cds - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

1.,What was the Dutt-Bradley Thesis?,(a) The Working Committee of the Indian National Congress decided that Congress should play a crucial role in realising the independence of India,(b) The Socialist Party decided to play foremost part in anti-imperialist struggle,(c) Revolutionary socialist Batukeshwar Dutt put forth a ten-point plan to work for the success of anti-imperialist front,(d) It was a Communist Party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people’s front

A

1,d,”Dutt-Bradley Thesis was a Communist Party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people’s front. The Anti-imperialistic people’s front in India was written by Rajni Palme Dutt and Ben Bradley, popularly known as the Dutt-Bradley Thesis. Anti-imperialist people are opposed to colonialism, colonial empires, hegemony, imperialism, and the territorial expansion of a counter beyond its established borders.”

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2
Q

2.,The Khuntkatti tenure was prevalent in which one of the following regions of India during the British Colonial Rule?,(a) Bundelkhand,(b) Karnataka,(c) Chota Nagpur,(d) Madras Presidency

A

2,c,”Tribal people in Chota Nagpur area, which is present-day in Jharkhand, practised Khuntkatti Tenure (system) (joint holding tribal lineages) till mid-19th century.”

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3
Q

3.,Who among the following started the Indian Agriculture Service?,(a) Lord Curzon (b) William Bentinck (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Rippon

A

3,c,”The Indian Agriculture Service was started in 1906 under the All India Board of Agriculture during the viceroyalty of Lord Minto. However, the training of staff could not be taken out due to lack of funds, and the primary aim remained merely education.”

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4
Q

4.,Chandimangal was composed in which one of the following languages during the 16th century CE?,(a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil (c) Bengali (d) Oriya

A

4,c,”The Chandimangal is an important subgenre of Mangal Kavya, the most significant genre of medieval Bengali literature. The text belonging to this subgenre praises Chandi or Abhaya, primarily a folk goddess, but subsequently identified with puranic goddess Chandi. This identification was probably completed a few centuries before the earliest composition of the Chandimangal Kavya.”

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5
Q

5.,In December, 1962, which Soviet leader declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962?,(a) Khrushchev (b) Bulganin (c) Suslov (d) Malenkov

A

5,a,”The Sino-Indian War, also known as the Indo-China war and Sino-Indian border conflict, was a war between China and India that occurred in 1962. On 2nd October, Soviet leader Nikita Khrushchev declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962.”

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6
Q

6.,Who were the Nayanars?,(a) Those who were immersed in devotion to Vishnu (b) Those who were devotees of Buddha (c) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva (d) Leaders who were devotees of Basveshwara

A

6,c,”Nayanars were a group of 63 saints in the 6th to 8th century who were devoted to the Hindu God Shiva in Tamil Nadu. They, along with the Alwars, influenced the Bhakti movement in Tamil. The names of the Nayanars were first compiled by Sundarar.”

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7
Q

7.,Who among the following Mughal emperors was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar?,(a) Babur (b) Humayun (c) Akbar (d) Jahangir

A

7,a,”Mughal emperor Babur was the follower of Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar, a member of Naqshbandi Sufi order. This order was introduced in India by Khwaja Baqi Billah from the beginning, and the mystics of this order stressed on the observance of the shariat and denounced all innovations or biddat.”

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8
Q

8.,Consider the following statements:
9. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha’s dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him.
10. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the Buddha’s teaching to the influence of Ashokavandana Samudra, a merchant-turned monk.
11. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12 year old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka’s coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

A

8,a,”According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha’s dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him.”

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9
Q

9.,Who is the author of the 16th century Sanskrit text, the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in North India?,(a) Todar Mal (b) Narayana Bhatta (c) Chaitanya (d) Rupa Goswami

A

9,b,”Narayana Bhatta Goswami was a Brahmin born in South India. Later, he came to Vraja and took initiation from Krishna Das Brahmachari. He wrote the 16th Century Sanskrit text Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in North India.”

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10
Q

10.,Statement I The Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility of India’s soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators. Statement II Ancient India knew the use of manure.,(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

A

10,a,”Ancient India knew the use of manure. Because of this, Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility of India’s soil and the energy and ability of India’s cultivators. From Maurya period to Gupta period, the arrival of Greeks in India is common. Greek travellers visited India and impressed by India’s natural beauty in terms of plants, animals, minerals. Hence, both the statements are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.”

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11
Q

11.,Statement I Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921. Statement II The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge.,(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

A

11,d,”Non-cooperation movement was started to demand Swaraj from Britishers. The main goal is not to cooperate with the British government and to create barriers in their daily work. Gandhiji started the non-cooperation movement on 1st August, 1920, and ended it till February, 1922. The Sikh-dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge. Hence, statement I is false, but statement II is true.”

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12
Q

12.,Statement I The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas. Statement II The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till Bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar.,(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

A

12,d,”In 1917, Jawaharlal Nehru, Madan Mohan Malviya, and Gauri Shankar Mishra, etc., established Uttar Pradesh Farmers Organisation, but due to the Khilafat Movement, there were disputes among farmers’ leaders. This resulted in the creation of Awadh farmers organisation in 1920 under Ramchandra. Awadh farmers were asked to refuse to till Bedakhli land by Kisan organisations. The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 did not fail to bring any Kisan Sabha under its wing. Hence, statement I is false, but statement II is true.”

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13
Q

13.,Statement I The united provinces during non-cooperation became one of the strongest bases of the Congress. Statement II The literary outcrop of non-cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation.,(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

A

13,b,”Non-cooperation movement started under the guidance of Mahatma Gandhi. As Swadeshi agitation began due to Partition of Bengal, many people from Bengal participated in the movement, but the literary outcrop of non-cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre. Hence, both the statements are correct.”

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14
Q

14.,Who were Alvars?,(a) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu (b) Devotees of Shiva (c) Those who worshipped abstract form of God (d) Devotees of Shakti

A

14,a,”The Alvars were Tamil Poets–Saints of South India who favored support Net Bhakti to the Hindu God Vishnu or his Avatar Krishna in their songs of longing, ecstasy, and service. They believe especially in Vaishnavism, which regards Vishnu or Krishna as the Supreme Being.”

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15
Q

15.,Henry T Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions?,(a) Fort William College (b) Serampore Mission (c) Kashi Vidyapith (d) Asiatic Society

A

15,a,”Henry Thomas Colebrooke was a Sanskrit scholar and orientalist. He was appointed to a writership in India during that time he learned Sanskrit. He was a Professor of Sanskrit at college of Fort William College in 1805.”

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16
Q

16.,The Deccan Agriculturalists’ Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives?,(a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants,(b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions,(c) Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders,(d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants

A

16,d,”Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act in 1879 was enacted with the objective to give legal aid to insolvent peasants. In Deccan region of Maharashtra, money lenders from Gujarat exploited peasants, usurped their land. This led to large scale riots in 1875.”

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17
Q

17.,The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British government to settle which one of the following communities?,(a) Santhal (b) Mundas (c) Oraons (d) Saoras

A

17,a,”Damin-i-Koh was the name given to the forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills (Present-day Jharkhand), inhabited by Santhal tribe. The Britishers intruded in their areas and interfered in their socio-economic life, thus, restricting their movement in the forest. All atrocities on Santhals resulted in a large-scale rebellion in 1855. Later, Santhal Pargana was constituted by the Britishers.”

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18
Q

18.,The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?,(a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity,(b) Loan bonds signed between moneylender and ryots would have validity only for three years,(c) Land bonds could not be executed by moneylenders,(d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years

A

18,b,”The Limitation Law was passed by the British in 1859 with the objective that loan bond signed between moneylenders and ryots would have validity only for three years. It took its final shape when the government of India enacted the Limitation Act in 1963.”

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19
Q

19.,Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857, as ‘Danka Shah’?,(a) Shah Mal (b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah (c) Nana Sahib (d) Tantia Tope

A

19,b,”Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was known as ‘Danka Shah’ and was one of the leading figures of the great Revolt of 1857. He gave a tough fight to the Britishers in the Awadh region of Uttar Pradesh, even liberated Faizabad from British rule. He was a symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity and fought until his death with the hand of a British agent in 1858.”

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20
Q

20.,The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions?,(a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land,(b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land,(c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands,(d) The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State

A

20,b,”The Settlement Act of 1856 was introduced under the guidance of Lord Dalhousie in the Awadh region. This settlement was not in favor of Talukdar as it gave priority to village Zamindar. As a result of this act, Talukdars were left as interlopers with no permanent stake in the land.”

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21
Q

21.,Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?,(a) Henry St Clair Wilkins (b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney (c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas (d) Nusserwanji Tata

A

21,a,”The Bombay Secretariat was completed in 1874 and designed by Captain Henry St Clair Wilkins in the Venetian Gothic style. With its arcaded verandahs and a huge gable over the West facade, it was a monument to the civic pride of Bombay’s British rulers.”

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22
Q

22.,Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?,(a) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini (b) Sister Nivedita (c) Madame Blavatsky (d) Sarojini Naidu

A

22,a,”Mataji Maharani Tapaswini founded Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta in 1893 to foster women’s education.”

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23
Q

23.,Which European ruler had observed, ‘‘Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world … he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe’’?,(a) Queen Victoria (b) Peter the Great of Russia (c) Napoleon Bonaparte (d) Gustav II Adolf

A

23,b,”Peter the Great, a Russian Czar (emperor) in the late 17th century, observed, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world.’’”

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24
Q

24.,Which European traveller had observed, ‘‘A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places and she needs never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers’’?,(a) Francois Bernier (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (c) Thomas Roe (d) Abbe JA Dubois

A

24,d,”Abbe Jean Antoine Dubois, a French Catholic missionary in India, observed that a Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she needs never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers.”

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25
Q

25.,Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenised Hinduism was constructed through the ‘cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe’?,(a) Ashis Nandy (b) Partha Chatterjee (c) TK Oommen (d) Rajni Kothari

A

25,a,”Ashis Nandy, an Indian political psychologist, social theorist, and critic, argued that the idea of homogenized Hinduism emanates from the cultural arrogance of post-enlightenment Europe.”

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26
Q

26.,Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854?,”(a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not”,(b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery,(c) The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled,(d) The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery

A

26,a,”The Kansas-Nebraska Act was passed by the US Congress in 1854. It allowed people in the territories of Kansas and Nebraska to decide for themselves whether or not to allow slavery within their borders. This act repealed the Missouri compromise of 1820 which prohibited slavery.”

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27
Q

27.,In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor?,(a) Ahmedabad (b) Champaran (c) Chauri Chaura (d) South India

A

27,d,”Gandhiji was on a journey down to South India (Madurai) in 1921. He asked the people to wear Khadi, but they replied that they are too poor, cannot afford Khadi clothes. After this incident, Gandhiji decided to shave his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor.”

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28
Q

28.,Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of,(a) Anglo-Maratha War (b) Anglo-Burmese War (c) Anglo-Gurkha War (d) Anglo-Afghan War

A

28,c,”Simla was founded as a hill station by the Britisher during the Anglo-Gurkha or Anglo-Nepalese war fought between 1814-16. The war ended with the signing of the treaty of Sugauli in 1816. The strategic location of Simla is decided.”

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29
Q

29.,Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan that would mean ‘‘Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere’’?,(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Sikandar Hayat Khan (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

A

29,b,”Premier of Punjab Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan predicted and told the Punjab Legislative Assembly, ‘We do not ask for freedom that there may be Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere.’ If that is what Pakistan means I will have nothing to do with it.”

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30
Q

30.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below. List I (Author) List II (Book)
31. A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay 1. Jawaharlal Nehru : A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947
32. B. Sarvepalli Gopal 2. From Plassey to Partition : A History of Modern India
33. C. David Hardiman 3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934
34. D. Gyanendra Pandey 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2

A

30,b,”Sekhar Bandyopadhyay’s book is ‘From Plassey to Partition: A History of Modern India.’ Sarvepalli Gopal’s book is ‘Jawaharlal Nehru: A Biography, Vol-I, 1889-1947.’ David Hardiman’s book is ‘Gandhi in His Time and Ours.’ Gyanendra Pandey’s book is ‘The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926 - 1934.’”

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31
Q

31.,The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the following major sites of that civilisation?,(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjo-daro (c) Lothal (d) Kalibangan

A

31,b,”Kot Diji is close to the site of East of Mohenjo-daro, one of the largest cities of the Indus civilization.”

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32
Q

32.,The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?,(a) Sanskrit (b) Telugu (c) Tamil (d) Pali

A

32,d,”The Gandatindu Jataka was written in the Pali language, one of the languages used for Buddhist scriptures.”

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33
Q

33.,According to the Tamil Sangam texts, who among the following were the large landowners?,(a) Gahapatis (b) Uzhavars (c) Adimais (d) Vellalars

A

33,d,”According to Tamil Sangam texts, the large landowners were known as Vellalars.”

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34
Q

34.,According to the Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth through which of the following means?,(a) Purchase (b) Investment (c) Token of affection (d) Inheritance

A

34,c,”According to Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth through token of affection.”

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35
Q

35.,The dialogue on Varna between King Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the following Buddhist texts?,(a) Majjhima Nikaya (b) Samyutta Nikaya (c) Anguttara Nikaya (d) Ambattha Sutta

A

35,a,”The dialogue on Varna between King Avantiputta and Kachchana appears in the Majjhima Nikaya.”

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36
Q

36.,In the first century AD, which among the following was not a major item of Indian exports to Rome?,”(a) Pepper (b) Spikenard (c) Tortoise shell (d) Nutmeg”

A

36,d,”Nutmeg was not a major item of Indian exports to Rome.”

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37
Q

37.,Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?,”(a) Duarte Barbosa (b) Manucci (c) Tavernier (d) Bernier”

A

37,b,”Niccolao Manucci never returned to Europe and settled down in India.”

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38
Q

38.,The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?,”(a) Village Chieftains (b) Senior Civil Servants (c) Tributary Chiefs (d) Military Commanders”

A

38,d,”The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara refers to military commanders.”

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39
Q

39.,The important source for Akbar’s reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?,”(a) Arif Qandahari (b) Bayazid Bayat (c) Abdul Qadir Badauni (d) Nizamuddin Ahmad”

A

39,a,”Tarikh-i-Akbari, the first chronicle of Emperor Akbar’s reign, was written by Arif Qandahari.”

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40
Q

40.,The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of which Mughal Emperor?,”(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Farrukhsiyar (d) Shah Alam”

A

40,b,”Muqarrab Khan was a favorite of Mughal emperor Jahangir.”

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41
Q

41.,Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century?,”(a) Nawab Safdarjung (b) Nawab Saadat Ali Khan (c) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula (d) Nawab Saadat Khan”

A

41,b,”Nawab Saadat Ali Khan was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century.”

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42
Q

42.,According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of,”(a) brick and mud (b) stone and thatch (c) wood and stone (d) brick and stone”

A

42,a,”According to the French traveler Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of brick and mud.”

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43
Q

43.,The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals?,”(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Richard Wellesley (d) William Bentinck”

A

43,c,”The College of Fort William was established by Lord Wellesley.”

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44
Q

44.,The economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan Hamilton to support the thesis of de-industrialisation in the 19th century India, is,”(a) Tirthankar Roy (b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi (c) Sabyasachi Bhattacharya (d) Irfan Habib”

A

44,b,”Amiya Kumar Bagchi used data collected by Buchanan Hamilton to support the thesis of de-industrialization in 19th century India.”

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45
Q

45.,Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by,”(a) Joseph Banks (b) James Cook (c) Robert Fortune (d) Robert Owen”

A

45,c,”Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by Robert Fortune.”

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46
Q

46.,Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in which of the following countries?,”(a) Japan (b) Austria (c) Germany (d) Malaysia”

A

46,c,”Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in Germany.”

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47
Q

47.,Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?,”(a) The Hindu Mahasabha (b) The Congress (c) The Muslim League (d) The Unionist Party”

A

47,c,”The Muslim League formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946.”

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48
Q

48.,The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was,”(a) Sahajananda Saraswati (b) Vinoba Bhave (c) Achyut Rao Patwardhan (d) Narendra Dev”

A

48,a,”Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the elected President of All India Kisan Sabha at Vijayawada in 1944.”

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49
Q

49.,Who took over the ‘Eka Movement’ started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922?,”(a) Bhagwan Ahir (b) Madari Pasi (c) Baba Ramchandra (d) Shah Naeem Ata”

A

49,b,”Madari Pasi took over the ‘Eka Movement’ started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922.”

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50
Q

50.,Which organisation was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?,”(a) Sanatan Dharma Sabha (b) Dev Samaj (c) Brahmin Sabha (d) Hindu Mahasabha”

A

50,d,”The Hindu Mahasabha was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915.”

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51
Q

51.,Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts?,”(a) Piyadassi (b) Colin Mackenzie (c) Alexander Conningham (d) James Prinsep”

A

51,d,”James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts of ancient India.”

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52
Q

52.,Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during 600-1200 AD?,”1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the state. 2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages. 3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas. (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these”

A

52,d,”The features of Brahmadeya Grants during 600-1200 AD include renunciation of revenue by the state, varying sizes of grants, and grants made in unsettled areas.”

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53
Q

53.,Who is the author of Manimekalai?,”(a) Kovalan (b) Sathanar (c) Ilango Adigal (d) Tirutakkatevar”

A

53,b,”Manimekalai was written by the poet Chithalai Sathanar.”

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54
Q

54.,Which of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?,”(a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there (b) It contains one large cave (c) It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana (d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect”

A

54,d,”Elephanta Island is associated with the Pashupata sect of Shaivism.”

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55
Q

55.,Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmed Khan is/are correct?,”1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent. 2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress. 3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights. 4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism. (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 4”

A

55,d,”Sir Syed Ahmed Khan argued for common descent of Hindus and Muslims, and the curriculum at Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology with European empiricism.”

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56
Q

56.,Consider the following statement: “A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.” The above statement is attributed to,”(a) Sardar Patel (b) Winston Churchill (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Baden-Powell”

A

56,c,”The statement ‘A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service’ is attributed to Mahatma Gandhi.”

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57
Q

57.,Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?,”(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) BR Ambedkar (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Swami Vivekananda”

A

57,a,”Phoenix Settlement was built by Mahatma Gandhi in Natal Province, South Africa.”

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58
Q

58.,Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.,”(a) Mahanavami Dibba (b) Lotus Maha (c) Hazara Rama (d) Virupaksha”

A

58,a,”The Mahanavami Dibba is the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.”

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59
Q

59.,The idea of ‘Farr-i-Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?,”(a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi (b) Nizamuddin Auliya (c) Ibn al-Arabi (d) Bayazid Bistami”

A

59,a,”The idea of ‘Farr-i-Izadi’ was first developed by the Iranian Sufi Shihabuddin Suhrawardi.”

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60
Q

60.,Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka?,”(a) Vinaya Pitaka (b) Sutta Pitaka (c) Abhidhamma Pitaka (d) Mahavamsa”

A

60,d,”Mahavamsa contains an account of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.”

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61
Q

61.,Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?,”(a) Ashoka played an important role in popularising the Stupa cult (b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks (c) They were located in rural areas (d) They were located close to trade routes”

A

61,c,”Stupas were not typically located in rural areas, so the statement ‘They were located in rural areas’ is incorrect.”

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62
Q

62.,Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?,”1. Bijak in Varanasi 2. Kabir Granthawali in Rajasthan 3. Adi Granth Sahib Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these”

A

62,d,”Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in various traditions including Bijak in Varanasi, Kabir Granthawali in Rajasthan, and Adi Granth Sahib.”

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63
Q

63.,Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?,”1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek. 2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

63,c,”Both statements are correct.”

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64
Q

64.,Which one of the following statements is not correct?,”(a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagawad Gita (b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra (c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism (d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body”

A

64,d,”Hujwiri’s conversations with the Yogis show that he was not impressed with their theories, so the statement in option (d) is not correct.”

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65
Q

65.,Consider the following statement “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.” Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?,”(a) Francisco Pelsaert (b) Francois Bernier (c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (d) Niccolao Manucci”

A

65,a,”Francisco Pelsaert made the statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire.”

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66
Q

66.,What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?,”(a) Ginan (b) Ziyarat (c) Raag (d) Shahada”

A

66,a,”‘Ginan’ is the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect.”

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67
Q

67.,Who was/were the 10th century composers of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?,”(a) Alvars (b) Nayanars (c) Appar (d) Sambandar”

A

67,a,”The 10th-century composers of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham were the Alvars.”

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68
Q

68.,Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallise in different parts of the Islamic world to signify 1. continuous link between the master and disciple 2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad 3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,”(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these”

A

68,d,”All the statements are correct.”

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69
Q

69.,In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?,”(a) Surya Sukta (b) Purusha Sukta (c) Dana Stuits (d) Urna Sutra”

A

69,b,”The hymn reflecting upon marriage ceremonies in the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda is the Purusha Sukta.”

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70
Q

70.,Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct? 1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka. 2. It was marked by non-brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra. 3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras. 4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.,”(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 2”

A

70,d,”Statement 2 is correct about non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra, and statement 3 is correct about the lack of labor unrest in places like Assam, Bengal, and Madras.”

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71
Q

71.,Statement I The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a state in either ancient or modern sense. Statement II Kingship was the same as tribal chief ship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.,”(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true”

A

71,a,”Both statements are individually true. The early Aryans did not develop any political structure resembling a state, and kingship was akin to tribal chieftainship.”

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72
Q

72.,Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy ?,”(a) Phulaguri Dhawa [1861] (b) Birsaite Ulgulan [1899- 1900] (c) Pabna Revolt [1873] (d) Maratha Peasant Uprising [1875]”

A

72,a,”The Phulaguri Dhawa peasant movement was an outcome of British opium policy.”

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73
Q

73.,Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched?,”(a) 1789 : Napoleonic Code (b) 1791 : Tennis Court Oath (c) 1792 : National Convention (d) 1804 : New Constitution of France”

A

73,c,”The correct match is: 1792 - National Convention.”

