all budgeted and programmed resources for the total Air Force?
Future Years Defense Program (FYDP) and Air Force Financial Plan (F&FP)
28
where is AF planning and programming for manpower centralized?
HQ USAF
29
what office is responsible for managing the manpower program within the MTF?
RMO
30
what is a manpower authorization?
funded manpower requirement with details that define the position in terms of its function, organization, that commands use to extend and strengthen manpower resources to the units
31
which system is the official source of manpower authorization data for active duty Air Force, ANG and AFR?
MDS
32
define manpower requirement?
statement of the manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program.
33
what are the two types of manpower requirements? How are they different?
funded & unfunded. funded requirements are those that have been validated and allocated. unfunded requirements are validated requirements needs but deferred because of budgetary constraints
34
what information does an Air Force manpower standard provide?
identifies a work center's man-hours to workload relationship and quantifies manpower requirements
35
how does the Air Force use manpower standards?
for the accurate distribution of manpower resources
36
what level of manpower is determined by a manpower standard?
minimum required to support a function
37
name the four key components of a manpower standard?
process-oriented description, man-hour equation, manpower table, variances
38
what key component of a manpower standard provides grades and skill levels for the number of authorizations?
manpower table
39
what is a unit of measuring work called?
man-hour
40
list three documents available to assist you in managing the manpower program?
AF manpower standard, unit manpower document, unit personnel management roster
41
how often are manpower standards reviewed and applied?
at least annually
42
what document serves as the primary manpower tool for managers?
unit manpower document
43
how are manpower authorizations defined on the UMD?
in terms of their function, organization, location, skill, grade, and other appropriate characteristics commands use.
44
what does the position number identify the UMD?
identify authorizations against a particular position
45
how are civilian positions indicated on the UMD?
CIV is displayed
46
what is a personnel accounting symbol?
a sequentially assigned alphanumeric code representing a unit
47
what code identifies a particular function down to the basic work center?
FAC
48
what information does the UPMR contain?
primarily depicts personnel assigned, by name, against manpower authorizations of the work center/functional area
49
what document provides commanders with projected accessions, gains, losses, retirements, separations, and rotations from overseas?
UPMR
50
what office assigns new personnel to authorized positions based on vacant and/or appropriate position on the UPMR?
CSS
51
how often should a manager review the UPMR and verify it against the UMD?
monthly
52
to what office do you report errors on the UPMR for corrective action?
RMO
53
what documentation is required before formally beginning custodian training?
Signed appointment Letter
54
what type of training would be better suited at smaller MTFs?
one-on-one briefings
55
what type of training might be better suited at larger MTFs?
scheduled mass briefings
56
if a custodian needs DMLSS installed, to which office should he or she submit a work order?
medical systems help desk (MESD)
57
what is required if a custodian needs additional or special DMLSS access?
a specific appointment letter
58
which DMLSS window is most frequently used by custodians to reorder supplies?
customer catalog
59
which DMLSS screen is used by custodians to initiate orders for items never before purchased?
NIR
60
local GPC purchases administratively cost the government three times more than using which SOS type?
Prime vendor
61
what is an effective means of single-line item replenishment provided the custodian already has the item ID readily available?
manual replenishment
62
property custodians should know how to check their available fund balance in CAIM using which screen?
check available funds
63
which pending action indicates why an item ID failed during the replenishment process?
replenishment exceptions
64
which pending action is produced as a result of a non-response to a QA alert item QTY required cust. (supply`) pending action message?
QA Delinquencies
65
which DMLSS report provides detailed information on current requisitions?
Active due-ins
66
which DMLSS report is used by custodians to view current fund balances?
expense Center Fund summary
67
when training property custodians, who should brief on equipment specific actions?
a MEMO technician
68
at a minimum custodians should be provided a copy of what local guidance?
customer handbook
69
what is the definition of records?
digital or hard-copy informational documents that are created during day-to-day operations by Air Force employees for official business
70
what three things must we do to make documents easily accessible?
systematically label, file, and maintain them in an organized manner.
71
which regulation tells how records are maintained?
AFMAN 33-363
72
which guidance explains how to dispose of records?
RDS located in AFRIMS
73
what is a file plan?
a roadmap that lists where specific documents are to be maintained
74
where is the file plan created, approved, and maintained?
AFRIMS
75
the contents of a computer's directory may be equated to what?
the traditional file drawer
76
what is the sequence to file supporting documents?
by type, then julian date, then serial number
77
where is the SDCR stored?
within the DMLSS server
78
SDCRs and document registers can be retrieved anytime by accessing which IM or EM module?
Reports
79
what is the most effective way to evaluate your safety program and prevent mishaps?
observe your workers
80
what is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
a detailed, systematic search to uncover the "who, what, when, where, why, and how" of a loss producing event, and to determine what corrective actions are needed to prevent a recurrence
81
who is responsible for managing the mishap-reporting program in the MTF?
safety officer
82
when should you report on-duty mishaps ( military and civilian) to your supervisor and USR?
immediately
83
when should you report off-duty mishaps (military only) to your supervisor?
not later than the next duty day
84
a safety investigation should be completed within how many days of a mishap?