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74
Q

74.,Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century? 1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits 2. The discovery of steam power 3. The introduction of railways 4. The regular supply of raw materials Select the correct answer using the codes given below,”(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”

A

74,d,”All the factors listed contributed to the Industrial Revolution in England.”

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75
Q

75.,Consider the following 1. Tughlaqabad Fort 2. Bara Gumbad in Lodhi Garden 3. Qutub Minar 4. Fatehpur Sikri Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of building the above monuments?,”(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2”

A

75,b,”The correct chronological order is: Qutub Minar (3), Tughlaqabad Fort (1), Bara Gumbad (2), Fatehpur Sikri (4).”

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76
Q

76.,With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among the following scholars argued that “the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation”?,”(a) Irfan Habib (b) Satish Chandra (c) Athar Ali (d) J F Richards”

A

76,a,”Irfan Habib argued that the Mughal state was not just a protective arm of the exploiting classes but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation.”

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77
Q

77.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Type of Land) List II (Meaning) A. Urvara 1. Land watered by a river B. Maru 2. Fertile land C. Nadimatrika 3. Land watered by rain D. Devamatrika 4. Desert land Codes A B C D A B C D,”(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3”

A

77,d,”The correct match is: A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3.”

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78
Q

78.,Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?,”(a) KT Telang (b) Veeresalingam (c) NG Chandavarkar (d) KN Natarajan”

A

78,d,”KN Natarajan was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer.”

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79
Q

79.,Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?,”(a) Harsha (b) Govindachandra (c) Lakshmidhara (d) Kalidasa”

A

79,c,”Lakshmidhara was responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts.”

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80
Q

80.,Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?,”(a) Cauvery (b) Godavari (c) Saraswati (d) Ganges”

A

80,a,”The river praised in the fifth century Tamil epic Silappadikaram is the Cauvery.”

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81
Q

81.,Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct ?,”(a) It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent (b) It marks the first use of script, written from right to left (c) It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting (d) It marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting”

A

81,c,”The Harappan Culture did not mark the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.”

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82
Q

82.,Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to,”(a) Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha (b) Varman Dynasty of Assam (c) Nanda Dynasty of North India (d) None of the above”

A

82,b,”Bhaskara belonged to the Varman Dynasty of Assam.”

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83
Q

83.,Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy? 1. Atmiya Sabha 2. Brahmo Samaj 3. Prarthana Samaj 4. Arya Samaj Select the correct answer using the codes given below,”(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4”

A

83,c,”Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha and the Brahmo Samaj.”

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84
Q

84.,Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian history is not correct?,”(a) Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage (b) The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property (c) Decentralisation of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples (d) Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of selfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry”

A

84,b,”During the Gupta period, the status of women did not undergo significant improvement as described in statement (b).”

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85
Q

85.,Consider the following statements about the different meanings of ‘Swaraj’ as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi: 1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth). 2. Swaraj has two senses-one political and one beyond the realm of politics. 3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire. 4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,”(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3”

A

85,d,”All the statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s concept of ‘Swaraj’ are correct except statement 4.”

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86
Q

86.,What was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi? 1. Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th Century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths. 2. Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists. 3. Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.,”(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1”

A

86,c,”The philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi was influenced by all the factors mentioned in the options.”

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87
Q

87.,Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct? 1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century. 2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement. 3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees. 4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

A

87,b,”The Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) was formed as part of the Akali movement in 1920 to reclaim control of Sikh shrines.”

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88
Q

88.,Which of the following statements with regard to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct? 1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor. 2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers. 3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables. 4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad. Select the correct answer using the code given below,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

A

88,b,”Mahatma Gandhi highlighted the importance of farmers in his speech at the Banaras Hindu University, but he did not promise to take up the cause of mill owners.”

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89
Q

89.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list. List I (Act /Event) List II (Year) A. Rowlatt Act 1. 1922 B. Salt March 2. 1931 C. Chauri Chaura Incident 3. 1930 D. Second Round Table Conference 4. 1919 Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

A

89,a,”The correct match of events to years is: A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2.”

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90
Q

90.,Consider the following statements about the Salt March: 1. The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media. 2. The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press. 3. The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. 4. The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

A

90,d,”The Salt March was widely covered by the press, and it was the first nationalist activity involving significant participation of women. However, it did not directly lead to an immediate devolution of power to Indians.”

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91
Q

91.,In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India 1. only about 10 to 12 per cent of the population had the right to vote 2. the untouchables had no right to vote 3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces 4. the Muslim League won more than 80% of the seats reserved for Muslims Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

A

91,c,”During the provincial elections of 1937, only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had voting rights, but the Congress won an absolute majority in several provinces.”

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92
Q

92.,Which of the following statement(s) about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct? 1. It was located mainly in Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh. 2. It mainly comprised the trading castes. 3. It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3,

A

92,a The Arya Samaj had a significant social base mainly in Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh, and it was not as limited as the Brahmo Samaj’s social base.”

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93
Q

93.,During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average life span of workers in Manchester was (a) 17 years (b) 30 years (c) 55 years (d) 62 years,

A

93,a,”The average life span of workers in Manchester during the mid-19th century Industrial Revolution was only 17 years.”

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94
Q

94.,George Washington was made the Commander-in-Chief of the American forces (a) in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party (b) at the First Continental Congress in September, 1774 (c) at the Second Continental Congress in 1775 (d) by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of Independence on 4th July, 1776,

A

94,c,”George Washington was made Commander-in-Chief of the American forces by the Second Continental Congress in 1775.”

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95
Q

95.,Alexander Kerensky was (a) the head of the Provisional government in Russia before the October Revolution (b) a close confident of Lenin, with whose help the Czar was dethroned (c) the head of the Czar’s army (d) the advisor of Joseph Stalin,

A

95,a,”Alexander Kerensky was the head of the Provisional government in Russia before the October Revolution.”

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96
Q

96.,Statement I The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible. Statement II The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.,

A

96,b,”The Coercive Acts passed by the British Parliament indeed made reconciliation with the American colonies virtually impossible. However, the British Parliament did repeal the Stamp Act later, so statement II is true but not the correct explanation of statement I.”

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97
Q

97.,The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by (a) Henry Dundas (b) Alexander Reed (c) David Ricardo (d) Mountstuart Elphinstone,

A

97,b,”The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by Alexander Reed and Thomas Munro.”

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98
Q

98.,Match the following. List I (Historians) List II (Books)
99. A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
100. B. Shahid Amin 2. A Rule of Property for Bengal
101. C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-1908
102. D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, Memory-Chauri Chaura, 1922-1992 Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3,

A

98,a,”The correct match of historians to their books is: A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1.”

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99
Q

99.,What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara temple built by the Chola dynasty? (a) Harihara (b) Bhairava (c) Rudra (d) Tripurantaka,

A

99,d,”The prominent form of Shiva in the Brihadeshvara temple built by the Chola dynasty is Tripurantaka.”

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100
Q

100.,Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are correct? 1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita. 2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada. 3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic philosophy. 4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4,

A

100,b,”All the statements about the philosopher Shankara are correct except statement 4.”

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101
Q

101.,Which of the following statement(s) about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true? 1. The Deccan riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. 2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British. 3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra. 4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

A

101,d,”Statements 1, 2, and 4 about the Deccan Riots of 1875 are true.”

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102
Q

102.,Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin? 1. They follow Indian religious practices. 2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language. 3. They believe that they came from India. 4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

A

102,d,”All the statements about the Gypsies’ Indian origin are correct except statement 4.”

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103
Q

103.,The term Upari refers to which one of the following? (a) A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule (b) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule (c) A soldier in the Maratha army (d) A village headman in the Mughal period

A

103,b,”The term ‘Upari’ refers to a category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule.”

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104
Q

104.,The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for (a) producing a new type of painting (b) irrigating fields for rice cultivation (c) producing strong threads of yarn (d) the faster movement of steamships

A

104,c,”The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for producing strong threads of yarn.”

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105
Q

105.,The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the (a) story of Rama (b) Jaina elements in the storyline (c) culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists (d) cult of Shakti worship

A

105,b,”The epic Silappadikaram is known for its Jaina elements in the storyline.”

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106
Q

106.,Rakshasa type of marriage is (a) marriage by purchase (b) marriage by capture (c) marriage by giving dowry (d) marriage by seduction

A

106,b,”Rakshasa type of marriage refers to marriage by capture.”

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107
Q

107.,Consider the following statement(s) about Harappan cities: l. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did not always cross one another at right angles. 2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average size History of the bricks for houses and for city walls. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

c

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108
Q

108.,Statement I The Pahi-okashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis. Statement II The Pahi-okashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress.,

A

108,a,”Both statements are true, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I regarding Pahi-okashta peasants.”

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109
Q

109.,Statement I The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India. Statement II The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the 17th century.,

A

109,b,”Both statements are true; the Zamindars were not exploitative, and they received support from the peasantry in agrarian uprisings.”

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110
Q

110.,Statement I King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded his army. Statement II After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist.,

A

110,d,”The first statement is false because King Ashoka did not disband his army. The second statement is true; Ashoka became remorseful after the Kalinga War and embraced Buddhism.”

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111
Q

111.,Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe? (a) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera (b) Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera (c) Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma (d) Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra,

A

111,a,”Yama, Indra, Varuna, and Kubera are known as Lokapalas or Guardians of the Universe.”

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112
Q

112.,Consider the following statements: 1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society. 2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

112,a,”Only statement 1 is correct. Hind Swaraj does indeed formulate a conception of the good life for both the individual and society, but it was written before Gandhi’s arrival in India, so statement 2 is incorrect.”

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113
Q

113.,Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture? (a) Amalananda Ghosh (b) Rakhaldas Bannerjee (c) Daya Ram Sahni (d) Sir John Marshall,

A

113,a,”Amalananda Ghosh was the first archaeologist to identify similarities between pre-Harappan and mature Harappan cultures.”

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114
Q

114.,Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram? (a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture. (b) Both are carved out from solid rocks. 360 CDS Chapterwise-Sectionwise Solved Papers 2016 (I) (c) Both are Gupta period temples. (d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings.,

A

114,b,”Both the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram are carved out of solid rock.”

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115
Q

115.,Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings? 1. The stories of Krishna 2. Ragas and Raginis 3. The deeds of Hamza 4. The deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4,

A

115,c,”The deeds of Babur are not depicted in Rajput paintings.”

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116
Q

116.,Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti? (a) Sharp and polished intellect (b) Accomplished sculptor (c) Fine musical performances (d) Poetical talent of a genius,

A

116,b,”All attributes described in Prayag Prashasti regarding Samudragupta are correct except for the one related to being an accomplished sculptor.”

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117
Q

117.,Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to (a) Logic and Philosophy (b) Mathematics (c) Political morality (d) Grammar,

A

117,c,”Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to political morality.”

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118
Q

118.,The followers of Gorakhnath were called (a) Jogis (b) Nath-Panthis (c) Tantriks (d) Sanyasis,

A

118,a,”The followers of Gorakhnath were called Jogis.”

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119
Q

119.,What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called? (a) Misl (b) Gurmata (c) Sardari (d) Rakhi,

A

119,a,”The 12 states of the Sikh confederacy were called ‘Misl’.”

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120
Q

120.,Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct? (a) The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and date. (b) The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and date. (c) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse had an image of a deity or a motif. (d) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse always had a date.,

A

120,c,”The obverse of Gupta coins generally had the king’s portrait, and the reverse had an image of a deity or a motif.”

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121
Q

121.,The Agrahara in early India was (a) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins (b) the garland of flowers of Agar (c) the grant of land to officers and soldiers (d) land of village settled by Vaishya farmers,

A

121,a,”In early India, Agrahara was the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins.”

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122
Q

122.,Which of the following statement(s) about the Vijayanagara empire is/are true? 1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha. 2. Rulers used the title ‘Hindu Suratrana’ to indicate their close links with Gods. 3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil. 4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4,

A

122,d,”All statements about the Vijayanagara empire are correct except for statement 3.”

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123
Q

123.,Iqta in medieval India meant (a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes (b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers (c) charity for educational and cultural activities (d) the rights of the Zamindar,

A

123,b,”In medieval India, Iqta meant land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers.”

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124
Q

124.,Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court? (a) Hamzanama (b) Razmnama (c) Baburnama (d) Tarikh-i-Alfi,

A

124,c,”The book ‘Baburnama’ was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court.”

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125
Q

125.,Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to? (a) Avadh (b) Travancore (c) Vijayanagara (d) Ahom,

A

125,c,”The temple of Hazara Rama belonged to the Vijayanagara kingdom.”

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126
Q

126.,Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the 2nd century BC: 1. They record gifts made to religious institutions. 2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

The correct answer is option 3, which states that both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 1 says that votive inscriptions in the second century BC record gifts made to religious institutions. This means that these inscriptions provide information about offerings or donations made by individuals or groups to religious organizations during that time period. Votive inscriptions were often made to express gratitude or seek blessings from deities.

Statement 2 states that votive inscriptions can tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person. The concept of transference refers to the belief that the positive effects or merits of a person`s actions can be transferred to someone else, either in the present or in the afterlife. Votive inscriptions might mention this belief in relation to the individuals who made the donations, suggesting that they hoped for the transfer of these merits to themselves or their loved ones.

Therefore, both statements are correct as votive inscriptions in the second century BC do record gifts made to religious institutions and provide information about the idea of transference of merits.

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127
Q

127.,Consider the following statements: 1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems. 2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the 8th century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

C

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128
Q

128.,Consider the following statements : 1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma. 2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

128,b,”The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei provide details of Ashoka’s visit to Lumbini, not about his Dhamma. The Nigalisagar inscription records Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa.”

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129
Q

129.,Consider the following statements: 1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911. 2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

Only 2
Notes: Assam Province was constituted in the year 1874-1875, when eleven districts comprising it were separated from the Lt. Governorship of Bengal. It was established as an independent administration under a chief commissioner.

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130
Q

130.,Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? 1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India. 2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text. 3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3,

A

130,c,”Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was indeed the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India. His main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules.”

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131
Q

131.,Consider the following statements about Alauddin Khilji’s market policy 1. He placed markets under the control of a high officer called ‘Shahna’ for strictly controlling the shopkeepers and prices. 2. In order to ensure a regular supply of cheap foodgrains, he ordered the land revenue from Doab region to be paid directly to the state. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

A

131,c,”Both statements are correct. Alauddin Khilji took various steps to control prices and ensure a regular supply of cheap foodgrains.”

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132
Q

132.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Term) List II (Meaning)
133. A. Mihrab 1. Stepped pulpit’
134. B. Mimbar 2. Direction towards the Kaba for prayer
135. C. Khutba 3. Arch
136. D. Kibla 4. Sermon Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2,

A

In this question, we are given two lists: List-I and List-II. We need to match the terms from List-I with their correct meanings from List-II. The code given below provides the arrangement of the terms.

List-I (Term) List-II (Meaning)

A. Mihrab ⇒ 3. Arch

B. Mimbar ⇒ 1. Stepped pulpit

C. Khutba ⇒ 4. Sermon

D. Kibla ⇒ 2. Direction towards the Kaba for prayer

We need to select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Looking at the options and their codes, we can see that option 3 matches the terms correctly. The correct arrangement is:

A ⇒ 3

B ⇒ 1

C ⇒ 4

D ⇒ 2

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

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133
Q

133.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Person) List II (Work) A. Uddanda 1. Sudhanidhi B. Suyana 2. Mallikamaruta C. Yadavaprakaasa 3. Malatimadhava D. Bhavabhuti 4. Vaijayanti Codes A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2,

A

133,a,”The correct match is: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.”
A. Uddanda 2. Mallikamaruta
B. Suyana 1. Sudhanidhi
C. Yadavaprakaasa 4. Vaijayanti
D. Bhavabhuti 3. Malatimadhava

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134
Q

134.,The Rihla was written in (a) Arabic in the 14th century by Ibn Battuta (b) Persian in the 15th century by Abdur Razzaq (c) Persian in the 13th century by Ibn Battuta (d) Italian in the 13th century by Marco Polo,

A

134,a,”The Rihla was indeed written in Arabic in the 14th century by Ibn Battuta.”

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135
Q

135.,Which of the following statement(s) about the formation of the Indian National Congress is/are true? 1. The Indian National Congress was formed at a national convention held in Calcutta in December 1885 under the presidency of Motilal Nehru. 2. The Safety Valve Theory regarding the formation of the Indian National Congress emerged from a biography of AO Hume written by William Wedderburn. 3. An early decision was that the President would be from the same region where the session was to be held. 4. WC Bannerjee was the first President of the Indian National Congress. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3,

A

135,c,”The Indian National Congress was formed in 1885 at a national convention held in Bombay (not Calcutta) under the presidency of W.C. Bonnerjee.”

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136
Q

136.,Which of the following statement(s) about Jyotirao Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj Movement in Maharashtra is/are true? 1. The Satyashodhak Samaj was set-up in 1873. 2. Phule argued that Brahmins were the progeny of ‘alien’ Aryans. 3. Phule’s focus on the Kunbi peasantry in the 1880s and 1890s led to a privileging of Maratha identity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3,

A

136,d,”All the statements about Jyotirao Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj Movement are correct.”

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137
Q

137.,Which of the following statement(s) about Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah, who played an important part in the Revolt of 1857 is/are correct? 1. He was popularly known as Danka Shah or the Maulvi with a drum. 2. He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat. 3. He was killed by British troops under the command of Henry Lawrence. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2,

A
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138
Q

138.,In ancient India, the ‘Yaudheyas’ were (a) a sect of the Buddhism (b) a sect of the Jainism (c) a republican tribe (d) vassals of the Cholas,_

A

138,c,”Yaudheyas were a republican tribe in ancient India.”

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139
Q

139.,Borobudur is the site of (a) a huge temple of Vishnu and Shiva in Java, built in the AD 12th century (b) an enormous Stupa in Java, built in the AD 8th century (c) a magnificent palace of a Chola King in Tamil Nadu (d) a Jain monastery in Gujarat,_

A

139,b,”Borobudur is indeed an enormous stupa in Java, built in the AD 8th century.”

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140
Q

140.,Which of the following statement(s) about the Hastings Plan of 1772 is/are correct? 1. Each district was to have a civil and a criminal court. 2. The Judges were helped by native assessors who were skilled in Hindu and Islamic laws. 3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was mainly meant to settle mercantile cases exceeding ` 10000 in value. 4. These courts did not put into place any procedural improvements. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 2,_

A

140,a,”Statements 1 and 2 are correct about the Hastings Plan of 1772.”

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141
Q

141.,Who among the following was not a painter at Akbar’s Court? (a) Daswanth (b) Abdus Samad (c) Kalyan Das (d) Basawan,_

A

141,c,”Kalyan Das was not a painter at Akbar’s Court.”

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142
Q

142.,After the death of Shivaji, there was a fight for succession between (a) Shambhaji and the widow of Shivaji (b) Shambhaji and Bajirao (c) Rajaram and Shambhaji (d) None of the above,_

A

142,c,”After Shivaji’s death, there was a fight for succession between Rajaram and Shambhaji.”

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143
Q

143.,Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Author) List II (Work)
144. A. Somadeva 1. Malavikagnimitra
145. B. Kalidasa 2. Kathasaritsagara
146. C. Bhasa 3. Chaurapanchasika
147. D. Bilhana 4. Svapnavasavadatta Codes A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2,_

A

143,a,”The correct match is: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.”
1. Author - Somadeva: Work - Kathasaritsagara

  1. Author - Kalidasa: Work - Malamkagnirrdtra
  2. Author - Bhasa: Work - Chaurapanchasika
  3. Author - Bilhana: Work - Svapnavasavadatta
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144
Q

144.,Patanjali was (a) a philosopher of the ‘Yogachara’ school (b) the author of a book on Ayurveda (c) a philosopher of the ‘Madhyamika’ school (d) the author of a commentary on Panini’s Sanskrit grammar,_

A

144,d,Patanjali was a grammarian, authoring the Mahabhashya or Great Commentary on Panini’s grammar.

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145
Q

145.,Match List I with List ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (King) List II (Region)
146. A. Shashanka 1. Assam
147. B. Kharavela 2. Maharashtra
148. C. Simuka 3. Odisha
149. D. Bhaskara Varman 4. Bengal Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4,_

A

145,c,”The correct match is: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.”

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146
Q

146.,Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rig Veda? 1. Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism. 2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta. 3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the priest who was called yajaman. 4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds — those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these,_

A

146,c,”Rig Vedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism, with striking similarities to Iranian Avesta, and sacrifices conducted by the householder or ritual specialists.”

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147
Q

147.,Which of the following statement(s) about Mahatma Gandhi’s South African experiences (1893-1914) is/are true? 1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa. 2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against the ordinance on compulsory registration and passes for Indians. 3. Gandhi began his political career with struggles against the imposition of excessive taxes on Indians in Cape Town. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above,_

A

147,a,”Only statement 1 is correct. Muslim merchants were actively involved in Gandhian political movements in South Africa.”

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148
Q

148.,Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement? (a) Comrade and Hamdard (b) Comrade and Hindustan Times (c) Zamindar and Muslim Voice (d) Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal,_

A

148,d,”Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar, and Al Hilal were newspapers reflecting the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement.”

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149
Q

149.,Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual. 2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of men and individuals. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,_

A

149,a,”Only statement 1 is correct. Marxism repudiates the idea of the atomised and alienated individual.”

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150
Q

150.,Which would be the most appropriate description concerning the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha? It aspired to (a) do political work among youth, peasants and workers (b) spread the philosophy of revolution among students (c) initiate discussions regarding anti-imperialism among workers (d) help the formation of a Trade Union Movement in Punjab,_

A

150,a,”The Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha aspired to do political work among youth, peasants, and workers.”

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151
Q

151.,Which empire did Nicolo de Conti, Abdur Razzaq, Afanasy Nikitin and Fernao Nuniz visit? (a) The empire of Kannauj (b) Vijayanagara empire (c) Hoysala empire (d) Rashtrakuta empire,_

A

151,b,”Nicolo de Conti, Abdur Razzaq, Afanasy Nikitin, and Fernao Nuniz visited the Vijayanagara empire.”

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152
Q

152.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Editor) List II (Journal/ Newspaper)
153.A. SA Dange 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette
154. B. Muzaffar Ahmed 2. Inquilab
155. C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Navayug
156. D. M. Singaravelu 4. The Socialist Codes A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4,_

A

152,a,”The correct match is: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.”

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153
Q

153.,Which of the following was/were connected primarily to the communist ideology? 1. Kirti Kisan Party 2. Labour Swaraj Party Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,_

A

153,c,”Both the Kirti Kisan Party and the Labour Swaraj Party were connected primarily to communist ideology.”

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154
Q

154.,The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the 19th century came about in order to (a) make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan (b) ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan (c) increase the reach of the British Empire (d) establish a monopoly over the markets of Afghanistan,_

A

154,b,”The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the 19th century primarily came about to ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.”

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155
Q

155.,Which of the following features of the State of Arcot in 18th century South India are correct? 1. The founders of the dynasty that ruled Arcot were Daud Khan Panni and Saadatullah Khan. 2. Arcot became the site of a protracted struggle between the English and Dutch East India Companies from the 1740s. 3. Decentralisation was a key feature of the State of Arcot in the 18th century. 4. The other major State to emerge in South India at this time was Mysore. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4,_

A

155,b,”The correct statements are 1 and 2. Statement 3 is incorrect as decentralization was not a key feature of the State of Arcot in the 18th century.”

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156
Q

156.,Which of the following statement(s) about the musical culture in 18th and 19th centuries North India is/are not correct? 1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the khyal form. 2. A large number of musicians move out of regional centres to Delhi where they hoped they would receive more employment and patronage. 3. The period was marked by the formation of specific region based gharanas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these,_

A

156,c,”Statement 2 is incorrect. A large number of musicians moved out of regional centers to Delhi, but the formation of specific region-based gharanas was a characteristic of this time.”

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157
Q

157.,Which of the following statement(s) about the musical culture in 18th and 19th centuries South India is/are correct? 1. Musical developments were spearheaded by the Arcot court. 2. Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of classical music in the second half of the 19th century. 3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Dikshitar and Syama Sastri experimented with the kriti form to set the foundations for modern Carnatic music. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these,_

A

The correct statement about the musical culture in 18th and 19th century South India is option 3: “Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Diksitar, and Syama Sastri experimented with the kriti form to set the foundations for modern Carnatic music.”

Option 1, which states that musical developments were spearheaded by the Arcot court, is incorrect. The music culture in South India during the 18th and 19th centuries was not solely driven by the Arcot court. There were various other influential musicians and composers during this time.

Option 2, which suggests that Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of classical music in the second half of the 19th century, is also incorrect. While Tanjavur did play a significant role in the development and patronage of classical music, Madras (now Chennai) has always been a major cultural center for music in South India.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: 3 only

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158
Q

158.,Which of the following statement(s) about visual culture in 18th and early 19th century North India is/are correct? 1. Painters from Patna and Murshidabad flocked to Calcutta and produced water colours in the English mode. 2. Landscape and portraiture became extremely important at this time. 3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das and Ram Das were adopted by the English East India Company to produce albums of Indian birds and animals. 4. While Indians were influenced by European artistic styles, Europeans artists did not visit regional courts. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) Only 4,_

A

158,a,”The correct statements are 1, 2, and 3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das, and Ram Das were indeed adopted by the English East India Company to produce albums of Indian birds and animals.”

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159
Q

159.,Which of the following statements about the social reformer, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, is false? (a) Ram Mohan Roy belonged to the gentry class whose power has been diminished because of the imposition of the Permanent Settlement (b) He studied both Vedantic Monism and Christian Unitarianism (c) He translated the Upanishads into Bengali (d) His first organisation was the Atmiya Sabha, founded in Calcutta in 1815,_

A

159,a,”The false statement is (a). Raja Ram Mohan Roy did not belong to the gentry class whose power diminished because of the imposition of the Permanent Settlement.”

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160
Q

160.,Which of the following characteristic(s) about the state of Travancore in 18th century Kerala is/are correct? 1. Travancore was ruled by Martanda Varma from 1729 to 1758. 2. Travancore built a strong army and defeated the Dutch in 1741. 3. Travancore was an important centre of learning. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these,_

A

160,d,”All the characteristics about the state of Travancore in the 18th century Kerala are correct.”

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161
Q

161.,Upari refers to which one of the following? (a) A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the Maratha period (b) A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime (c) A court official during Maratha rule (d) A group of peasants who repelled against their oppressive landlords under Maratha rule,_

A

161,b,”Upari refers to a category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha regime, not a form of Marathi poetry.”

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162
Q

162.,Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of the Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings? 1. These uprisings refer to a series of skirmishes between the English East India Company and a group of Sannyasis and Fakirs. 2. One reason for the uprising was the ban on free movement of the Sannyasis along pilgrimage routes. 3. In the course of the uprisings in 1773, Warren Hastings issued a proclamation banishing all Sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar. 4. Are contemporaneous with the Non- Cooperation Movement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4,_

A

162,c,”Statements 1, 2, and 3 are characteristics of the Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings.”

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163
Q

163.,Which of the statements given below about the Mughal rule in India is false? (a) Peasant communities were a united and homogeneous group. (b) There was an abundance of food grain. (c) The state encouraged those crops that brought in more revenue. (d) Most regions produced two crops in a year.,_

A

163,a,”The false statement is (a). Peasant communities were not a united and homogeneous group during the Mughal rule.”

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164
Q

164.,The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to start a revolt in India. Which among the following provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt? (a) Punjab (b) Bengal (c) United Provinces(d) Bihar,_

A

164,a,”The Ghadar Party chose Punjab to begin its armed revolt.”

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165
Q

165.,The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by,Colonel Colin Mackenzie,Sir John Shore,Andrew Fraser ,John Marshall,a

A

165,a,”The ruins of Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by Colonel Colin Mackenzie.”

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166
Q

166.,Consider the following statements about colonial economy of Vietnam (Indo-China): 1. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations. 2. All the rubber plantations in Vietnam were owned and controlled by a small Vietnamese elite. 3. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. 4. Indentured labourers worked on the basis of contracts that did not specify any rights of labourers but gave immense power to the employers. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1,b

A

166,a,”All the statements about the colonial economy of Vietnam are correct.”

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167
Q

167.,Which of the four linguistic regions in South India remained unaffected by the Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22)?,Kerala,Tamil Nadu,Andhra Pradesh,Karnataka,d

A

167,d,”Karnataka remained unaffected by the Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22) in South India.”

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168
Q

168.,Which of the following statement(s) about the penetration of English into Bengal is/are correct? 1. Job Charnock arrived in Sutanati in August, 1690 and laid the foundation of Calcutta which later became the heart of the British Indian empire. 2. The French East India Company built a fort near the Fort William in Calcutta. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,a

A

168,a,”Statement I is correct. Job Charnock founded Calcutta, and the French East India Company did build a fort near Fort William. “

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169
Q

169.,Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. Early Buddhist literature is generally composed of the canonical text. 2. The Buddhist schools classify their canonical literature as only the Pitakas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,d

A

The correct answer is option 4 - Neither 1 nor 2.

Let`s dissect each statement to understand why it is incorrect.

Statement 1: Early Buddhist literature is generally composed of the canonical text.

This statement is incorrect. While it is true that early Buddhist literature includes the canonical text, it is not limited to it. Early Buddhist literature also includes other types of texts such as commentaries, sub-commentaries, and Abhidhamma texts. Therefore, the statement is too narrow in its scope.

Statement 2: The Buddhist schools classify their canonical literature as only the Pitakas.

This statement is incorrect. The Buddhist schools do classify their literature as Pitakas, but the Pitakas are not the only classification. The Pitakas consist of three baskets or collections: the Vinaya Pitaka (rules for monastic discipline), the Sutta Pitaka (discourses attributed to the Buddha), and the Abhidhamma Pitaka (philosophical and psychological analysis). However, there are other texts outside of the Pitakas that are considered canonical in different Buddhist traditions. Therefore, the statement is too restrictive and does not capture the full extent of canonical literature

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170
Q

170.,Statement I The 12th century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka led by a Brahmana named Basavanna. Statement II The Lingayats worshipped Shiva in his manifestation as a Linga.,a

A

170,b,”Statement I is true about Basavanna, but Statement II does not correctly explain Statement I.”

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171
Q

171.,Statement I Ram Mohan Roy in his famous work Gift to Monotheism put forward weighty arguments against belief in many Gods and for the worship of a single God. Statement II Ram Mohan Roy in his Precepts of Jesus tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of the New Testament.,b

A

171,b,”Statement I is true about Ram Mohan Roy’s work, but Statement II does not correctly explain it.”

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172
Q

172.,Statement I The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for women’s education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s. Statement II The first step in giving modern education to girls was undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800.,c

A

172,c,”The Bethune School was founded in 1849, but Vidyasagar’s efforts were not in 1800.”

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173
Q

173.,Statement I The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 adversely affected the financial conditions of the sepoys. Statement II The sepoys had to pay higher taxes on the land where their family members stayed in Awadh.,a

A

173,a,”The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie adversely affected the financial conditions of the sepoys, and they had to pay higher taxes.”

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174
Q

Marco Polo’s trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of : A. his having discovered a safe mute to India B. his having established amicable relations with many Kings of India C. his account of commercial religious and social conditions in the East D. All of the above
Marco Polo’s trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in Europe on account of :
A. his having discovered a safe mute to India
B. his having established amicable relations with many Kings of India
C. his account of commercial religious and social conditions in the East
D. All of the above

A

The correct answer is option 3: his account of commercial, religious, and social conditions in the East. Marco Polos journey to India in 1271 gained a lot of fame in Europe due to the detailed and fascinating account he provided about the trade, religion, and society in the East. His book, "The Travels of Marco Polo," was widely read and contributed to Europeans understanding of the rich and diverse cultures of the Far East.

Option 1 states that Marco Polo discovered a safe route to India, but this is not accurate. Marco Polo`s journey did not involve discovering a new route to India; rather, he travelled along the established Silk Road and visited various regions in Asia.

Option 2 suggests that Marco Polo established friendly relations with many Kings of India, but this is not entirely true. Although Marco Polo did interact with several rulers during his travels, such as Kublai Khan in China, there is no specific mention of him establishing strong connections with Indian kings.

Therefore, option 3 is the most accurate choice as it highlights the main reason for Marco Polo`s fame in Europe - his detailed account of the commercial, religious, and social conditions in the East.

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175
Q

175.,Consider the following statements from Kalhana’s Rajatarangini 1. The common people ate rice and Utpala-saka (a wild vegetable of bitter taste). 2. Harsha introduced into Kashmir a general dress befitting a king which included a long coat. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,c

A

175,c,”Both statements from Kalhana’s Rajatarangini are correct.”

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176
Q

176.,Match the following List I (Text) List II (Author)
177.A. Kitab-al-Hind 1. Ibn Battuta
178.B. Rehla 2. Al-Biruni
179.C. Humayun Nama 3. Lahori
180. D. Badshah Nama 4. Gulbadan Begum Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3,d

A

176,d,”The matches are: A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.”

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177
Q

177.,Which one of the following was a temple built by the Chola Kings? (a) Brihadiswara Temple, Tanjavur (b) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai (c) Srirangam Temple, Thiruchirapalli (d) Durga Temple, Aihole,a

A

177,a,”The Brihadiswara Temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola Kings.”

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178
Q

178.,Consider the following statements concerning the initial phase of the Industrial Revolution in England. 1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore were plentifully available to be used in industry. 2. Until the 18th century, there was a scarcity of usable iron. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,c

A

178,c,”Both statements are correct. England had abundant coal and iron ore available for industry during the Industrial Revolution.”

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179
Q

179.,Match the following List I (Temple) List II (Town)
180.A. Kailasanathar 1. Bhuvneshwar
181. B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho
182. C. Kandariya Mahadev 3. Mount Abu
183. D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4,b

A

179,b,”The matches are: A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3.”

A - Kailasanathar matches with 4 - Kanchipuram, B - Lingaraj matches with 1 - Bhubaneshwar, C - Kandariya Mahadev matches with 2 - Khajuraho, D - Dilwara matches with 3 - Mount Abu

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180
Q

180.,Which among the following was the reason of the resignations of the Indian Ministers in all the provinces in the year 1939? (a) The Governors refused to act as constitutional heads (b) The Centre did not provide the required financial help to provinces (c) The Governor-General converted Indian administration from federal to unitary one because of the beginning of the World War II (d) India was declared a party to the World War II without the consent of the provincial government,d

A

180,d,”The Indian Ministers resigned in 1939 because India was declared a party to World War II without the consent of the provincial government.”

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181
Q

181.,Who among the following was not associated with the activities of the Theosophical Society? (a) Madame HP Blavatsky (b) Mr AO Hume (c) Col HS Olcott (d) Mrs Annie Besant

A

181,b,”Mr. AO Hume was not associated with the activities of the Theosophical Society.”

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182
Q

182.,The Society of Jesus, whose followers were called Jesuits, was set-up by (a) Martin Luther (b) Ulrich Zwingli (c) Erasmus (d) Ignatius Loyola

A

182,d,”The Society of Jesus, or the Jesuits, was set up by Ignatius Loyola.”

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183
Q

183.,Consider the following statements about the First Session of the Indian National Congress 1. It was held in Bombay in 1885. 2. Surendranath Bannerji could not attend the session due to the simultaneous session of the Indian National Conference. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

183,c,”Both statements are correct. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in 1885, and Surendranath Bannerji could not attend due to the simultaneous session of the Indian National Conference.”

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184
Q

184.,Consider the following statements 1. BG Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April 1916, in Maharashtra. 2. NC Kelkar was not associated with Home Rule Movement. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

184,a,”Only statement 1 is correct. BG Tilak founded the Home Rule League in Maharashtra in April 1916.”

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185
Q

185.,Consider the following statements about Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh 1. He was a staunch supporter of Indian National Congress. 2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was set-up with the objective of promoting learning of Islamic education among the Muslims. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

185,d,”Both statements are incorrect. Syed Ahmed Khan founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College to promote social and economic development among Indian Muslims, and he was not a staunch supporter of the Indian National Congress.”

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186
Q

186.,The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in (a) Hind Swaraj (b) An Authobiography—The Story of My Experiments with Truth (c) History of the Satyagraha in South Africa (d) The Bhagavad Geeta According to Gandhi

A

186,a,”The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in Hind Swaraj.”

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187
Q

187.,The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found at (a) Sanchi (b) Amaravati (c) Kanaganahalli (d) Ajanta

A

187,c,”The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found at Kanaganahalli.”

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188
Q

188.,Which one of the following statements about Rig Veda is not correct? (a) Deities were worshipped through prayer and sacrificial rituals (b) The Gods are presented as powerful, who could be made to intervene in the world of men via the performance of sacrifices (c) The Gods were supposed to partake of the offerings as they were consumed by the fire (d) The sacrifices were performed in the temples

A

188,d,”The sacrifices mentioned in the Rig Veda were not performed in temples.”

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189
Q

189.,Consider the following statements 1. Battle of Buxar provided the key to the English to establish their rule in India. 2. The Treaty of Allahabad, concluded in 1765, enabled the British to establish their rule in Bengal. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

189,c,”Both statements are correct. The Battle of Buxar and the Treaty of Allahabad facilitated the establishment of British rule in India.”

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190
Q

190.,Which one of the following statements about ancient Indian Mahajanapadas is correct? (a) All Mahajanapadas were oligarchies where power was exercised by a group of people (b) All Mahajanapadas were located in Eastern India (c) No army was maintained by the Mahajanapadas (d) Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas

A

190,d,”Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas.”

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191
Q

191.,Consider the following statements regarding Indian Feudalism in the early medieval period 1. The revenue assignments were called Bhoga. 2. The hereditary chiefs neither collected revenues nor assumed administrative powers. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

191,a,”In the early medieval period, revenue assignments were called ‘Bhoga.’”

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192
Q

192.,The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of (a) Bindusara (b) Ashoka (c) Kunal (d) Kanishka

A

192,d,”The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of Kanishka.”

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193
Q

193.,The University of Nalanda was set-up by which Gupta ruler? (a) Kumaragupta II (b) Kumaragupta I (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta

A

193,b,”The University of Nalanda was set up by Kumaragupta I.”

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194
Q

194.,Consider the following statements about Sher Shah’s administration 1. He divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further subdivided into Parganas. 2. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly administered by Sher Shah without the help of any other officials. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

194,a,”Sher Shah divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further subdivided into Parganas. However, the Sarkars and the Parganas were not directly administered by Sher Shah.”

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195
Q

1.,Which one of the following is the most noticeable characteristic of the mediterranean climate? (a) Limited geographical extent (b) Dry summer (c) Dry winter (d) Moderate temperature

A

1,b,”Mediterranean climate is characterised by dry summer, mild and wet winters. The climate receive its name from the mediterranean basin, where this climate type is most common. Climate zones are located along the Western sides of continents, between 30° and 45° North and South of the equator.”

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196
Q

2.,Which one of the following rivers takes a ‘U’ turn at Namcha Barwa and enters India? (a) Ganga (b) Tista (c) Barak (d) Brahmaputra

A

2,d,”Brahmaputra originates on the Angsi Glacier located on the Northern side of the Himalayas as Yarlung Tsangpo river and flows in Southern Tibet to break through the Himalayas in great Gorges. Tsangpo (Brahmaputra) enters India after taking a ‘U’ turn at Namcha Barwa and flows in Arunachal Pradesh where it is known as ‘Dihang’ or ‘Siang’ rivers.”

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197
Q

3.,Which one of the following Indian States has no international boundary? (a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Uttarakhand (d) Meghalaya

A

3,b,”India is the 7th largest country in the world and it is the only country in the Indian subcontinent to share its land frontiers with every member country of the subcontinent . Afghanistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh, China, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan are bordering countries of India. Chhattisgarh do not have any international boundary.”

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198
Q

4.,Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on a river bank? (a) Agra (b) Bhagalpur (c) Bhopal (d) Kanpur

A

4,c,”Agra is a city in the State of Uttar Pradesh in India situated on the banks of river Yamuna. Bhagalpur is one of the important city of the State of Bihar. It is situated on the banks of the river Ganga. Kanpur is situated in State of Uttar Pradesh, it is situated on Ganga river. Hence, Bhopal is not situated on a river bank.”

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199
Q

5.,Where are Jhumri Telaiya and Mandar Hills situated? (a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) West Bengal

A

The correct answer is option 1: Jharkhand.

Johnui Telaiya and Mender Hills are both situated in the state of Jharkhand.

Jharkhand is a state located in eastern India. It was carved out of the southern part of Bihar in the year 2000. Jharkhand is known for its rich mineral resources and dense forests.

Johnui Telaiya is a small tourist spot in Jharkhand situated near Giridih. It is known for its picturesque surroundings, with a beautiful lake and hilly terrain.

Mender Hills, also known as Mander Pahar, is a mountain range located near Jhumri Tilaiya in Jharkhand. It is a popular destination for trekking and adventure activities, offering breathtaking views of the surrounding landscape.

Therefore, if you are looking for the locations of Johnui Telaiya and Mender Hills, you can find them in the state of Jharkhand, option 1.

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200
Q

6.,Which one of the following is not correct regarding South India? (a) Diurnal range of temperature is less (b) Annual range of temperature is less (c) Temperature is high throughout the year (d) Extreme climatic conditions are found

A

6,d,”South Indian regions have a tropical climate with the monsoons playing a major part. Diurnal range of temperature is less in South India. Annual range of temperature is also due to proximity to equator. Temperature is high throughout the year. Climatic conditions are not extreme here as they are in Northern part of India. Hence, option (d) is not correct.”

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201
Q

7.,Which one of the following regions is an important supplier of citrus fruits? (a) Equatorial region (b) Mediterranean region (c) Desert region (d) Sub-humid region

A

7,b,”Citrus fruits are the highest value fruit crop in terms of international trade. They are produced all over the world. Mediterranean region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. Oranges account for the majority of citrus production, but the industry also sees significant quantities of grape fruits, pomelos, lemons.”

202
Q

8.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Ethnic Territorial Segment)
9.A. Maruta Makkal B. Kuravan Makkal C. Mullai Makkal D. Neytal Makkal List II (Related Occupational Pattern) 1. Pastoralists 2. Fishing people 3. Ploughmen 4. Hill people Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3

A

8,c,”According to Tamil literature, the basic unit of ethnic identification in Dravidian culture was ‘Nadu’ and these were divided into five types on the basis of natural sub-region. The ethnic territorial segments are Maruta Makkal Ploughmen inhabiting fertile land. Kuravan Makkal Hill people who leave the forest to work in Panai. Mullai Makkal Pastoralist. Neytal Makkal Fishing people living in coastal villages. Palai Makkal People of dry plains”

203
Q

9.,Which one of the following is not geographical requirement for cultivation of cotton? (a) Temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer. (b) Moderate to light rainfall. (c) Medium laom soil with good drainage. (d) A growing period of at least 100 frost free days.

A

9,d,”Cultivation of cotton requires a growing period of atleast 200 frost free days, and not just 100 frost free days. Other requirements for cotton cultivation include, temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer, moderate to light rainfall (55-100 cm), medium loam soil with good drainage and high water retention capacity. Rainfall during harvesting season is harmful for its production. India is the largest producer of cotton in the world.”

204
Q

10.,Which one of the following statements regarding temperate coniferous forest biome is not correct? (a) They are characterised by very little undergrowth. (b) They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a year. (c) There is low variation in annual temperature. (d) There is high range in spatial distribution of annual precipitation.

A

10,c,”Temperate coniferous forest are found in areas with cool winters, warm summers and abundant rainfall. Trees like spruce, pine and cedar grows here, but they have little undergrowth. They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a year. Rainfall is abundant but there is high range in spatial distribution of annual precipitation. Thus, option (a), (b) and (d) are correct. These areas have moderate temperature but experiences seasonal changes and considerable valuation. Temperate coniferous forest biome has high (and not low) variation in annual temperature. It ranges from an average of −40°C in winters to 10°C in summers. Hence, option (c) is not correct.”