30 days
85
what does the abbreviation OSHA stands for?
occupational Safety and health Act
86
the responsibility for implementing programs for occupational safety, health, fire, and accident prevention is delegated to whom?
unit commanders, functional managers, and supervisors
87
how frequently should your non-high hazard workplace be inspected for safety?
at least once a year.
88
how frequently should high-hazard workplaces be inspected for safety?
at least once a month
89
who notifies the installation ground safety staff to schedule required supervisor safety training when a military member or civilian becomes a supervisor?
commander or supervisor
90
at a minimum, who must promptly report injuries and illnesses to the supervisor?
all Air Force personnel
91
who has direct responsibility for maintaining safe and healthy environments in the work area?
supervisors
92
who is required to attend the SST course?
SrA, NCOs. civilian supervisors,
93
when shelving, where should heavy, bulky items be stored?
lower shelves
94
where should flammable/combustible liquids and gases be stored?
in approved flammable storage rooms or cabinets
95
what is contained in the MTF's HWMP?
procedures for identifying, handling, storing, using, and disposing of HAZMAT from receipt through use.
96
what is one of the principle methods of locating hazards?
safety inspections
97
how often should section supervisors conduct safety inspections?
at least monthly
98
what is ORM?
process of identifying and controlling hazards to protect the force
99
how can you effectively reduce the probability of injury in storage and distribution section?
by prevention
100
what are the four most common physical acts responsible for the on-the-job injuries?
lifting, carrying, dropping, lowering
101
list the factors to consider when manually lifting materiel?
size, shape, weight, and distance the object is to be moved
102
what is the best manual lifting method for moving awkward or heavy items?
team lifting
103
what are the primary responsibilities of DMLSS SAs?
monitor and manage server activities, troubleshoot,
104
how does an SA access administrator functionality in DMLSS?
through either the SS application or the DMLSS server system administrator tool module
105
what types of system administration tasks are available to the SA via the SA tool?
user, PC, Printer, server, MM and FM administration
106
what does an ASM do?
they control the roles and privileges within specific applications
107
how many ASMs should there be for each DMLSS application?
only one per site
108
why should there be a limited number of SS ASMs per site?
this user can give virtually any rights in the system to anyone including himself
109
who should perform regular backups of the DMLSS server?
the site SA
110
when should data tapes be replaced?
in accordance with manufacturer's recommendation
111
backup tapes should be safeguarded against what conditions?
fire, moisture, high electrical currents, and accidental reuse.
112
how can you access the DMLSS server webpage?
internet explorer HTTPS:// and the server name or IP address of your DMLSS server
113
what DMLSS webpage is used to install DMLSS software, log on to the SA tool and access standard links?
DMLSS admin start page
114
how should you log-out of the DMLSS SA tool?
click exit on the list of quick links
115
what does the MTF/unit tree view allow you to do?
to review and update your MTF's organizational structure
116
what does the funds management- funding screen allow you to do?
view/manage funds, gather information on EOR and commodity classes, view/manage -commitments- obligations- target amounts, view/manage your AM and OP funds
117
an important part of administering the DMLSS system is having valid and up-to-date POC information for whom?
key personnel
118
which screen is used to associate module-specific roles to individual user IDs?
UP assgin
119
TMU provides a centralized listing of what?
all the values and codes used throughout the DMLSS application
120
list each type of table viewable in the TMU screen?
DMLSS wide, DMLSS and site managed, site managed data
121
which TMU table contains data unique to the local MTF and is completely editable?
site data
122
DCM is an automated tool within DMLSS used to do what?
transmit data to external agencies
123
which screen is used to immediately retransmit order-related or financial transactions?
DEM monitor
124
what is the typical life cycle for an outgoing transaction?
several reports of in-process, then complete or transmitted
125
which two functions are used by the SA use to manage and restrict user accounts?
UP assign and UP manage
126
how is the UP manage function used?
to view, add, modify, and/or delete roles by application
127
how is the UP assign function used?
to assign one or more applications and/or roles
128
why should all application roles not be given to users?
can decrease the SM's ability to restrict access to critical functions and can degrade system integrity
129
in general, how is the DCM search function used?
to view transaction files and manage the interface between DMLSS and other systems
130
how long does the DCM retain transaction files?
current and previous month or 62 days
131
what user ID is recorded for financial transactions?
DFAS
132
list the DCM search window fields that may be used to limit search results?
call/sequence/block number/ method/ form/ contract number/ SOS/status code/ process code/ USER ID/ begin date/ end date
133
when reviewing outbound files for successful transmission, for what process codes should you search?
ARCORGFL, FMTGOOD, TMTGOOD
134
how can you get more information on a process code if you are unsure of what it means?
view its description by highlighting the transaction first, then clicking the desc icon on the vertical toolbar
135
what status is used to indicate formatting problems or failed transmissions?
ERROR code
136
which type of code indicates the state in which a transaction failure occurred?
process code
137
what five things should the SA troubleshoot when a transmission failure occurs?
problems with the LAN and interface connectivity; incorrect IP address, login, and password
138
when your files don't successfully transmit, who should you check with to ensure that the network is functional, and your ports and firewalls are open?
medical systems office
139
when would you not retransmit a failed PV order?
when the acquisitions manager elects to cancel the order and re-accomplish the order manually
140
what are two options for resending failed transmission files?
resubmit and financial resubmit
141
which option is used to rebuild and retransmit failed transmission files to DFAS?
financial resubmit