205
Q

11.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Peak) List II (Name of Hill) A. Anamudi B. Doddabetta C. Dhupgarh D. Guru Shikhar 1. Nilgiri 2. Satpura 3. Aravalli 4. Annamalai Codes A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3

A

11,c,”Anamudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats in India. It is located at junction of Cardamom hills, Annamalai hills and Palani hills. Doddabetta is the highest peak in the Nilgiri mountains, situated in Nilgiris distric of TamilNadu. Dhupgarh is highest point on the Satpura mountains, situated in Panchmaehi, Madhya Pradesh. Guru Shikhar, a peak in Rajasthan is the highest point of the Aravalli range. Hence, option (c) is correct.”

206
Q

12.,Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following regions? (a) Lakshadweep Islands (b) Gulf of Kutch (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Gulf of Cambay

A

12,d,”In India, coral reefs are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Lakshadweep Islands, Gulf of Khambat etc. It is not found in Gulf of Cambay. Hence, option (d) is not correct.”

207
Q

13.,In which one of the following states is jute not significantly cultivated? (a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Odisha (d) Andhra Pradesh

A

13,d,”The cultivation of jute is mainly confined to the Eastern region of the country. The jute crop is grown in nearly 83 districts of West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura and Meghalaya. Jute is not cultivated in Andhra Pradesh significantly. Hence, option (d) is not correct.”

208
Q

14.,Name the site that gives us valuable information about India’s maritime links on the Coromandel coast. (a) Bharukachchha (b) Karur (c) Arikamedu (d) Anuradhapura

A

14,c,”Arikamedu gives us valuable information about India’s maritime links on Coromandel coast. It is situated in South India’s Puducherry. Arikamedu was an important port of Chola Kingdom. It also helps in trade with Roman people.”

209
Q

15.,Where are the largest quantity of cichlids found in India? (a) Backwaters of Kerala (b) Sunderbans (c) Narmada (d) Godavari

A

15,d,”Cichlids are fish from the family cichlidae in the order cichlid forums. They are the largest verteberate families in the world. They are found mostly in Africa and South America. They are foundless in brackish and saltwater habitats. They are largest in number in the Godavari river of Indian subcontinent.”

210
Q

16.,What is Inter-cropping? (a) It is the time period between two cropping seasons. (b) It is growing two or more crops in random mixture. (c) It is growing two or more crops in definite row patterns. (d) It is growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession.

A

16, c,”Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. A few rows of one crop alternate with a few rows of a second crop, for example Soyabean + Maize. The crops are selected such their nutrient requirements are different. This ensures maximum utilisation of nutrients supplied and both the cultivations give better returns.”

211
Q

17.,The term ‘soil impoverishment’ relates to which one of the following? (a) Soil erosion (b) Soil deposition (c) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients (d) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients

A

17,c,”The term ‘soil impoverishment’ relates to soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients. Soil gets impoverished due to reasons like: over-grazing mono-cropping, leaching, erosion, land use charge etc. An impoverished soil leads to an increase in input cost of crop cultivation in the form of fertilizers cost, pesticide cost, etc. Soil erosion refers to the removal of top fertile layers of the soil. Erosion may be due to natural reasons (like: river erosion, glacial erosion etc.) or anthropogenic factor (like: mining activities, urbanisation, etc). Usually, soil erosion leads to soil impoverishment.”

212
Q

18.,Which one of the following is the correct sequential phase in the successional development of vegetation community in a habitat? (a) Migration, Reaction, Stabilisation and Nudation (b) Migration, Stabilisation, Reaction and Nudation (c) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilisation (d) Reaction, Migration, Stabilisation and Nudation

A

18,c,”The correct sequential phase in the successional development of vegetation community in a habitat is Nudation, Migration, Reaction, and Stabilisation. Successional development of vegetation community is the process of change in the species structure of vegetation community over time. The sequential stages of this development include, Nudation Process of succession begins with the formation of a bare area. Migration The seeds or spores of the species reach the bare area through the agency of air, water or wind. Competition and Reaction As the number of a species increase, the competition for space and nutrition is started among them (both inter and intraspecific competition). Individuals also modify the environment which leads to reaction. This reaction leads to the arrival of new species and extinction of previous ones. Stabilisation Eventually, a stage is reached when the final terminal community becomes more or less stabilised for a longer period of time and it can maintain itself in equilibrium with the climate of that area.”

213
Q

he question is asking for a matching of soil types (List-I) with their corresponding characteristics (List-II).

List-I includes four soil types:

I. OxisOLS

II. Vertisols

III. Histosols

IV. Entisols

List-II describes the characteristics of these soil types:

  1. Very rich in organic matter
  2. Soil lacking horizons
  3. Very old and highly weathered
  4. Rich in clay content and highly basic
A

Option 2:

I - 3 (OxisOLS are very old and highly weathered)

II - 4 (Vertisols are rich in clay content and highly basic)

III - 1 (Histosols are very rich in organic matter)

IV - 2 (Entisols are soil lacking horizons)

This means that OxisOLS (I) are very old and highly weathered, Vertisols (II) are rich in clay content and highly basic, Histosols (III) are very rich in organic matter, and Entisols (IV) are soil lacking horizons.

214
Q

20.,Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian Sea? (a) Urals (b) Caucasus (c) Carpathians (d) Balkan mountains

A

20,b,”The Caucasus mountains are a mountain system at the intersection of Europe and Asia stretching between Black sea and Caspian sea. It is home to mount Elbrus, the highest peak in Europe. It includes greater Caucasus in the North and lesser Caucasus in the South.”

215
Q

21.,Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called (a) Kalbaisakhi (b) Mango showers (c) Loo (d) Cherry blossoms

A

21,b,”These pre-monsoon rains are called ‘Mango Showers’. Mango showers are common in the state of Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra and some parts of Tamil Nadu. These showers arrive generally in late April and May and are usually very difficult to predict.”

216
Q

22.,Which one among the following stars is nearest to the Earth? (a) Sirius (b) Arcturus (c) Spica (d) Proxima Centauri

A

22,d,”The nearest star to the Earth is Sun followed by the Proxima Centauri. Proxima Centauri is part of the star system known as ‘Alpha Centauri’.”

217
Q

23.,Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass? (a) Neptune (b) Jupiter (c) Mars (d) Mercury

A

23,d,”Mercury is the smallest and closest planet to Sun. It has the least mass in the solar system. The planet with the highest mass is Jupiter.”

218
Q

24.,Which one of the following States of India is not covered by flood forecasting stations set-up by the Central Water Commission? (a) Rajasthan (b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Tripura (d) Himachal Pradesh

A

24,d,”Central Water Commission is the nodal organisation for flood forecasting in the country. CWC comes under Ministry of Water Resource, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is the modal agency for flood forecasting in India. Except Himachal Pradesh all other mentioned states are covered by flood forecasting stations setup by the CWC.”

219
Q

25.,The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in (a) Colombia (b) Venezuela (c) Brazil (d) Guyana

A

25,a,”Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international treaty that seeks to protect biodiversity from the potential risks posed by Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). It was signed on 15th May, 2000, in Cartagena, which is in Colombia.”

220
Q

26.,Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through? (a) Chile (b) Bolivia (c) Paraguay (d) Brazil

A

26,b,”The Tropic of Capricorn is an imaginary line of latitude at 23.5° South of the equator. This latitude runs through following countries: Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique Madagascar, Australia, Chile, Argentina, Paraguay and Brazil. It does not pass through Bolivia.”

221
Q

27.,Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea? (a) It is characterised with anti-cyclonic circulation of ocean currents. (b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic ocean. (c) It is located West of Gulf stream and East of Canary current. (d) It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water.

A

Option 1: This statement is correct. The Sargasso Sea is characterized by an anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents. This means that the currents in the area move in a clockwise direction, creating a circular pattern.

Option 2: This statement is correct. The Sargasso Sea is known for having the highest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean. This is because the area is surrounded by currents that bring in saltier water.

Option 3: This statement is incorrect. The correct position of the Sargasso Sea is west of the Canary Current and east of the Gulf Stream. The Gulf Stream flows north along the eastern coast of the United States, while the Canary Current flows south from the coast of northwest Africa. The Sargasso Sea is located in between these two currents.

Option 4: This statement is correct. The Sargasso Sea is confined within a gyre, which is a circular system of currents. The water in the Sargasso Sea is often calm and motionless, creating a unique environment.

In conclusion, the only incorrect statement about the Sargasso Sea is option 3. The Sargasso Sea is located west of the Gulf Stream and east of the Canary Current, not the other way around.

222
Q

28.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (City) List II (Product) A. Detroit (USA) 1. Motarcar B. Antwerp (Belgium) 2. Diamond Cutting C. Tokyo (Japan) 3. Steel D. Harbin (China) 4. Ship Building Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 2 4 3

A

28,d,”City Product
Detroit (USA) Motorcar
Antwerp (Belgium) Diamond Cutting
Tokyo (Japan) Ship Building
Harbin (China) Steel”

223
Q

29.,Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway? (a) Satna (b) Rewa (c) Katni (d) Jabalpur

A

Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway covers many major districts in which Rewa, Katni and Jabalpur districts of Madhya Pradesh are situated on this national highway while Satna district of Madhya Pradesh is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway.

224
Q

30.,Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting? (a) Rooftop recharge pit (b) Recharge wells (c) Gully plug (d) Recharge trench

A

30,c,”Except Gully plug, all the others such as Rooftop recharge pit, Recharge wells and Recharge trench are viable in urban rainwater harvesting. Gully plugs or Checkdams are mainly built to prevent erosion and to settle sediments and pollutant.”

225
Q

31.,If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon? 1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. 2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers. 3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves. 4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

A

The correct answer for this question is option 2, which states that tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers, and well irrigation requires sufficient ground water reserves.

Option 1, which states that tank irrigation predates well irrigation, is not an explanation for the negative relationship between the two. The order in which the two methods were adopted does not necessarily explain their relationship.

Option 3, which states that well irrigation requires sufficient ground water reserves, is a valid explanation for the negative relationship. If an area has a high availability of ground water, there would be a greater tendency to use well irrigation compared to tank irrigation.

Option 4, which states that other forms of irrigation are not available, is not an explanation for the negative relationship between tank and well irrigation. The availability or lack of other forms of irrigation does not directly relate to the relationship between tank and well irrigation.

In summary, the correct explanation for the negative relationship between tank and well irrigation is that tank irrigation is found in areas with impervious surface layers, while well irrigation requires sufficient ground water reserves.

226
Q

32.,What is a constellation? (a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the Earth in the sky. (b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the Earth in the sky. (c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky. (d) A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space.

A

32,b,”A constellation is a group of stars usually in a recognisable shape or pattern. In 1922, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) formally accepted the modern list of 88 constellations.”

227
Q

33.,Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion? (a) Kosi (b) Chambal (c) Damodar (d) Brahmaputra

A

33,b,”Chambal river valley is under the influence of intensive gully erosion. Chambal forms ravines or badlands due to intensive gully erosion. It occurs when water is channeled across unprotected land and washes away the soil along drainage lines. Chambal rises from Mhow district in Vindhya Ranges and it is a chief tributary of Yamuna river.”

228
Q

34.,Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones? (a) Temperate cyclones move from West to East with Westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds. (b) The front side of cyclone is known as the ‘eye of cyclone’. (c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars. (d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid-latitudes.

A

34,a,”Temperate cyclones are cyclones of mid-latitudes and hence are primarily under the influence of permanent winds of mid-latitudes, i.e Westerlies. Their movement is therefore Eastwards of their origin with average velocity of 32 km per hour in summers and 48 km per hour in winters. Normally, tropical cyclones move from East to West under the influence of trade winds because trade winds are permanent winds of tropical latitudes. The general direction is therefore Westwards from their origin. They advance with varying velocities. Weak cyclones move at the speed of about 32 km per hour while hurricanes attain the velocity of 180 km per hour or more.”

229
Q

35.,The headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organisation is located at (a) New Delhi (b) Yokohama (c) Madrid (d) Jakarta

A

35,b,”The International Tropical Timber Organisation was established in 1986 with the objective to conserve and manage tropical forests resources. Its headquarter is located at Yokohama (Japan).”

230
Q

36.,Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity? (a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation. (b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture. (c) Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air. (d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place.

A

36,d,”Humidity refers to the moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place. It is measured in either relative terms (relative humidity) or absolute terms (absolute humidity). It is relative humidity which indicates the likelihood of precipitation. Fog is a form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation. Fog can be considered a type of cloud at very low altitude. It reduces visibility and is a hazard. Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air is the initial stage of cloud formation. When these droplets combine together, clouds are formed.”

231
Q

37.,The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of (a) Jharkhand (b) Odisha (c) West Bengal (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

A

37,d,”The Shompens are inhabitants of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Many more tribes live on these islands such as the Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa and Sentinelese.”

232
Q

38.,Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India? (a) Silvassa (b) Jorhat (c) Itanagar (d) Kavaratti

A

38,b,”The smart city mission was launched by the Government of India to develop smart cities in the country. Silvassa and Kavaratti are included in the list of smart cities. Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) was also included as a special case in the Smart City Mission in August 2017. Shillong became the 100th city added to the smart city mission. Jorhat (Assam) is not included among the smart cities.”

233
Q

39.,Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011. (a) Delhi−Mumbai−Kolkata−Chennai (b) Mumbai−Delhi−Kolkata−Chennai (c) Mumbai−Kolkata−Delhi−Chennai (d) Kolkata−Chennai−Mumbai−Delhi

A

39,b,”According to the Census of 2011, Mumbai is the most populated urban agglomeration followed by Delhi, Kolkata, and Chennai.”

234
Q

40.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Type of Lake) List II (Example)
41.A. Tectonic 1. Lonar Lake
42.B. Crater 2. Gangabal Lake
43.C. Glacial 3. Purbasthali Lake
44. D. Fluvial 4. Bhimtal Lake Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4

A

40,a,”Type of Lake Example Tectonic Bhimtal Lake (Uttarakhand) Crater Lonar Lake (Maharashtra) Glacial Gangabal Lake (Jammu and Kashmir) Fluvial Purbasthali Lake (W. Bengal)”

235
Q

41.,The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes? (a) 8° N latitude (b) 10° N latitude (c) 12° N latitude (d) 13° N latitude

A

41,b,”The Andaman and Nicobar group are situated in the Bay of Bengal. The islands are an extension of Arakan mountain ranges. Both the groups are separated by 10°N latitude.”

236
Q

42.,Daman Ganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in (a) NCT (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (c) Puducherry (d) Goa

A

42,b,”The Daman Ganga Reservoir Project is located in Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The Daman Ganga (also known as Daman river) flows through Maharashtra, Gujarat, Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.”

237
Q

43.,Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited: 1. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under the Ministry of Coal. 2. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world. 3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi (Jharkhand). Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

A

43,b,”Coal India Limited is a public sector company under the Ministry of Coal. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under the Ministry of coal. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world. Coal India is headquartered at Kolkata, West Bengal.”

238
Q

44.,Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of states in terms of their population density as per Census 2011? (a) Arunachal Pradesh–Sikkim–Mizoram–Himachal Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh–Mizoram–Sikkim–Himachal Pradesh (c) Mizoram–Arunachal Pradesh–Himachal Pradesh–Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh–Himachal Pradesh–Sikkim–Mizoram

A

44,b,”The correct ascending sequence of states in terms of their population density as per Census 2011 is (i) Arunachal Pradesh–17 People/sq. km (ii) Mizoram–52 People/sq. km (iii) Sikkim–86 People/sq. km (iv) Himachal Pradesh–123 People/sq. km.”

239
Q

45.,The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade declined over the previous decade (1991-2001) in all of the following states, except (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Goa (d) Andhra Pradesh

A

45,a,”The rate of population growth during the 2001-2011 decade and the previous decade (1991-2001) in the given states is as follows: State Population growth (2001-11) Population growth (1991-2001) Tamil Nadu 15.60 11.19 Kerala 4.9 9.42 Goa 8.2 14.89 Andhra Pradesh 11.0 14.59 Thus, the decadal growth rate of Tamil Nadu has declined from the decade 1991-2001 to 2001-2011.”

240
Q

46.,Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of coral reefs is not correct? (a) Coral can grow abundantly in fresh water. (b) It requires warm water between 23°C-25°C. (c) It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 m. (d) It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis.

A

46,a,”Coral reefs require saline water, warm temperatures between 23°C-25°C, shallow saltwater not deeper than 50 m, and plenty of sunlight for photosynthesis. Coral cannot grow abundantly in fresh water, so option (a) is not correct.”

241
Q

47.,Which one of the following states has more than two major ports? (a) Maharashtra (b) West Bengal (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu

A

47,d,”Tamil Nadu has more than two major ports: Chennai Port, Tuticorin Port, and Ennore Port.”

242
Q

48.,Which one of the following places does not fall on Leeward slope? (a) Pune (b) Bengaluru (c) Leh (d) Mangaluru

A

48,d,”Mangaluru does not fall on the Leeward slope. It is situated on the West coast of India and is bounded by the Arabian Sea to its West and the Western Ghats to its East.”

243
Q

49.,South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the following? (a) South-West monsoon (b) North-East monsoon (c) Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon (d) Western disturbances

A

49,b,”South Arcot and Ramanthapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from the North-East monsoon.”

244
Q

50.,The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following? (a) India from Sri Lanka (b) Lakshadweep from Maldives (c) Andaman from Nicobar Islands (d) Indira Point from Indonesia

A

50,b,”The Eight Degree Channel separates Lakshadweep from the Maldives.”

245
Q

51.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List I (Classification of Town) List II (Example) A. Industrial Town 1. Vishakhapatnam B. Transport Town 2. Bhilai C. Mining Town 3. Singrauli D. Garrison Cantonment Town 4. Ambala Codes A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2

A

51,a,”Industrial Town-Bhilai, Chhattisgarh;
Transport Town- Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh;
Mining Town-Singrauli, Madhya Pradesh;
Garrison Cantonment Town-Ambala, Haryana.”

246
Q

52.,Which of the following statements with regard to the land use situation in India is/are correct? 1. There has been a tremendous decline in area under forest in recent years. 2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural use. 3. Land use such as barren and wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops have experienced decline in the recent years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

A

52,c,”Land devoted to non-agricultural use has increased significantly in recent years, while land use such as barren and wasteland, area under pastures, and tree crops have experienced decline.”

247
Q

53.,Which one of the following was not a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase foodgrain production in India immediately after independence? (a) Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land. (b) Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough. (c) Using High Yielding Varieties (HYV) seeds. (d) Switching over from cash crops to food crops.

A

The correct answer is option 3: Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds. After Independence, the Government of India implemented several strategies to increase food grain production in the country. Let`s explore each option to better understand the correct answer.

Option 1: Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land. This strategy involved promoting multiple cropping cycles within a year by utilizing the same parcel of land more efficiently. It aimed to maximize crop yield and increase overall production.

Option 2: Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under the plough. This strategy focused on identifying and utilizing unused or uncultivated land for agriculture. By bringing more land under cultivation, the government aimed to increase the total area available for agricultural production.

Option 3: Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds. This option is not a part of the strategies implemented by the government to increase food grain production. However, HYV seeds were indeed introduced in India as part of the Green Revolution in the 1960s, which aimed to enhance agricultural productivity.

Option 4: Switching over from cash crops to food crops. This strategy involved promoting the cultivation of food crops, such as rice and wheat, instead of cash crops like jute or cotton.

248
Q

54.,Which one of the following is a West-flowing river? (a) Mahanadi (b) Godavari (c) Krishna (d) Narmada

A

54,d,”Narmada is the largest West-flowing river of Peninsular India.”

249
Q

55.,Khasi language is included in (a) Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family. (b) Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family. (c) North Assam branch of Sino-Tibetan family. (d) Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family.

A

55,b,”Khasi language is included in the Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family.”

250
Q

56.,Which one among the following is not a tributary of river Luni? (a) Khari (b) Sukri (c) Jawai (d) Banas

A

56,d,”Banas is not a tributary of river Luni.”

251
Q

57.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Major Dam) List II (State) A. Cheruthoni Dam 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Indira Sagar Dam 2. Tamil Nadu C. Krishnaraja Sagar Dam 3. Karnataka D. Mettur Dam 4. Kerala Codes A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2

A

57,d,”Cheruthoni Dam - Kerala, Indira Sagar Dam - Madhya Pradesh, Krishnaraja Sagar Dam - Karnataka, Mettur Dam - Tamil Nadu.”

252
Q

58.,Which one among the following Union Territories of India shares the shortest length of National Highways? (a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi (c) Daman and Diu (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

A

58,a,”Chandigarh shares the shortest length of National Highways among the Union Territories of India.”

253
Q

59.,Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh? (a) Lanak La (b) Burzil (c) Babusar (d) Khyber

A

59,a,”Lanak La links Lhasa with Ladakh.”

254
Q

60.,Statement I Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment. Statement II There has been no decline in volatility of agricultural growth in India. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

A

60,c,”While agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment, there has been a decline in volatility of agricultural growth.”

255
Q
  1. Statement I By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole. 378 CDS Chapterwise-Sectionwise Solved Papers 2018 (I) Statement II Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.
A

b) The statement I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. Karst topography is usually formed in a region of plentiful rainfall where bedrock consists of carbonate rich rock, such as limestone, gypsum, or dolomite, that is easily dissolved. Sinkhole, which is a depression with varying depth and width is considered most fundamental feature of Karst topography. Though, there is no absolute reason for it being the most common topographic form, but studies show that it is most common because it is both the initial as well as the final feature of a Karst terrain. Various Karst cycle of erosions begin with a sinkhole (of dolines) and finally ends with collapse of caves to form sinkholes.

256
Q
  1. Statement I Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river. Statement II Incised meanders are characterised by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.
A

Both the statements are individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I Incised meanders form during the mature stage of the river at which rivers initially started flowing and there were only plain areas and not enough highlands. Now, with the passage of time as Mountains and Plateaus rise, the meandering course of these rivers starts vertical erosion and Incised meanders are formed.

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1991952/DirectionsThe-following-seven–7–items-consist-of-two-statements–Statement-I-and-Statement-II–Exa

257
Q
  1. Statement I Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors. Statement II The falt floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion
A

_ (a) Glaciated valleys are trough like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively smooth and steep sides. The U-shaped valleys are carved out by glaciers which have receded or disappeared. The valley may contain littered debris or debris shaped as moraines with swampy appearance. Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up share lines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords. Trough tend to have flat valley floors and steep, straights sides. They are formed by glacial erosion

258
Q
  1. Statement I In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less. Statement II Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
A

_ (b) Species richness is generally lower in the Arctic than at lower latitudes, and richness also tends to decline from the low to high Arctic. However, patterns of species richness vary spatially and include significant patchiness. Further, there are differences among taxonomic groups, with certain groups being most diverse in the Arctic. Hence, both statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

259
Q

65.,Statement I Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun and the rotation of the Earth. Statement II The Earth rotates from West to East.

A

65,b,”Both statements are individually correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. Tides are primarily caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, not by the rotation of the Earth.”

260
Q

66.,Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter? (a) Jaisalmer (b) Leh (c) Chennai (d) Guwahati

A

66,b,”Leh experiences the highest atmospheric pressure during winter due to its location in the high-pressure area over North-West India. This is caused by low temperatures coupled with divergence induced by the ridge of the sub-tropical jet stream.”

261
Q

67.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Hypothesis/Theory) List II (Propounder) A. Planetesimal Hypothesis 1. Kober B. Thermal Contraction Theory 2. Chamberlin C. Geosynclinal Orogen Theory 3. Daly D. Hypothesis of Sliding Continent 4. Jeffrey Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2

A

a

262
Q

68.,Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)? (a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits. (b) Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing. (c) Conservation and management of marine resources. (d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables.

A

68,d,”Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables over the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is not an exclusive right of concerned coastal nations. Rather, this right is available to all states whether coastal or landlocked.”

263
Q

69.,In which one of the following groups of states in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project being implemented as a pilot investment? (a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa (b) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh (c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal (d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

A

69,c,”The Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project is being implemented as a pilot investment in Gujarat, Odisha, and West Bengal. These states are focusing on improving water availability, protecting, conserving, and managing coastal natural resources.”

264
Q

70.,Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct? 1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in service engineers from Central and State organisations on various aspects of water resource planning. 2. The NWA is located in New Delhi. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

70,a,”Only statement 1 is correct. The National Water Academy (NWA) is located in Pune, Maharashtra, not in New Delhi as mentioned in statement 2. Its primary objective is to function as a Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.”

265
Q

71.,Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population? (a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland (c) Meghalaya (d) Arunachal Pradesh

A

71,a,”Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population, with 94.5%.”

266
Q

72.,Extrusive volcanoes are not found in, which one of the following mountains? (a) Alaska (b) Rocky (c) Andes (d) Himalayas

A

72,d,”Extrusive volcanoes are not found in the Himalayas because they are formed due to the collision of two continental plates (Eurasian and Indo-Australian plates), unlike the other mentioned mountains which are formed with the collision or subduction of oceanic and continental plates.”

267
Q

73.,Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders? (a) Saffron (b) Almond (c) Walnut (d) Ling nut

A

73,d,”Ling nut is not cultivated in Karewas. Saffron, almond, and walnut crops are cultivated in Karewas.”

268
Q

74.,Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga 1. Gandak 2. Kosi 3. Ghaghara 4. Gomti Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from East to West? (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 1 2 4 3

A

74,b,”The correct order of the tributaries of river Ganga from East to West is Kosi, Gandak, Ghaghara, and Gomti.”

269
Q

75.,Where is Hambantota Port located? (a) Iran (b) Sri Lanka (c) Japan (d) Pakistan

A

75,b,”The Hambantota Port is located in Hambantota, Sri Lanka. It is built inland and operated by the Sri Lanka Ports Authority, funded by the EXIM Bank of China.”

270
Q

76.,The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many states? (a) Eight (b) Ten (c) Twelve (d) Fourteen

A

76,a,”The projects under the Coastal Berth Scheme of the Sagarmala Programme are distributed over eight states, with the highest number of projects in Maharashtra.”

271
Q

77.,Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? 1. Keoladeo National Park 2. Sundarbans National Park 3. Kaziranga National Park 4. Ranthambore National Park Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these

A

77,b,”Keoladeo National Park, Sundarbans National Park, and Kaziranga National Park are declared as World Heritage Sites by UNESCO.”

272
Q

78.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Railway Zone) List II (Headquarters) A. North Central 1. Allahabad B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur D. South Central 4. Secunderabad Codes A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4

A

78,d,”The correct match between Railway Zones and their Headquarters is as follows: A - 1 (Allahabad), B - 3 (Gorakhpur), C - 2 (Jabalpur), D - 4 (Secunderabad).”

273
Q

79.,Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘blue mountains’? (a) Lambadas (b) Gonds (c) Jarawas (d) Todas

A

79,d,”The Toda tribe is dominantly found in the Nilgiri Hills, often referred to as the ‘Blue Mountains.’”

274
Q

80.,Who among the following geographers is related to ‘primate city’ concept? (a) August Losch (b) Mark Jefferson (c) Griffith Taylor (d) W Christaller

A

80,b,”Geographer Mark Jefferson is related to the ‘primate city’ concept, which explains the phenomenon of huge cities.”

275
Q

81.,Which one of the following island is the largest? (a) Borneo (b) Madagascar (c) New Guinea (d) Sumatra

A

81,c,”Among the options provided, New Guinea is the largest island.”

276
Q

82.,Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South 1. Dudhwa 2. Panna 3. Pench 4. Indravati Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

A

82,c,”The correct order of Tiger Reserves of India from North to South is Dudhwa, Panna, Pench, and Indravati.”

277
Q

83.,The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to (a) a sharp decline in total population (b) an increase in working age population (c) a decline in infant mortality rate (d) an increase in sex ratio

A

83,b,”Demographic dividend of a country relates to an increase in the working-age population.”

278
Q

84.,Statement I The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season. Statement II The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.

A

84,a,”Both statements are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season because it lies in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.”

279
Q

85.,Statement I Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature. Statement II The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

A

85,a,”Both statements are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature, primarily caused by the increase in concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.”

280
Q

86.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Strait) List II (Countries) A. Bass Strait 1. UK and France B. Davis Strait 2. Australia and Tasmania C. Dover Strait 3. USA and Cuba D. Florida Strait 4. Canada and Greenland Codes A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2

A

86,a,”The correct match between Straits and their associated countries is as follows: A - 2 (Australia and Tasmania), B - 4 (Canada and Greenland), C - 1 (UK and France), D - 3 (USA and Cuba).”

281
Q

87.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Pass) List II (Place)
88.A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh
89.B. Shipki La 2. Uttarakhand
90. C. Lipulekh 3. Jammu and Kashmir
91. D. Nathu La 4. Sikkim Codes A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4

A

87,c,”The correct match between Passes and their associated places is as follows: A - 3 (Jammu and Kashmir), B - 1 (Himachal Pradesh), C - 2 (Uttarakhand), D - 4 (Sikkim).”

282
Q

88.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (National Highway) List II (Route) A. NH – 2 1. Delhi – Jaipur – Ahmedabad – Mumbai B. NH – 4 2. Thane – Pune – Bengaluru – Chennai C. NH – 7 3. Delhi – Agra – Allahabad – Kolkata D. NH – 8 4. Varanasi – Jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bengaluru – Madurai – Kanyakumari Codes A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 2 4 1

A

88,d,”NH-2 has a total length of 1465 kms and passes through Delhi-Agra-Allahabad-Kolkata
. NH-4 (total length 230.7kms) passes through Thane-Pune-Bengaluru-Chennai.
NH-7 (total length 2369 kms) passes through Varanasi-Jabalpur - Nagpur - Hyderabad - Bengaluru - Madurai - Kanyakumari.
NH-8 (total length 1375 kms) passes through Delhi-Jaipur-Ahmedabad-Mumbai. Hence, option (d) is the correct match.”

283
Q

89.,‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to (a) landscaping related to save water (b) landscaping related to save soil erosion (c) weathering of rock surface (d) All of the above

A

89,a,”Xeriscaping is landscaping and gardening that reduces or eliminates the need for water supplement in the form of irrigation to the crops. This type of landscaping is related to water conservation concept. Hence, option (a) is correct.”

284
Q

90.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Industrial Region) List II (Country) A. Leipzig 1. USA B. Detroit 2. UK C. Lorraine 3. France D. Cumberland 4. Germany Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4

A

90,c,”Leipzig → Germany. Detroit → USA. Lorraine → France. Cumberland → UK.”

285
Q

91.,Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Mountain Range) List II (Location in Map) A. Satpura B. Vindhya C. Aravalli D. Mahadeo Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3

A

Satpura mountain range is the part of Deccan plateau. The hills stretch for some 900 km across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. Vindhya mountain range from Gujarat state on the west, it extends about 1,086 km across Madhya Pradesh state to touch Ganga River valley near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Aravalli mountain range runs north-east for 560 km and mostly in Rajasthan Mahadeo mountain range is in the northern part of the Satpura range, in the southern Madhya Pradesh state. Note: India has seven highest mountain ranges: The Himalaya Range Karakoram and Pir Panjal Range Eastern Mountain range or The Purvanchal Range The Satpura and Vindhaya Range The Aravalli Range The Western Ghats The Eastern Ghats

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1877455/Match-List-I-with-List-II-and-select-the-correct-answer-using-the-code-given-below-the-Lists-a-A-4–

286
Q

92.,Which of the following statements with respect to the Indian Pensinsular Plateau are correct? 1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South. 2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scraps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau. 3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers. 4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

A

92,b,”The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North (100 m) to South (more than 1000 m). The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scraps, forming the Northern flank of the Plateau (and not eastern). The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archean granite and gneiss rocks. Hence, statements 1,3, 4 are correct. Statement (2) is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.”

287
Q

93.,Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh? 1. Tso Kar 2. Pangong Tso 3. Tsomgo 4. Tso Moriri Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

A

The Tso Kar or Tsho kar, known for its size and depth, is a fluctuating salt lake situated in the Rupshu Plateau and valley in the southern part of Ladakh in Jammu and Kashmir.
Pangong Tso is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas situated at a height of about 4,350 m in the Ladakh Region.

Tsomgo Lake is a glacial lake in Sikkim. It is located near the capital Gangtok.

Tso Moriri is a lake in the Ladakhi part of the Changthang Plateau in Jammu and Kashmir

288
Q

94.,Which of the following statements related to latitude are true? 1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude. 2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude. 3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6°45’N latitude. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

A

94,d,”Rainfall, temperature, and vegetation vary with latitude. The difference between the longest and the shortest day increases with latitude. Indira Point, located approximately at 6°45’N latitude, is the southernmost point of India.”

289
Q

95.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Lake) List II (Type of Lake) A. Bhimtal 1. Lagoon
96. B. Ashtamudi 2. Landslide
97. C. Gohna 3. Tectonic
98. D. Lonar 4. Crater Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3

A

95,a,”Bhimtal is an example of a tectonic lake. Ashtamudi Lake is a lagoon. Gohna Lake is caused by a landslide, hence a landslide lake. Lonar Lake was created by a meteor impact during the Pleistocene Epoch, making it a crater lake. Hence, option (a) is correct.”

290
Q

96.,Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season. 2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity. 3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

A

96,c,”Himalayan rivers have water throughout the year, so they are not dry in winter. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity. Himalayan rivers depict all three stages of the normal cycle of erosion.”

291
Q

97.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (States of North Eastern India) List II (Location in Map) A. Tripura B. Mizoram C. Nagaland D. Manipur Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2

A

97,d,”Tripura - Agartala, Mizoram - Aizawl, Nagaland - Kohima, Manipur - Imphal.”

292
Q

98.,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Harappan Site) List II (Modern Name) A. Dholavira 1. Saurashtra B. Rakhigarhi 2. Hisar C. Bhirrana 3. Kadir island D. Bhogavo 4. Haryana Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

A

98,c,”Dholavira → Kadir island, Rakhigarhi → Hisar, Bhirrana → Haryana, Bhogavo → Saurashtra.”

293
Q

99.,In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake situated? (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya

A

99,c,”Loktak Lake is situated in Manipur.”

294
Q

100.,The ratio of Gross Cropped Area to the Net Sown Area is called (a) cropping intensity (b) intensity of crop rotation (c) crop productivity (d) cropping diversity

A

100,a,”Cropping intensity is the ratio of Gross Cropped Area to the Net Sown Area.”

295
Q

101.,Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)? (a) Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha (b) Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha (c) Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha (d) Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna

A

101,c,”The correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance) is Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha.”

296
Q

102.,Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct? (a) Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys but are highly resistant to erosion. (b) The surrounding areas can remain highlands, lava ridges or mesas. (c) Hawaiian shield volcanoes are eroded by streams that form deeply carved valleys with steeply sloping heads. (d) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern.

A

102,d,”The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is a radial drainage pattern.”

297
Q

103.,Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India? (a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nokrek (c) Great Nicobar (d) Great Himalayan

A

103,d,”Great Himalayan is a national park, not a Biosphere reserve.”

298
Q

104.,Which one of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct? (a) The Indian rail network have been developed throughout the Konkan coast. (b) There is very low density of railway lines in the Himalayan region. (c) The North Indian Plain has a dense network of railway. (d) At present, India has the largest railway network in the world.

A

104,d,”India does not have the largest railway network in the world; the USA has the largest railway system.”

299
Q

105.,Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct? 1. The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture. 2. It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation. 3. It is a primitive subsistence agriculture. 4. Viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

A

105,c,”The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture and viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.”

300
Q

106.,Which one of the following with regard to the winter solstice is correct? (a) The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. (b) It occurs on 21st June. (c) The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. (d) The Sun is at aphelion.

A

106,c,”During the winter solstice, the North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness.”

301
Q

107.,Tropical evergreen rainforest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct? (a) It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year. (b) This biome is also called mega-thermal biome. (c) The evergreen rain forest biome extends between 10° N and 10° S latitudes. (d) The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and Southern California and North-Western coastal lands of Africa.

A

107,d,”The maximum development of the tropical evergreen rainforest biome has not taken place in central and Southern California and North-Western coastal lands of Africa.”

302
Q

108.,Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct? (a) It often generates strong waves (b) The Pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami waves (c) Tsunami waves are also called high-energy tidal waves or seismic sea waves (d) Tsunami is a Latin word

A

108,d,”‘Tsunami’ is a Japanese word, not a Latin word.”

303
Q

109.,Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct? (a) High yield per hectare of sugarcane. (b) Higher sucrose content. (c) Long crushing season. (d) Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the East coast.

A

Peninsular India is better for sugar production because of tropical climate resulting in higher yield per hectare of land. The content of sucrose is high in peninsular India whereas the crushing season is almost double in this part of the country as compared to Northern India. Most of the sugar mills are based in Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu in case of peninsular India

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1891528/Which-one-of-the-following-about-sugar-industry-of-Peninsular-India-is-not-correct-a-High-yield-per-

304
Q

110.,Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct? (a) Lack of water for plants during most part of the year (b) High organic matter (c) Large accumulation of carbonates at depth (d) Absence of deep wide cracks

A

110,b,”Aridisols have a very low concentration of organic matter.”

305
Q

111.,Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct? (a) It is narrow band of high-velocity wind. (b) It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 8 km to 15 km. (c) Jet streams are typically continuous over long distances. (d) In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.

A

111,d,”Jet streams are phenomena of winter; the polar front jet is stronger in winter months.”

306
Q

112.,The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct? (a) It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific Ocean (b) It transports warm, tropical water towards polar region (c) This current is a major factor in weather along the East coast of the USA (d) The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast

A

112,d,”The warm water of the Gulf Stream does not sustain the coral reefs of the West Pacific coast.”

307
Q

113.,Which one of the following ports is located on estuary? (a) Kandala (b) Marmagao (c) Kolkata-Haldia (d) Tuticorin

A

B

308
Q

114.,The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by (a) Galileo (b) Martin Luther (c) Johannes Keppler (d) Copernicus

A

The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses was first demonstrated by Johannes Kepler. Kepler’s laws of planetary motion are three scientific laws describing the motion of planets around the Sun. The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.

309
Q

115.,Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solstice is correct? (a) The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. (b) It occurs on 21st June. (c) The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. (d) The Sun is at aphelion.

A

115,c,”The fact that planets move around the Sun in ellipses was first demonstrated by Johannes Kepler.”

310
Q

With reference to earthquakes, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate boundaries. 2. Point of origin of the earthquake in the lithosphere is known as focus/Hypocentre. 3. The intensity of the earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre. 4. The epicentre of the earthquake always remains over continents only. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a)1 and 2 only b)1, 2 and 3 c)2 and 3 only d)1 and 4

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1754402/With-reference-to-earthquakes–which-of-the-following-statements-are-correct-1–Earthquakes-largely-

A

116,b,”Earthquakes largely occur along converging plate boundaries, and the intensity decreases with distance from the epicenter.”

311
Q

Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal population are correct? 1. Madhya Pradesh: Largest tribal population 2. Mizoram: Highest percentage of the tribal population out of the total population of the State 3. Chhattisgarh: Second largest tribal population after Madhya Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh: Second highest percentage of the tribal population out of the total population of the state after Mizoram Select the correct answer using the code given below. a)1 and 2 only b)2 and 4 only c)1, 2 and 3 d)2, 3 and 4

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1752808/Which-of-the-following-pairs-of-Indian-State-and-tribal-population-are-correct-1–Madhya-Pradesh-Lar

A

Madhya Pradesh has the largest Tribal population. It has more than 1.6 crore Schedule Tribe population who are 21% of state population according to 2011 census. The largest population in Madhya Pradesh is that of the Bhil tribe. The second highest tribal population is that of Odisha. The population of Mizoram in 2001 Census has been 888,573. Of them, 839,310 are Scheduled Tribes (STs) constituting 94.5 percent of the total population of the state. As per the Scheduled Tribes, Census of India 2001, Mizoram has 839,310 Scheduled Tribes (STs) constituting 94.5 percent of the total population of the state at that time. Nagaland is the highest percentage of the tribal population out of the total population of the state after Mizoram

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1752808/Which-of-the-following-pairs-of-Indian-State-and-tribal-population-are-correct-1–Madhya-Pradesh-Lar

312
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Andaman and Nicobar Command?,”(a) It is the first integrated theatre command in India.”,”(b) Its headquarters is at Port Blair.”,”(c) It is commanded by a three-star officer.”,”(d) It was set-up by the British during the Second World War.”
A

118,d,”The Andaman and Nicobar Command was not set up by the British during the Second World War.”

313
Q
  1. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/UT is 15° 48’ 00’’ N to 14° 53’ 15’’ N and 74° 20’ 13’’ E to 74° 40’ 33’’ E, then which one of the following is that State/UT?,”(a) Puducherry”,”(b) Chandigarh”,”(c) Goa”,”(d) Delhi”
A

119,c,”The given latitude and longitudinal extent corresponds to Goa.”

314
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) North-Eastern Railway - Kolkata”,”(b) East Central Railway - Hajipur”,”(c) South-East Central Railway - Bilaspur”,”(d) South-Eastern Railway - Gorakhpur”
A

120,d,”North-Eastern Railway: Gorakhpur, East Central Railway: Hajipur, South-East Central Railway: Bilaspur, South-Eastern Railway: Kolkata.”

315
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the atmosphere of the Earth is correct? 1. In the stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude. 2. In the mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. 3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere. 4. The tropopause is an isothermal zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a)1 and 2 only b)1, 2 and 3 only c)3 and 4 only d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1757034/Which-of-the-following-statements-concerning-the-atmosphere-of-the-Earth-is-correct-1–In-the-strato

A

121,d,”All statements are correct regarding the atmosphere of the Earth.”

316
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) Bongaigaon - Petrochemical”,”(b) Koraput - Aircraft”,”(c) Pinjore - Machine tools”,”(d) Sirpur - Paper”
A

122,b,”Bongaigaon: Petrochemical, Koraput: Machine tools, Pinjore: Aircraft, Sirpur: Paper.”

317
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river Ganga?,”(a) Son”,”(b) Mahananda”,”(c) Teesta”,”(d) Sharda”
A

123,c,”Teesta is not a tributary of the river Ganga; it is a tributary of the Brahmaputra.”

318
Q
  1. Which one of the following pairs of lakes are connected by Soo Canal?,”(a) Superior and Michigan”,”(b) Superior and Huron”,”(c) Huron and Ontario”,”(d) Huron and Erie”
A

124,b,”The Soo Canal connects Lake Superior and Lake Huron.”

319
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) Strait of Hormuz - Gulf of Persia”,”(b) Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb - Red Sea”,”(c) Strait of Malacca - Andaman Sea”,”(d) Strait of Sunda - Java Sea”
A

Strait of Hormuz

Gulf of Persia

The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points

Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb

Red Sea

The Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula, and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden

Strait of Malacca

Andaman Sea

The Strait of Malacca or Straits of Malacca is a narrow, 550 mi stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra. As the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, it is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world.

Strait of Sunda

Java Sea

The Sunda Strait is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean.

320
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) Agulhas current - South Africa”,”(b) Humboldt current - Peru”,”(c) Labrador current - Canada”,”(d) Falkland current - Argentina”
A

Agulhas Current

The Agulhas Current is the western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean.

South Africa

Humboldt Current

The Humboldt Current, also called the Peru Current, is a cold, low-salinity ocean current that flows north along the western coast of South America.

Peru

Labrador Current

The Labrador Current is a cold current in the North Atlantic Ocean which flows from the Arctic Ocean south along the coast of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland, continuing south along the east coast of Nova Scotia.

Canada

Falkland Current

The Falkland Current is a cold current that flows northward along the Atlantic coast of Patagonia as far north as the mouth of the Río de la Plata.

Argentina

321
Q
  1. Which one of the following fishing bank is located on the coast of the United Kingdom?,”(a) Great Fisher Bank - North Sea”,”(b) Grand Banks - North America”,”(c) Dogger Bank”,”(d) Reed Bank - South China Sea”
A

127,c,”Dogger Bank is located on the coast of the United Kingdom.”

322
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) Satpura - Maharashtra”,”(b) Dhuvaran - Gujarat”,”(c) Tanakpur - Uttarakhand”,”(d) Dabhol - Madhya Pradesh”
A

128,a,”The correct match is: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.”
According to this option, the power plant Satpura (A) is associated with Madhya Pradesh (4), Dhuvaran (B) is associated with Uttarakhand (3), Tanakpur (C) is associated with Gujarat (2), and Dabhol (D) is associated with Maharashtra (1). This matches the given lists correctly.

323
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding soil is/are correct?,”(a) Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content.”,”(b) Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen.”,”(c) Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium.”
A

129,c,”Statements 2 and 3 are correct.”

324
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world?,”(a) Cheyenne Mountain Zoo”,”(b) Pandit GB Pant High Altitude Zoo”,”(c) Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok”,”(d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park”
A

130,d,”Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park is the highest altitude zoo in the world.”

325
Q
  1. Match the following.,”(a) Kurinchi - Mountainous region”,”(b) Palai - Arid region”,”(c) Neithal - Seashore”,”(d) Mullai - Pastoral region”
A

131,c,”The correct match is: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.”

326
Q
  1. Which one of the following statement are not correct?,”(a) Position of the Sun, Earth and Moon in a straight line of 180° angle is known as Syzygy”,”(b) Syzygy conjunction causes solar eclipse”,”(c) Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse”,”(d) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion only”
A

132,d,”Syzygy conjunction can occur at any time, not just at perihelion.”

327
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion?,”(a) Wind gap”,”(b) Zeugen”,”(c) Dreikanter”,”(d) Demoiselle”
A

133,a,”Wind gap is not related to wind erosion.”

328
Q
  1. Which one of the following is correct?,”(a) Guindy National Park is known for tiger reserve”,”(b) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation”,”(c) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve”,”(d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary”
A

134,d,”Rann of Kutch is known for the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary.”

329
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct?,”(a) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests”,”(b) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu”,”(c) Deodar is a coniferous species of tree”,”(d) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya”
A

135,d,”Shola forests are found mainly in the Western Ghats, not the upper reaches of the Himalayas.”

330
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct?,”(a) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata”,”(b) Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur”,”(c) Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located at Allahabad”,”(d) Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi”
A

136,d,The Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) is located in capital city of Kerala i.e. Thiruvananthapuram. In 1991 by recognising its potential, it was made a ‘Grant-in-aid’ institute of the Government of Kerala and renamed as Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Development of Education, Science and Technology. It was the first institute in the country to be named after Rajiv Gandhi. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.

331
Q

With regard to water transportation in India, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is located at Delhi. 2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India is located at Noida. 3. National Inland Navigation Institute is located at Kolkata. 4. First National Inland Waterway was between Haldia and Allahabad. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a)1 and 2 only b)2 and 3 c)2 and 4 only d)1, 2 and 4

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/1751526/With-regard-to-water-transportation-in-India–which-of-the-following-statements-are-correct-1–Headq

A

137,c,Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport Corporation is located at Kolkata. It was established in the year 1967 as a Public Sector Undertaking under the Companies Act, 1956. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is located at Noida, U.P. It was constituted under IWAI Act, 1985. National Island Navigation Institute is located at Patna (Bihar). It was been setup by IWAI to develop human resource for Island water transport sector. First National Inland waterway (NW-1) was between Haldia and Allahabad (1620 kms long) on Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system.

332
Q
  1. Pir Panjal range in the Himalayas is a part of,”(a) Shiwalik”,”(b) Trans Himalaya”,”(c) Central Himalaya”,”(d) Lesser Himalaya”
A

138,d,Pir Panjal range of Jammu and Kashmir Himalayas is a part of Lesser or Middle Himalayas or Himachal. The Himalayas can be divided into four Kashmir and Ladakh region, namely, Trans-Greater Himalayas or Himadri, Lesser Himalayas (Pir Panjal Ranges) and the Shiwaliks (Jammu hills). The scenic Kashmir valley lies between the great Himalaya in the North and Pir Panjal range in the South. Hence, option (d) is correct.

333
Q
  1. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India,”(a) Laterite soils are generally red in colour.”,”(b) Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash.”,”(c) Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.”,”(d) Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.”
A

139,c,Due to presence of iron oxides, laterite soils are generally red in colour. Laterite soils have low content of nitrogen, potash, phosphorous lime and magnesia. They are well developed on highlands of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya etc, (and not plains of Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh). Plantation crop like cashew nuts and tapioca grow well in this soil. Hence, statements 1 and 4 are correct.

334
Q
  1. Consider the following map of India: The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the following cash crops?,”(a) Cotton”,”(b) Groundnut”,”(c) Sugarcane”,”(d) Tobacco”
A

140,a,This is map of India shows the cultivation area of cotton. Cotton cultivation is closely related to black soils (regur). Black soils covers most of the Deccan plateau, which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. It has high water retaining capacity.

335
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is/are correct?,”(a) Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer.”,”(b) The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate.”,”(c) Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates.”
A

141,d,Mediterranean climate is characteristic by shifting of wind belts. During summers, the region is under the influence of offshore trade winds. While, during winters, it is under the influence of onshore westerlies. Thus, the region receives rain during winters. The annual range of temperature in this climate is pretty high (more than 15ºC). In Mediterranean climate summers are quite dry. Monsoon climate is characterised by seasonal reversal of winds. This type of climate is best developed in the Indian Sub-continent. The region is under the influence of South-West monsoon winds during summer. Hence, all the statements are correct.

336
Q
  1. With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Sutlej rivers?,”(a) Pakistan”,”(b) China”,”(c) Bangladesh”,”(d) Nepal”
A

142,b,In the year 2002, Government of India had entered into a MoU with China for five years upon provision of hydrological information on Brahmaputra river during flood season by China to India. River Sutlej rises from Mansarovar-Rakas Lake in Tibet (China) at a height of 4570m. It enters India in the state of Himachal Pradesh through Shipki La Pass.

337
Q
  1. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level?,”(a) East–Central Railway”,”(b) South–Eastern Railway”,”(c) South–Western Railway”,”(d) West–Central Railway”
A

143,c,Railway Zone,Headquarters,Height East–Central,Hajipur,55 m South–Eastern,Kolkata,9 m South–Western,Hubli,671 m West–Central,Jabalpur,412 m

338
Q
  1. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of,”(a) glacial topography”,”(b) volcanic topography”,”(c) karst topography”,”(d) fluvial topography”
A

144,c,Karst topography is a named after the tropical tropography developed formed from the dissolution of soluble rocks as limestone, dolomite and gypsum. It is characteristic by underground drainage systems with sinkholes and caves subterranean drainage may limit surface water. Stalactites having from the ceiling of a cave white stalagmites grow from the cave floor.

339
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?,”(a) Mars-Venus-Earth-Mercury-Uranus”,”(b) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Earth-Uranus”,”(c) Mercury-Mars-Venus-Uranus-Earth”,”(d) Venus-Mercury-Mars-Earth-Uranus”
A

145,b,Mercury → Mars → Venus → Earth → Uranus,Planets Diameter size (Thousands of km) Mercury 4.8 Venus 12.1 Earth 12.6 Mars 6.7 Jupiter 142.4 Saturn 120 Uranus 49.6 Neptune 44.8 Therefore, correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their diameters is Mercury → Mars → Venus → Earth → Uranus

340
Q
  1. Consider the following statements:,”(a) Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsular India, South of the Vindhyas.”,”(b) The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America.”
A

146B

341
Q
  1. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in,”(a) Pirotan Island”,”(b) Rameswaram”,”(c) Ganga Sagar Island”,”(d) Port Blair”
A

147,d,Port Blair,Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is situated at Port Blair, Andaman. The park was created in 1983, to protect marine life such as corals, nesting sea turtles. The park covers an area of 281.5 km2 made up of 17 islands.

342
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?,”(a) The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on 3rd January.”,”(b) The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on 4th July.”,”(c) The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on 4th July.”,”(d) The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on 3rd January.”
A

148,c,1 and 3,Perihelion and Aphelion are the nearest and farthest points of Earth’s direct orbit around the Sun, respectively. Aphelion occurs on 4th July and Perihelion occurs on 3rd January.

343
Q
  1. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin?,”(a) Reunion Island”,”(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands”,”(c) Lakshadweep Islands”,”(d) Maldives”
A

149,a,Reunion Island,Reunion island is volcanic in origin. Andaman and Nicobar islands are part of submerged mountain in ocean. Lakshadweep islands and Maldives are coral in origin.

344
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?,”(a) Atmospheric disturbance”,”(b) Change in marine water density”,”(c) Melting of icebergs”,”(d) Melting of ice sheets”
A

Long-term sea-level change Long-term sea-level change refers to the gradual rise or fall of the average sea level over an extended period of time, typically spanning decades or centuries. This phenomenon is influenced by various factors, including geological processes, climate change, and human activities. Among the options provided, the melting of ice sheets is the primary cause of long-term sea-level change. Explanation: Melting of ice sheets: - Ice sheets are massive bodies of ice that form over land, such as the Greenland Ice Sheet and the Antarctic Ice Sheet. - As global temperatures rise due to climate change, these ice sheets experience increased melting. - The melted icewater flows into the oceans, contributing to the overall volume of seawater. - This additional water causes a gradual rise in sea levels, leading to long-term sea-level change. Atmospheric disturbance: - Atmospheric disturbances, such as storms and hurricanes, can cause short-term fluctuations in sea levels. - However, these disturbances do not have a significant impact on long-term sea-level change. Change in marine water density: - Changes in marine water density, such as variations in salinity and temperature, can affect local sea levels. - However, these variations do not contribute significantly to long-term sea-level change on a global scale. Melting of icebergs: - Icebergs are large masses of ice that float in the ocean. - When icebergs melt, they release freshwater into the surrounding seawater. - While the melting of icebergs can contribute to rising sea levels in localized areas, it does not have a major influence on long-term sea-level change globally. Therefore, the melting of ice sheets is the primary cause of long-term sea-level change. As the world continues to experience climate change and rising global temperatures, the melting of ice sheets will continue to contribute to the gradual rise in sea levels, posing significant challenges for coastal communities and ecosystems.

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/3741710/Which-one-of-the-following-is-the-cause-of-long-term-sea-level-change-a-Atmospheric-disturbanceb-Cha

345
Q
  1. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra:,”(a) Lohit”,”(b) Tista”,”(c) Subansiri”,”(d) Sankosh”
A

151,a,2, 4, 3, 1,The correct sequence of these tributaries from West to East is Tista → Sankosh → Subansiri → Lohit. The principal tributaries of Brahmaputra joining from right are Subansiri, Manas, Torsa, Sankosh, Tista etc. Those joining from left are – Burhi-Dihing, Disang, Dhansiri and Kopili.

346
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the Southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left?,”(a) Difference in the water masses of Northern and Southern hemisphere”,”(b) Temperature and pressure variations”,”(c) Inclined axis of the Earth”,”(d) Rotation of the Earth”
A

152,d,Rotation of the Earth,Coriolis effect generated due to rotation of Earth causes a deflection in global wind pattern. This force causes moving objects on the surface of the Earth to be deflected to the right in Northern hemisphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere.

347
Q
  1. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has,”(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure”,”(b) abnormally low temperature and pressure”,”(c) clear sky and lowest temperature”,”(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure”
A

A
A characteristic feature of tropical cyclones is the eye, a central region of clear skies, warm temperatures, and low atmospheric pressure. Typically, atmospheric pressure at the surface of Earth is about 1,000 millibars.

348
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) regarding chemical industry in India is/are correct?,”(a) Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India.”,”(b) Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry.”,”(c) Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs.”
A

C , it still is the fourth largest set of Industries in India after textiles, iron and steel, and engineering industries. Dyestuff sector is one of the core chemical industries in India. It is also the second highest export segment in chemical industry. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dye stuffs. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

349
Q
  1. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?,”(a) The Act recognises forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before 25th October, 1980.”,”(b) The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State/UT Governments.”,”(c) The Act seeks to recognise and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.”
A

155,b,2 and 3,The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Right) Act, 2006 has following provisions (i) A forest dweller is ● A person primarily residing in forests and depends on forests and forest land for livelihood. ● The above condition have been true for 75 years or above (for other traditional forest dweller). ● That one is member of Scheduled Tribe residing in area where they are scheduled. (ii) The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the State /UT Governments. (iii) The Act seeks to recognise and vest certain forest right in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dweller. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct

350
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Region) List II (State) A. Baghelkhand 1. West Bengal B. Kuttanad 2. Madhya Pradesh C. Saurashtra 3. Kerala D. Rarh 4. Gujarat,A. 2. Madhya Pradesh,B. 3. Kerala,C. 4. Gujarat,D. 1. West Bengal
A

156,a,2 3 4 1,Baghelkhand is a region and also a mountain range in Central India that covers North-East of Madhya Pradesh and a small area of Western Uttar Pradesh. Kuttanad is a region covering to Alappuzha, Pathanamthitta and Kottayam districts in the state of Kerala. Saurashtra is a region of Western India, located on the Arabian sea of Gujarat state. Rarh is a region between the Chota Nagpur plateau on the West and the Ganges delta on the East. It is mainly co-extensive with the state of West Bengal.

351
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (City) List II (Earthquake Zone) A. Kolkata 1. Zone V B. Guwahati 2. Zone IV C. Delhi 3. Zone III D. Chennai 4. Zone II,A. 3. Zone III,B. 1. Zone V,C. 2. Zone IV,D. 4. Zone II
A

157,b,3 1 2 4,Kolkata and Mumbai lie in seismic Zone III. Guwahati and Srinagar are in the highest risk Zone V. Delhi lies in the high risk seismic Zone IV. Chennai lies in Zone II.

352
Q

ist-I (Lake) A. Ashtaniudi Kayal B. Himayat Sagar C. Dal Lake D. Tsomgo Lake List-II (Type)
1. Residual (sweet water)
2. Lagoon
3. Glacial
4. Artificial (sweet water) Code :

A

158,a,2 4 1 3,Ashtamudi Kayal is the most visited backwater and Lagoon lake in the Kollam district of Kerala. Himayat Sagar is an artificial (sweet water) lake about 20 km from Hyderabad in Telangana. It lies parallel to a larger artificial lake Osman Sagar. Dal Lake is of residual (sweet water) type in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It is well-known for its Victorian era wooden houseboats. Tsomgo Lake is a glacial lake in the Sikkim. The lake surface reflects different colours with change of seasons.

353
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Farming Area) List II (State) A. Doab 1. Assam B. Char 2. Karnataka C. Maidan 3. Punjab D. Terai 4. Uttar Pradesh,A. 3. Punjab,B. 1. Assam,C. 2. Karnataka,D. 4. Uttar Pradesh
A

159,b,3 1 2 4,Doab is farming area of Punjab. Char is farming area of Assam. Maidan is the farming area of Karnataka. Terai is the farming area of Uttar Pradesh.

354
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Steel Mill) List II (State) A. Kalinganagar 1. West Bengal B. Vijayanagara 2. Tamil Nadu C. Salem 3. Odisha D. Durgapur 4. Karnataka,A. 3. Odisha,B. 4. Karnataka,C. 2. Tamil Nadu,D. 1. West Bengal
A

160,c,3 4 2 1,Kalinganagar steel plant of Tata Steel is in Jaipur, district of Odisha. Vijayanagara steel plant is located in Karnataka. Salem steel plant is a unit of the Steel Authority of India (SAI), located in Tamil Nadu. Durgapur steel plant was established in collaboration with Britain. It is located in Durgapur distict of West Bengal (1955).

355
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the pattern of circulation around a low pressure area in the Northern hemisphere?,A. Counter-clockwise and towards the centre,B. Clockwise and away from the centre,C. Clockwise and towards the centre,D. Counter-clockwise and away from the centre
A

161,c,Counter-clockwise and towards the centre,The pattern of circulation around a low pressure area in the Northern hemisphere is counter-clockwise and towards the centre, while in Southern hemisphere it is clockwise and away from the centre. These circulations may develop into cyclones. The direction of circulation around a high pressure area is same as that around low pressure area but, is directed away from the centre. These circulations result in anti-cyclones.

356
Q

Which one of the following statements about the atmosphere is correct? [CDS 2016-11]
A) The atmosphere has definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible.

B) The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible.

C) The atmosphere has definite upper limits but gradually thickens until it becomes imperceptible.

D) The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thickens until it becomes imperceptible.

A

162,b,The atmosphere has no definite upper limits, but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible,The atmosphere has no definite upper limits, but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible. This happens because the atmosphere is held to Earth due to Earth’s gravitational pull. Thus, the atmosphere is densest at the sea level (due to highest gravitational pull) and this or gets rarefied upwards gradually until it becomes imperceptible.

357
Q
  1. Which one of the following statement is correct?,A. Cold fronts normally move faster than warm fronts and therefore, frequently overtake the warm fronts,B. Cold fronts move at slower rate than warm fronts and therefore, cannot overtake the warm fronts,C. Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts, but they cannot overtake the warm fronts,D. Cold fronts move at slower rate and eventually, they are overtaken by the warm fronts
A

163,b,Cold fronts normally move faster than warm fronts and therefore, frequently overtake the warm fronts,Cold fronts often come with thunderstorms or other types of extreme weather. They usually move from West to East. Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts because cold air is denser, mean there are more molecules of material in cold air than in warm air.

358
Q
  1. Which of the following elements are found in highest and lowest quantities respectively in the crust of the Earth?,A. Oxygen and silicon,B. Calcium and sodium,C. Sodium and magnesium,D. Oxygen and magnesium
A

164,d,Oxygen and magnesium,Oxygen and magnesium are the elements that are found in highest and lowest quantities respectively in the crust of the Earth. Crust is the outermost layer of the Earth. The most common elements in the crust of the are oxygen (46.6%), Silicon (27.7%), Aluminium (8.1%), Iron (5%), Calcium (3.6%), Potassium (2.8%), Sodium (2.6%) and Magnesium (2.1%).

359
Q
  1. Statement I The Kuroshio is a warm North-flowing ocean current on the West side of the North Pacific ocean. Statement II Presence of a number of volcanoes at the bottom of the sea of Japan is responsible for the Kuroshio becoming warm. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true,A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I,B. Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I,C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false,D. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
A

165,c,Statement I is true, but Statement II is false,The Kuroshio is a North-flowing ocean current on the West side of the North Pacific ocean. It is similar to the Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic and is part of the North Pacific ocean gyre. Like the Gulf Stream, it is a strong Western boundary current. Warm water currents are streams of warm water that move through the world ocean, carried by wind. These warm currents get heated-up in the tropics and then move toward the poles. Hence, statement (1) is correct, but 2 is incorrect.

360
Q
  1. Which of the following are the major factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India? 1. Location 2. Thermal contrast 3. Upper air circulation 4. The Himalayan Mountains Select the correct answer using the codes given below :,A. 1. Location,B. 1, 2, 3 and 4,C. 2, 3 and 4,D. 1 and 4
A

166,b,1, 2, 3 and 4,The major factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India are location thermal contrast, upper air circulation, the Himalayan mountains etc.

361
Q
  1. Consider the following Indian states 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Telangana 5. Uttarakhand Which among the states given above are the largest and smallest respectively (in terms of geographical area)?,A. Tamil Nadu and Telangana,B. Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh,C. Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand,D. Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand
A

167,c,1 and 5,According to study conducted by Ministry of Statistics and Programme implementation, the areas of states given above in descending order are; Andhra Pradesh (162,970 km2 ) > Chhattisgarh (135, 192 km2 ) > Tamil Nadu (130, 060 km2 ) > Telangana (112, 077 km2 ) > Uttarakhand (53483 km2 ). Thus, Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand are largest and smallest states respectively (in the terms of geographical area) when whole India is considered, Rajasthan (342, 239 km2 ) and Goa (3702 km2 ) are largest and smallest states respectively

362
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Plant) List II (Natural Vegetation Type) A. Ebony 1. Moist deciduous B. Shisham 2. Himalayan moist C. Walnut 3. Alpine D. Birch 4. Tropical evergreen,A. 4. Tropical evergreen,B. 1. Moist deciduous,C. 2. Himalayan moist,D. 3. Alpine
A

168,a,4 1 2 3,Ebony is a tropical evergreen tree that belongs to the ebony family. Shisham is a tropical moist deciduous tree. The Indian rosewoods are popularly known as Shisham. Walnut is a Himalayan moist tree. Birch is a Alpine and sub-alpine tree.

363
Q
  1. Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Climate) List II (Characteristic) A. Mediterranean 1. Temperature cycle is moderated by marine influence B. Marine West Coast 2. Warm summers and cold winters with 3 months below freezing. Very large annual temperature range C. Dry Mid-Latitude 3. Strong temperature cycle with large annual range. Warm summers to hot and cold winters to very cold D. Moist Continental 4. Temperature range is moderate with warm to hot summers and mild winters,A. 2. Warm summers and cold winters with 3 months below freezing. Very large annual temperature range,B. 1. Temperature cycle is moderated by marine influence,C. 4. Temperature range is moderate with warm to hot summers and mild winters,D. 3. Strong temperature cycle with large annual range. Warm summers to hot and cold winters to very cold
A

169,d,4 1 3 2,Mediterranean climate is characterised by warm to hot and dry summers and mild to cool wet winters and located between about 30° and 45° latitude of North and South of the equator. Marine West Coast climate is characterised by moderate temperature which is influenced by marine. It is usually located along the West coast of mid-latitude continents. Dry Mid-Latitude climate is characterised by strong temperature with large annual range and warm summers to hot and cold winters to very cold. Moist Continental climate is characterised by warm summers and cold winters with 3 months below freezing and very large annual temperature range.

364
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Weathering Type) List II (Landform/ Process) A. Chemical weathering 1. Till B. Mechanical weathering 2. Oxidation C. Glacial deposits 3. Plant roots D. Deposition by groundwater 4. Stalactite,A. 2. Oxidation,B. 1. Till,C. 3. Plant roots,D. 4. Stalactite
A

170,a,2 3 1 4,Chemical weathering is the subsequent disintegration of rock by chemical reactions. These reaction include oxidation, hydrolysis and carbonation. Mechanical weathering is the set of various processes of weathering that break apart rocks into particles (sediment) without change in the chemical composition of the rock. Glacial deposits is the settling of sediment left behind by a moving glacier. The mixture of consorted sediments deposits carved by the glacier is called ‘till’. Deposition by ground water cause erosion under the surface and carries dissolved minerals in solution.

365
Q
  1. If a ship has to go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk Strait. Why?,A. The Palk Strait has disputed islands and the Sri Lankan Navy does not allow the ships to cross through,B. It is too shallow for ships to cross,C. Shipping is prohibited through the strait due to its religious significance connected with the epic Ramayana,D. The around Sri Lanka route is actually shorter than crossing through the Palk Strait
A

171,b,It is too shallow for ships to cross,If a ship has a go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk Strait because it is too shallow for ships to cross.

366
Q
  1. Which of the following facts are related to Burma (Myanmar)? 1. It shares its borders with India, China, Bangladesh and Vietnam. 2. It is ruled by a military government. 3. The National League for Democracy was not allowed to contest the elections held in the year 2010. 4. Myanmar is a member of ASEAN. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,A. 1 and 3,B. 3 and 4,C. 1, 2 and 4,D. 1 and 2
A

234 ,Myanmar shares its borders with India, China, Bangladesh, Thailand and Laos. Military rule in the country lasted from 1962 to 2011. In 2011, the military junta was officially dissolved following a 2010 general election, and a nominally civilian government was installed. The National League for Democracy was banned and not allowed to contest elections held in the year 2010. Myanmar became the member of ASEAN in the year 1997 (along with Laos).

367
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not an example of externalities?,A. Pollution of air by a cement factory,B. Health hazard caused to the person due to smoking by himself/herself,C. Smoke coming out of neighbour’s vehicle,D. Increase in land price of adjacent plots due to construction of a road by the government
A

173,b,Health hazard caused to the person due to smoking by himself/herself,Externality is defined as a benefit or cost that is imposed on a third party who do not choose incur that cost or benefit. In given option, the health hazard caused to the person due to smoking by himself/herself is not an example of externalities.

368
Q
  1. ‘Rio + 20’ is the short name for,A. Millennium Development Goals,B. United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development,C. Earth Summit,D. Post-2015 Development Agenda
A

174,b,United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development,‘Rio+20’ is the short name for United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012, twenty years after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio.

369
Q
  1. Consider the contour plot given below: The above contours of an area indicate several relief features. Which one among the following relief features is not depicted here?,A. Steep slope,B. River valley,C. Conical hill,D. Gentle slope
A

175,c,Conical hill,A contour is a line of constant height above mean sea level. A conical hill rises almost uniformally from the surrounding regions. It can be shown with the help of almost concentric contour line spaced regularly. Closely placed contours indicate a steep slope. The widely spaced contours indicate a gentle slope.

370
Q
  1. Arrange the following tributaries of river Indus from North to South : 1. Chenab 2. Jhelum 3. Ravi 4. Sutlej Codes (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4,A. 4, 3, 1, 2,B. 2, 3, 1, 4,C. 1, 2, 3, 4,D. 2, 1, 3, 4
A

176,d,2, 1, 3, 4,The Jhelum rises in Verinag at the foot hills of Pir Panjal and flow through the Kashmir valley. Chenab, the largest tributory of Indus in formed by two stream Chandra and Bhaga and flow through Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Ravi rises in Kullu hills, near Rohtang Pass, of Himachal Pradesh. Sutlej originates from the Rakas lake. It enters India through Ship Ki-La, flow through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. So, the sequence is Jhelum—Chenab—Ravi—Sutlej.

371
Q
  1. Seismic gaps are,A. Parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently,B. Sections of plate boundaries that have ruptured repeatedly in the recent past,C. Sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past,D. Plate boundaries having no volcanic activity
A

177,c,sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past,A seismic gap is a segment of an active fault known to produce significant earthquakes, that has not slipped in an unusually long time when compared with other segments along the same structure. Seismic gap hypothesis states that, over long period of time, the displacement on any segment must be experienced by all the other parts of the fault.

372
Q
  1. In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, which one among the following would happen?,A. There will be no North-East Atlantic fishing grounds,B. There will be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds,C. There will be no fishing ground in the North Atlantic ocean,D. Semi-arid condition of the Atlantic coast of the USA and Canada would prevail
A

178,b,There will be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds,In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, there would be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds. World’s most productive fishing grounds are found at places where warm and cold ocean currents meet.

373
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Type ofGrass) List II (Country) A. Llanos 1. Australia B. Prairies 2. Venezuela C. Pampas 3. USA D. Downs 4. Argentina,A. 1,B. 3,C. 2,D. 4
A

179,d,2 3 4 1,Llanos is a vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of Andes in Colombia and Venezuela. Prairies are ecosystems considered part of the temperate grasslands found in USA. Pampas are also temperate grasslands found in Argentina. Downs are subtropical, semi-arid grasslands of Australia.

374
Q
  1. Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts of India. What could be the reason? 1. Insufficient shallow ground water. 2. Rocky plateau with impervious surface depression. 3. Undulating terrain helps in accumulation of rain water in depression or man-made tank. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,A. Only 1,B. 1 and 2,C. 2 and 3,D. All of these
A

180,d,All of these,Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts of India due to various reasons including insufficient shallow groundwater, rocky plateau with impervious surface depression, and undulating terrain helping in accumulation of rainwater in depressions or man-made tanks.

375
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) behind Gujarat being the leading producer of Salt in India? 1. The long length of coastline. 2. Long duration of hot and dry conditions. 3. Presence of gulf areas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,A. 1 and 2,B. Only 2,C. 1, 2 and 3,D. 1 and 3
A
376
Q
  1. If 82° 30′ East longitude (Allahabad) shows 6:00 am of Sunday (local time), what would be the local time of Florida (USA) located at 82° West longitude?,A. 6 : 58 pm of Saturday,B. 7 : 02 pm of Sunday,C. 6 : 58 am of Sunday,D. 7 : 02 am of Saturday
A

182,a,6 : 58 pm of Saturday,When 82°30′ East longitude (Allahabad) shows 6:00 AM of Sunday (local time), the local time of Florida (USA) located at 82° West longitude would be 6:58 PM on Saturday.

377
Q
  1. Consider the following statements with regard to cold waves in winter season in Northern India: 1. There is lack of maritime influence. 2. Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region. 3. Air mass comes from polar regions of Northern India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,A. Only 1,B. 2 and 3,C. 1 and 3,D. 1 and 2
A

183,d,1 and 2,When the minimum temperature falls appreciably below normal in the winter months then it is called as cold waves. India’s cold wave zone covers the North Indian states. Following are the main reasons for cold waves in Northern India: (i) Lack of maritime influence, (ii) In the rear of snowfall activity in Himalayan region, North westerly winds may set over the region and causes inflow of cold air mass from higher latitude and for mountain regions.

378
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I (Ocean Current) List II (Coast) A. Humboldt 1. Namibia-Angola B. North Atlantic Drift 2. Chile-Peru C. Benguela 3. Mozambique-Madagascar D. Agulhas 4. Norway-United Kingdom Codes A B C D A B C D,A. 2 1 4 3,B. 2 4 1 3,C. 3 4 1 2,D. 3 1 4 2
A

184,b,2 4 1 3,Humboldt current: Chile-Peru, North Atlantic Drift: Norway-United Kingdom, Benguela: Namibia-Angola, Agulhas: Mozambique-Madagascar

379
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I (Sanctuary) List II (State) A. Sharavathi Valley 1. Gujarat B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha D. Bhagwan Mahaveer 4. Karnataka Codes A B C D A B C D,A. 2 1 3 4,B. 4 1 3 2,C. 4 3 1 2,D. 2 3 1 4
A

185,c,4 3 1 2,Sharavathi Valley: Karnataka, Satkosia Gorge: Odisha, Pirotan Island: Gujarat, Bhagwan Mahaveer: Goa

380
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to the Living Planet Report-2014 (Species and Spaces, People and Places) released by World Wildlife Fund (WWF)? 1. The Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures more than 10000 representative populations of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined by 52% since 1970. 2. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in Africa. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :,A. Only 1,B. Only 2,C. Both 1 and 2,D. Neither 1 nor 2
A

186,a,Only 1,The Living Planet Index (LPI) declined by 52% since 1970 according to the Living Planet Report-2014. However, the most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred in South America, not Africa.

381
Q
  1. The Tungabhadra river provided sustenance to which empire?,A. Chola,B. Vijayanagara,C. Vakataka,D. Pandya
A

187,b,Vijayanagara,The Tungabhadra river provided sustenance to the Vijayanagara empire.

382
Q
  1. Statement I India’s offshore and deep sea fish catch is very poor considering the marine potential. Statement II Indian coast does not have many gulfs, bays, estuaries and backwaters.,A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I,B. Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,C. Statement I is true, but statement II is false,D. Statement I is false, but statement II is true
A

The correct answer is option 1: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Statement I states that Indias offshore and deep sea fish catch is poor considering its marine potential. This means that despite having a large potential for fishing in offshore and deep sea areas, Indias actual catch is not satisfactory.

383
Q
  1. Statement I Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth. Statement II The Earth rotates from the West towards the East once in 24 hours with respect to the Sun.,A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I,B. Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,C. Statement I is true, but statement II is false,D. Statement I is false, but statement II is true
A

189,b,Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,Tides are caused by the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun and rotation of the Earth, not by the Earth’s rotation in relation to the Sun.

384
Q
  1. Statement I Sidereal day is shorter than Solar day. Statement II The motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun is termed as revolution.,A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I,B. Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,C. Statement I is true, but statement II is false,D. Statement I is false, but statement II is true
A

190,b,Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I,A sidereal day is indeed shorter than a solar day, but this is due to the Earth’s rotation, not its revolution around the Sun.

385
Q
  1. The Earth without rotational movement would result into 1. no Sun-rise and Sun-set. 2. no occurrence of day and night cycle. 3. only one season. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :,A. Only 1,B. 1 and 2,C. 2 and 3,D. All of these
A

191,b,1 and 2,If the Earth stopped its rotational movement, there would be no sunrise or sunset, resulting in the absence of day and night cycles.

386
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Ocean Current) List II (Location in Map) A. Guinea current B. Oyashio current C. Canaries current D. Kuroshio current Codes A B C D A B C D,A. 4 3 1 2,B. 2 3 1 4,C. 2 1 3 4,D. 4 1 3 2
A

192,b,2 3 1 4,Guinea current: West Coast of Africa, Oyashio current: East Coast of Russia, Canaries current: Canary Islands, Kuroshio current: East Coast of Japan

387
Q
  1. Arrange the following layers of atmosphere vertically from the surface of the Earth: 1. Mesosphere 2. Troposphere 3. Stratosphere 4. Thermosphere Codes,A. 1, 2, 3, 4,B. 2, 1, 3, 4,C. 2, 3, 1, 4,D. 3, 4, 2, 1
A

193,b,2, 3, 1, 4,The correct sequence of atmospheric layers from the surface of the Earth is: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere.

388
Q
  1. Arrange the following States of India on the basis of conferring statehood (starting from the earliest) 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Nagaland 3. Sikkim 4. Meghalaya,2,4,3,1
A

194,a,2, 4, 3, 1,Nagaland became a state in 1963, Meghalaya in 1972, Sikkim in 1975, and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987.

389
Q
  1. Which one among the following statements regarding plate tectonics is not correct? a) Tectonic plates are composed of oceanic lithosphere and thicker Continental lithosphere. b) Tectonic plates are able to move because the Earth’s lithosphere has a higher strength than the underlying asthenosphere. c) The Earth’s lithosphere is broken up into tectonic plates. d) Along divergent plate boundaries, subduction carries plates into the mantle.,d
A

195,d,Along divergent plate boundaries, subduction carries plates into the mantle.,The statement about subduction occurring along divergent plate boundaries is incorrect. Subduction occurs at convergent plate boundaries, not divergent ones.

390
Q
  1. Consider the diagram given below: The diagram represents the pressure conditions of three different places, viz,. A, B and C. Which of the following is the correct direction of movement of winds? a) Blow from B towards A and C. b) Blow from C towards A and B. c) Blow from B to A and from A to C. d) Blow from B to C and C to B.,a
A

196,a,Blow from B towards A and C.,Winds generally blow from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, so in this diagram, the wind would blow from B (high pressure) towards A and C (low pressure).

391
Q
  1. Consider the following statements regarding groundwater in India 1. The large scale exploitation of groundwater is done with the help of tube-wells. 2. The demand for groundwater started increasing with the advent of green revolution. 3. The total replenishable groundwater reserves are highest in the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland and Tripura. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3,a
A

197,a,1 and 2,The large scale exploitation of groundwater in India is primarily done with tube-wells, and the demand for groundwater increased significantly with the advent of the green revolution.

392
Q
  1. MONEX is associated with a) montreal experiment b) monetary experiment c) lunar experiment d) monsoon experiment,MONSOON
A

198,d,monsoon experiment,MONEX or monsoon experiment was a part of the Global Atmospheric Research Programme (GARP) and coincided with the First GARP Global Experiment (FGGE) in 1979.

393
Q
  1. Which of the following would have happened if the Himalayas did not exist? a) Monsoon rains would have taken place in winter months. b) Coastal India would have experienced Mediterranean climate. c) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter. d) North-Western part of India would have experienced humid condition.,c
A

199,c,North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter.,If the Himalayas did not exist, the North Indian plain would have been much cooler in winter because the Himalayas prevent cold polar winds from Siberia from entering India.

394
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Phenomenon) List II (Date) A. Summer Solstice 1. 21st June B. Winter Solstice 2. 22nd December C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September D. Autumnal Equinox 4. 21st March Codes A B C D A B C D a) 1 4 2 3 b) 1 2 4 3 c) 3 2 4 1 d) 3 4 2 1,b
A

200,b,1 2 4 3,The correct matches between the Phenomenon and Date are: A - 1 (Summer Solstice), B - 2 (Winter Solstice), C - 4 (Vernal Equinox), D - 3 (Autumnal Equinox).

395
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding jhum cultivation in India are correct? 1. It is largely practised in North-Eastern Indian States. 2. It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique. 3. In it, the fertility of soil is exhausted in a few years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3,d
A

201,d,1, 2 and 3,Jhum cultivation is largely practiced in North-Eastern Indian States, referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique, and leads to soil exhaustion in a few years.

396
Q
  1. Arrange the following features formed by rivers in its course starting from upstream : 1. Meanders 2. Falls 3. Delta 4. Oxbow Lake Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 4, 3 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 4, 2, 3,b
A

202,b,2, 1, 4, 3,The correct sequence of river features formed in its course starting from upstream is: Falls, Meanders, Oxbow Lake, Delta.

397
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) relating to Indian agriculture is/are correct? 1. India has the world’s largest cropped area. 2. Cropping pattern is dominated by cereal crop. 3. The average size of an Indian farm holding is too small for several agricultural operations. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3,c
A

203,c,2 and 3,India has the world’s largest cropped area dominated by cereal crops, and the average size of an Indian farm holding is too small for several agricultural operations.
Indonesia tops the chart showing countries with the largest overall area, with 225,000 square kilometres taken by permanent cropland, or 12.4% of its total. Second on the list is China, with 160,000 sq km – some 1.7% of its total land area. Completing the top three nations is India, where 130,000 sq km is given over to permanent crops.

The world’s largest nations feature prominently in this second chart, from China and India to Brazil and Canada. The only countries to feature on both lists are Malaysia and the Philippines.

398
Q
  1. Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to a) clouds which extend beyond freezing level. b) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level. c) all types of clouds. d) cumulonimbus cloud.,b
A

204,b,those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level.,Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to clouds that do not extend beyond the freezing level.

399
Q
  1. Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South : 1. Indravati 2. Dudhwa 3. Bandipur 4. Similipal,2,4,1,3
A

205,c,2-4-1-3,Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (Uttar Pradesh), Similipal Tiger Reserve (Odisha), Indravati Tiger Reserve (Chhattisgarh), Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka).

400
Q
  1. The Equatorial region has no other season except summer. What could be the reason? 1. The length of day and night is more or less equal over the year. 2. The Earth’s rotational velocity is maximum at the Equator. 3. The Coriolis force is zero at the Equator.,a
A

206,a,Only 1,Equatorial region has no other season except summer because the mid-day Sun is almost overhead throughout the year, leading to little difference between day and night lengths.

401
Q
  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I (Hill Range of Central India) List II (Location in Map) (a) Satpura (b) Mahadeo (c) Vindhya (d) Maikala Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4,d
A

207,d,2 3 1 4,Satpura - Mahadeo, Mahadeo - Vindhya, Vindhya - Maikala, Maikala - Satpura.

402
Q
  1. Baiji oil refinery is located at (a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) South Sudan (d) Russia,b
A

208,b,Iraq,Baiji oil refinery is located in Northern Iraq, some 130 miles North of Baghdad, and is Iraq’s largest refinery.

403
Q
  1. Statement I A tsunami is a series of waves in a water body caused by displacement of a large volume of water, generally an ocean or a large lake. Statement II A tsunami can be generated when thrust faults associated with convergent or destructive plate boundaries move abruptly.,a
A

209,a,Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.,Tsunami is caused by displacement of a large volume of water, generally due to thrust faults associated with convergent or destructive plate boundaries.

404
Q
  1. Statement I The Atacama is the driest among the deserts of the World. Statement II The aridity of the Atacama is explained by its location between two mountain chains of sufficient height to prevent moisture advection from either the Pacific or the Atlantic Ocean.,a
A

210,a,Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.,Atacama desert is the driest place due to its location between two mountain chains preventing moisture advection from oceans.

405
Q
  1. Which among the following is/are correct statement(s) about Malawi? 1. Malawi is a landlocked country in South-East Africa that was formerly known as Nyasaland. 2. It has presidential system with unitary form of government. 3. Malawi’s economy is highly dependent on agriculture and majority of the population is rural. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3,c
A

211,c,1, 2 and 3,Malawi is a landlocked country in South-East Africa (formerly known as Nyasaland), has a presidential system with a unitary form of government, and its economy is highly dependent on agriculture with a majority rural population.

406
Q
  1. Which of the following method(s) is/are suitable for soil conservation in hilly region? 1. Terracing and contour bunding 2. Shifting cultivation 3. Contour ploughing Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above,a
A

212,a,1 and 3,Terracing and contour bunding, contour ploughing are suitable for soil conservation in hilly regions.

407
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the example of subsistence farming? (a) Shifting cultivation (b) Commercial farming (c) Extensive and intensive farming (d) Organic farming,a
A

213,a,Shifting cultivation,Subsistence farming involves growing enough food to feed oneself and family, commonly practiced in developing countries like India.

408
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are West flowing river(s) of India? 1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 3. Narmada 4. Cauvery Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3,c
A

214,c,Only 3,Narmada is a West flowing river of India, while Mahanadi, Krishna, and Cauvery flow Eastward.

409
Q
  1. A typical black hole is always specified by (a) a (curvature) singularity (b) a horizon (c) either a (curvature) singularity or a horizon (d) a charge,b
A

215,b,a horizon,A typical black hole is always specified by a horizon, which marks the boundary beyond which nothing can escape, not even light.

410
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) relating to Earthquakes is/are correct? 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called epicenter. 2. The lines joining the places which were affected Earthquake at the same point of time are called homoseismal lines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,b
A

216,b,Only 2,The point of origin of an earthquake is called focus or hypocenter, and lines on the Earth’s surface connecting points affected by an earthquake at the same time are called homoseismal lines.

411
Q
  1. The vegetation type characterised by (i) a large expanse of grassland with scattered trees and shrubs, (ii) lying between tropical rain forest and tropical steppes and deserts and (iii) flat-topped trees, is called (a) mid-latitude broad-leaf mixed forest (b) temperate rain forest (c) tropical savanna (d) mid-latitude grassland,c
A

217,c,Tropical savanna,Tropical savanna vegetation is characterized by a large expanse of grassland with scattered trees and shrubs, lying between tropical rain forests and tropical steppes/deserts.

412
Q
  1. On 8th November, 2013, many people died in Philippines after a super typhoon ravaged the country. What was the name of the typhoon? (a) Haiyan (b) Utor (c) Phailin (d) Nesat,a
A

218,a,Haiyan,Typhoon Haiyan ravaged the Philippines on 8th November, 2013.

413
Q
  1. What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over the North-Western part of India? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high pressure area. 2. The Northern plain would become cold. 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the day time. 4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms,
A

219,a,1 and 2,In mid-winter, a feeble high pressure over North-Western India causes cold winds to blow outward, increasing cold in the Northern plains.

414
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of information about the interior of the Earth? 1. Earthquake wave 2. Volcano 3. Gravitational force 4. Earth magnetism,
A

The correct answer is option 2, which states that volcanoes are the only direct source of information about the interior of the Earth. It is important to note that while earthquakes can provide some information, they are not a direct source.

Earthquake waves, also known as seismic waves, travel through the Earth and can be used to infer certain properties of the Earths interior. However, they do not directly provide information about the composition or structure of the Earths interior. Instead, scientists analyze the behavior of these waves to make inferences.

Gravitational force and Earth magnetism, as mentioned in options 3 and 4, are not direct sources of information about the Earths interior. The gravitational force is a result of the Earths mass and can be used to study its overall structure, but it does not reveal specific details about the interior. Similarly, Earth magnetism is related to the magnetic field of the Earth, which is generated by its core, but it does not provide direct information about the interior composition or structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2, and it is important to understand that volcanoes are the only direct source of information about the interior of the Earth

415
Q
  1. Which one of the following is depositional landform? (a) Stalagmite (b) Lapis (c) Sinkhole (d) Cave,
A

The correct answer is Option 1: Stalagmite. A depositional landform refers to a landform that is formed by the deposition or settling of sediment or other materials. In the case of stalagmites, these are rock formations that extend upwards from the floor of a cave.

Stalagmites are formed through a process known as mineral precipitation. As water from the cave ceiling drips down, it carries with it dissolved minerals. Over time, these minerals collect and solidify, causing the stalagmite to grow upwards. Stalagmites can take many different shapes and sizes depending on the specific conditions within the cave, including the type of minerals present and the rate at which water drips down.

It`s important to note that while options 2, 3, and 4 (Lapis, Sinkhole, and Cave) are all related to cave formations, they are not specifically considered depositional landforms. Lapis refers to a type of gemstone that can sometimes be found in caves, sinkholes are formed through the collapse of the ground surface, and caves themselves are typically considered erosional landforms as they are formed through the dissolution of rock by water.

416
Q
  1. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of India from West to East. (a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura (b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura (c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura (d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi,
A

222,a,Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura,The correct sequence from West to East is Koyali (Gujarat), Kochi (Kerala), Panipat (Haryana), Mathura (U.P.).

417
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the duration of day and night is correct? (a) Difference is least near the Equator and progressively increases away from it (b) Difference is maximum at the Equator and progressively decreases away from it (c) Difference is least at the Tropics and progressively increases towards the Equator and Poles (d) Difference is maximum at the Tropics and progressively decreases towards the Equator and Poles,
A

223,a,Difference is least near the Equator and progressively increases away from it,The difference between day and night duration is least near the Equator and increases away from it due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis.

418
Q

Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of demographic transition? 1. High death rate and birth rate, low growth rate. 2. Rapid decline in death rate, continued low birth rate, very low growth rate. 3. Rapid decline in birth rate, continued decline in death rate 4. Low death rate and birth rate, low growth rate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below a)Only 1 b)1, 2 and 3 c)3 and 4 d)1 and 4

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/3046327/Which-of-the-following-isare-the-stage-s–of-demographic-transition-1–High-death-rate-and-birth-rat

A

Demographic transition refers to the process of change in a population’s demographic structure over time. It is characterized by shifts in birth rates, death rates, and population growth rates. The stages of demographic transition are as follows: 1. High death rate and birth rate, low growth rate: This is the initial stage of demographic transition. In this stage, both birth rates and death rates are high, resulting in a relatively low growth rate. This is often observed in pre-industrial societies where limited access to healthcare, high infant mortality rates, and a lack of family planning contribute to high birth and death rates. 2. Rapid decline in death rate, continued low birth rate, very low growth rate: As societies undergo economic development and improvements in healthcare, there is a significant decline in death rates. This decline is usually due to advancements in medical technology, improved sanitation, and the availability of vaccinations. However, birth rates remain relatively low, resulting in a very low growth rate. This stage is typically associated with the early stages of industrialization. 3. Rapid decline in birth rate, continued decline in death rate: In this stage, birth rates begin to decline rapidly due to various factors such as increased access to education, improved healthcare, urbanization, and changing cultural norms. This decline in birth rates is often accompanied by a continued decline in death rates, leading to a slower but still positive population growth rate. This stage is commonly observed in countries that have undergone significant economic and social development. 4. Low death rate and birth rate, low growth rate: In the final stage of demographic transition, both birth rates and death rates reach low levels. This is typically seen in highly developed countries where access to education, healthcare, and family planning is widespread. The population growth rate in this stage is close to zero or even negative, resulting in an aging population and potential demographic challenges such as a shrinking workforce and increased healthcare demands for the elderly.

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/3046327/Which-of-the-following-isare-the-stage-s–of-demographic-transition-1–High-death-rate-and-birth-rat

419
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a land-locked harbour? (a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Ennore (c) Mumbai (d) Haldia,
A

225,d,Vishakhapatnam,Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked port of India. Ennore port is known for being privately developed. Mumbai port is one of the busiest on the West coast. Haldia (Kolkata) is a riverine port.

420
Q
  1. Match the following List I (Hydroelectric Power Station) List II (Location in the Map) A. Srisailam B. Sabarigiri C. Hirakud D. Sileru Codes A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3,
A

226,b,3 4 1 2,Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool District, Andhra Pradesh. Sabarigiri Hydro Project is located at Moozhiyar, Pathanamthitta District of Kerala. Hirakud Project is located on Mahanadi River in Sambalpur, Odisha. Sileru Project is situated on river Sileru on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.

421
Q
  1. Biodiversity is richer in which region?,”(a) Tropical regions, (b) Polar regions, (c) Temperate regions, (d) Oceans”
A

227,a,Tropical regions,Biodiversity is richer in tropical regions because the tropical environment is less reasonable, relatively more constant, and receives more amount of solar radiation. It remained relatively undisturbed when glaciation occurred in temperate regions.

422
Q
  1. Match the following: List I (Irrigation/Power Project) List II (River) A. Bhakra Nangal 1. Bhagirathi B. Dul Hasti 2. Mahanadi C. Hirakud 3. Chandra D. Tehri 4. Sutlej,”(a) 4 2 3 1, (b) 4 3 2 1, (c) 1 3 2 4, (d) 1 2 3 4”
A

228,b,4 3 2 1,Correct matches are Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej, Dul Hasti – Chandra, Hirakud – Mahanadi, Tehri – Bhagirathi. Bhakra Nangal Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej river in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh. Dul Hasti Dam is a gravity dam situated on the Chandra river in the Kishtwar district of erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir state. Hirakud dam is built across Mahanadi river in Odisha. Tehri dam is situated on Bhagirathi river near Tehri in Uttarakhand.

423
Q
  1. Veliconda group of low hills is a structural part of which of the following region?,”(a) Nilgiri Hills, (b) Western Ghats, (c) Eastern Ghats, (d) Cardamom Hills”
A

229,c,Eastern Ghats,Veliconda hills is a range of mountains that form part of the Eastern Ghats. Veliconda range is located in the South-Eastern part of Andhra Pradesh.

424
Q
  1. Which one of the following dams is constructed across Krishna River?,”(a) Ukai Dam, (b) Krishnaraja Sagar Dam, (c) Srisailam Dam, (d) Mettur Dam”
A

230,c,Srisailam Dam,The Srisailam dam is constructed across the Krishna river at Srisol Srisailam in Kurnool District of Andhra Pradesh and is the 3rd largest hydroelectric project in the country.

425
Q

1,Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year?,”(a) Article-110 (b) Article-111 (c) Article-112 (d) Article-113”

A

1,c,Article-112,”Article-112 in the Constitution of India 1949 says The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement. Article 110 (3) of the Constitution of India categorically states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the speakers of the house of the people thereon shall be final. Article 111 of the Constitution of India ‘Assent to Bills’ when a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President and the President shall declare either that he assent to the Bill, or that he withholds assent there from. According to Article 113 of the Indian Constitution estimates expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India in the Annual Financial Statement are to be voted the Lok Sabha.”

426
Q

2,Arrange the following in the chronological order of their implementation: 1. The Indian Factory Act (First) 2. The Vernacular Press Act 3. The Morley-Minto Reforms 4. The Cornwallis Code, “(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4”

A

2,a,4, 2, 1, 3,”Option (a) is the correct sequence. The Cornwallis code is a body of legislation enacted in 1793 by the East India Company to improve the governance of its territories India. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted by the Britishers to curtail the freedom of Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism towards British policies. During Lord’s Ripon time, the ‘First Factory Act’ was adopted in 1881 to improve the service conditions of the factory workers in India. The act banned the appointment of children below the age of seven in factories. It also reduced the working hours of children. The Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) was an act of the Parliament of the UK that brought about a limited increase in the Involvement of Indians in the governance of British India.”

427
Q

3,Article-371A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to which states?,”(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram (c) Sikkim (d) Manipur”

A

3,a,Nagaland,”Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to the state of Nagaland with an aim to preserve their tribal culture. Article 371 also confers special privileges to the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh. Article 371 gives the power to the President of India to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada regions of Maharashtra and the rest of the State and Saurashtra, Kutch and rest of Gujarat. Special provisions with respect to Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Goa are dealt in Articles 371D and 371E, 371J, 371I respectively.”

428
Q

4,How many Zonal Councils were set-up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act,1956?,”(a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Six (d) Five”

A

4,d,Five,”Zonal Councils are Advisory Councils and are made up of the States of India that have been grouped into five zones to foster cooperation among them. These were set-up vide Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each these Zonal Council is under Northern Zonal Council, Central Zonal Council, Eastern Zonal Council, Western Zonal Council and Southern Zonal Council. The North Eastern States are under another statutory body, the North Eastern Council.”

429
Q

5,Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India for the exercise of powers of his office?,”(a) Article-53 (b) Article-74 (c) Article-361 (d) Article-363”

A

5,c,Article-361,”Article-361 of the Constitution of India provides that the President or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of these powers and duties. Article 53 Executive Power of the Union The executive power of the union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of his functions. Article 363 of the Constitution bars the jurisdiction of all courts in any dispute arising out of any agreement which was entered into or executed before the commencement of the Constitution by any ruler of an Indian state to which the Government of India was party.”

430
Q

6,Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English language?,”(a) Article-145 of the Constitution of India (b) Article-348 of the Constitution of India (c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (d) An Act Passed by the Parliament”

A

6,b,Article-348,”Article-348 of the Constitution of India prescribes language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Court and for acts, bills, etc. All proceeding in the Supreme Court and in every High Court, the authoritative texts of all bills to be introduced or amendment there to be moved in either House of Parliament or either House of State Legislature, shall be in English.”

431
Q

7,The total number of members in the Union Council of Ministers in India shall, not exceed,”(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament (b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament (c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha (d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha”

A

7,d,15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha,”The Union Council of Ministers Exercises Executive Authority in the Republic of India. It consists of senior ministers, called Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State or Deputy Ministers. According to the Constitution of India, the total numbers of ministers in the Council of Ministers must not exceed 15% of the total numbers of member of the Lok Sabha.”

432
Q

8,Which one of the following states does not have a Legislative Council?,”(a) Karnataka (b) Telangana (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Arunachal Pradesh”

A

8,d,Arunachal Pradesh,”Legislative Council is the Upper House in those States of India that have a bicameral legislature its establishment is defined in Article-169 of the Constitution of India. As of 2019, 7 out of 29 States have Legislative Council namely—Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Jammu and Kashmir, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.”

433
Q

9,Which one of the following is not enumerated in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Duty of citizens of India?,”(a) To safeguard public property (b) To protect and improve the natural environment (c) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry (d) To promote international peace and security”

A

9,d,To promote international peace and security,”The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the government. Under Article 51, it mentions to promote international peace and security. It is not enumerated in the Constitution of India as Fundamental Duty of Citizens of India.”

434
Q

10,Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo-Warranto is not correct?,”(a) The office must be public and it must be created by a statute (b) The office must be a substantive one (c) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a state in appointing such person to that office (d) The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision”

A

10,d,The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision,”Writ of ‘Quo-Warranto’ in literal sense means by what authority or warrant it is issued by the court to enquire into legality of claim of a person to public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Hence, option (d) is not correct.”

435
Q

11,Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. (b) Tribal Advisory Councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule. (c) The Governor is not authorised, to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes. (d) The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.”

A

11,c,The Governor is not authorised, to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.,”The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribe in any State except the four States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. It says, Tribal Advisory Councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule. The Governor is empowered to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes. Hence, option (c) is not correct.”

436
Q

12,Consider the following statements: 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned state. 2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at the state level. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,”(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

12,d,Neither 1 nor 2,”The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the Governor of a State. A High Court is primarily a Court of Appeal. It hears appeals against the Judgements of Subordinate Courts functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. It has appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters. Under Act 226 original appellate jurisdiction under Article 226 of Constitution, not civil procedure code. Hence, both the statements are incorrect.”

437
Q

13,Which one of the following forms of Constitution contains the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution?,”(a) Unitary (b) Federal (c) Quasi-Federal (d) Quasi-Unitary”

A

13,c,Quasi-Federal,”Quasi-Federal forms of Constitution contains the features of both the unitary and Federal Constitution. The Constitution of India has both the unitary as well as federal features. Federal features are dual polity, written Constitution, division of powers, supremacy of the Constitution, Rigid Constitution, independent judiciary, Bicameralism. Unitary features are strong centre, single Constitution, flexibility of the Constitution etc.”

438
Q

14,Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct?,”(a) It extended the practice of communal representation (b) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature (c) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (d) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces”

A

1) Option 1: It extended the practice of communal representation: This is a correct statement. The Government of India Act 1919 did introduce the concept of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, and Europeans.

2) Option 2: It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature: This statement is not correct. The Government of India Act 1919 did not make the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature. Instead, it expanded the role and powers of the legislature by introducing the concept of dual government and provincial autonomy.

3) Option 3: It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms: This is a correct statement. The Government of India Act 1919 is commonly referred to as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms because it was introduced by Edwin Montague, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India at the time.

4) Option 4: It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces: This is a correct statement

439
Q

15,The concept of ‘Four Pillar State’, free from district magistracy for India was suggested by,”(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Ram Manohar Lohia (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Subhash Chandra Bose”

A

15,b,Ram Manohar Lohia,”Ram Manohar Lohia believes in decentralisation of economic and political powers. So he gave the concept of Four Pillar State, which is based on the principle of division of powers. According to him four pillar constitute four limbs of the State. They are the village, the district, the province and the centre with sovereign powers.”

440
Q

16,Which one among the following is not a part of the Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?,”(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories (c) Participation of workers in management of industries (d) Practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business”

A

16,c,Participation of workers in management of industries,”Participation of workers in management of industries is not a part of the Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India. Participation of workers in management of industries is directive principle of State policy. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part-III of the Constitution from Article-12-35. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is Article-23. Prohibition of employment of children in factories is Article-24. Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade business is Article 19(1)g.”

441
Q

17,Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India are not correct?,”1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India. 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India. Select the incorrect answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4”

A

The correct answer is option 4: 1, 3, and 4.

Let`s analyze each statement one by one to understand why options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect:

  1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India: This statement is incorrect. According to the Indian Constitution, the President of India does not tender his resignation to the Chief Justice of India. The President can only resign by writing to the Vice-President of India.
  2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India: This statement is not mentioned in the question, so we cannot consider it as a correct or incorrect statement. However, it is not relevant to the question as it doesn`t refer to any incorrect statements.
  3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India: This statement is incorrect. The removal process of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is different from that of the President. The President can be impeached by Parliament, whereas the CAG can be removed only through an impeachment process by both houses of Parliament.
  4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to
442
Q

18,Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in,”(a) creation of new states (b) declaring a war (c) financial emergency (d) authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the state list”

A

18,d,authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the state list,”Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha. (i) It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the state list. (ii) It can authorize the Parliament to create new all India services common to both the Centre and States.”

443
Q

19,The Inter-State Council was set-up in 1990 on the recommendation of,”(a) Punchhi Commission (b) Sarkaria Commission (c) Rajamannar Commission (d) Mungerilal Commission”

A

19,b,Sarkaria Commission,”Article-263 in Part XI of the Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council for better coordination among the states and between Centre and States. In 1990, the Inter-State Council was established on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission (1983-87). It consists of the following members: (i) Prime Minister as the Chairman (ii) Chief Minister of all the States and Union Territories (iii) Administrators of Union Territories not having Assemblies (iv) Governors of States under President rule (v) Six Central Cabinet Ministers.”

444
Q

20,Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal?,”(a) Mandamus (b) Prohibition (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari”

A

20,d,Certiorari,”Certiorari is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal. There are five major types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari. In India, both the Supreme Court and High Court are empowered with writ jurisdiction. Certiorari is issued by the Supreme Court and High Court to transfer a particular matter or quash the order of a lower court. Mandamus is a command issued by a court to a public authority, lower court, or tribunal to perform their duties. Prohibition allows the Supreme Court and High Court to prohibit lower courts that exceed their jurisdiction or act against the rule of natural justice. Quo Warranto is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Habeas Corpus is used by the courts to find out if a person has been illegally detained.”

445
Q

21,Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct?,”1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3”

A

21,c,Only 1,”The concept of basic structure was laid down by the Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharti Case (1973). The basic structure doctrine states that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament. Article 368 does not give absolute powers to the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution. Thus, statement (1) is correct. The amendment in basic structure cannot be brought via a Constituent Assembly since it was dissolved on 24th January 1950. Hence, statement (2) is incorrect. Constituent power is the power to formulate a Constitution or to propose amendments to or revisions of the Constitution and to ratify such proposals. The Constitution of India vests constituent power upon the Parliament subject to the special procedure laid down therein. However, the scope to amend the basic structure is limited. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect.”

446
Q

22,When a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the right to move a court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except,”(a) Article-20 and Article-21 (b) Article-21 and Article-22 (c) Article-19 and Article-20 (d) Article-15 and Article-16”

A

22,a,Article-20 and Article-21,”The President can proclaim an emergency under Article-352 when the security of the nation or a part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Article-20 and Article-21, which ensure the protection of life and personal liberty, cannot be suspended at any cost.”

447
Q

23,Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing ghats maintained out of state funds?,”(a) Article-14 (b) Article-15 (c) Article-16 (d) Article-17”

A

23,b,Article-15,”Article-15 of the Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. So, no person would be denied to use the wells, tanks, and bathing ghats maintained out of state funds.”

448
Q

24,Who amongst the following organised the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?,”(a) Jyotiba Phule (b) Periyar (c) BR Ambedkar (d) MK Karunanidhi”

A

24,c,BR Ambedkar,”The All India Scheduled Castes Federation was founded by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1942 to organize scheduled caste people against Brahmanical ideology. He also established the Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha, Independent Labour Party, and started the weekly paper ‘Mooknayak’. He was appointed as the first Law Minister of India.”

449
Q

25,Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand?,”(a) There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers (b) Income of consumers remains constant (c) Consumers are affected by demonstration effect (d) There are no changes in the price of substitute goods”

A

25,c,Consumers are affected by demonstration effect,”Consumers are affected by demonstration effect, which is not an assumption in the law of demand. The law of demand is a fundamental concept of economics which states that at a higher price, consumers will demand a lower quantity of goods and vice versa.”

450
Q

26,Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?,”(a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution. (b) India ceased to be a dependency. (c) The Crown was the source of authority till new Constitution was framed. (d) The Governor-General was the Constitutional Head of Indian Dominion.”

A

The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was a legislation that facilitated the partition of India and granted independence to both India and Pakistan. Among the changes brought about by this act, option 1 states that the Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution. This means that the existing legislation was modified to establish a temporary framework for governance until a permanent constitution could be formulated.

Option 2 states that India ceased to be a dependency. This statement is incorrect, as the Indian Independence Act actually resulted in the end of British rule in India and the establishment of India as an independent dominion within the British Commonwealth.

Option 3 states that the Crown was the source of authority until a new Constitution was formed. This means that the British Monarch remained the symbolic head of state until India drafted and adopted its own constitution, marking the transition to a republic.

Option 4 states that the Governor General was the constitutional head of the Indian Dominion. This statement is correct, as the Indian Dominion, which later became the Republic of India, had a Governor General as its constitutional head until the office was abolished and replaced with a President.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 2, as India did not cease to be a dependency but rather gained independence from British

451
Q

27,Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State Legislature?,”(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils (b) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly (c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities (d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the state”

A

27,c,Not (c) The Constitution as provided autonomy to state to have unicameral and bicameral legislature, 7 out of 28 states have bicameral legislature, Legislative Assembly and Council. The Legislative Council is the Upper House where members are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of assembly and minimum is fixed at 40.
(a) as nearly as may be, one-third shall be elected by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards, and such other local authorities in the State as Parliament may by law specify; (b) as nearly as may be, one-twelfth shall be elected by electorates consisting of persons residing in the State who have been for at least three years graduates of any university in the territory of India or have been for at least three years in possession of qualifications prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament as equivalent to that of a graduate of any such university; (c) as nearly as may be, one-twelfth shall be elected by electorates consisting of persons who have been for at least three years engaged in teaching in such educational institutions within the State, not lower in standard than that of a secondary school, as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament; (d) as nearly as may be, one-third shall be elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly of the State from amongst persons who are not members of the Assembly; (e) the remainder shall be nominated by the Governor in accordance with the provisions of the clause. There are only seven states which have two-tier of the legislature – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Jammu & Kashmir

Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/2656017/Which-one-of-the-following-is-not-a-correct-statement-regarding-the-provision-of-Legislative-Council

452
Q

28,Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?,”(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings (b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women (c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues of a period of five years (d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats”

A

28,a,Not (a) The Part IX was inserted in Constitution through the 73rd Amendment Act. Important Features The Chairman of a Panchayat shall be elected in such a manner as the State Legislature determines. So statement (a) is not correct. Rest all statements are true. It also provided one-third reservation of seats for women in State Finance Commission, State Election Commission etc.

453
Q

29,Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals?,”(a) The Parliament may be law Constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels (b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services (c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all courts to allow for special leave to appeal (d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed”

A

29,c,Not (c) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A entitled as ‘Tribunals’. It consists of two Article-323A and 323B. Article-323A empowers the Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunal, in 1985 the Administrative Tribunal Act was passed to establish Central Administrative Tribunal. All the statements are true except (c), as they are not empowered to exclude the jurisdiction of all court to allow for special leave to appeal. Article-323B gives power to both Parliament and State Legislature to establish tribunal for different disputes.

454
Q

30,Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct?,”1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4”

A

30,a,Not (a) Only statement 1 and 2 are correct. Alladi Krishnaswami was eminent lawyer from Chennai, in Constituents Assembly he favoured the role of Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution when required. He also wanted that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control.

455
Q

31,The ‘Beijing Declaration’ is concerned with which one of the following issues?,”(a) Rights of Children (b) Rights of Women (c) Right to Development (d) Reduction of Tariffs”

A

31,b,Not (b) The ‘Beijing Declaration’ is concerned with the ‘Right of Women’, this declaration was outcome of fourth world conference on women in 1995. It advances the goals of equality, development and peace for all women.

456
Q

32,The ‘Gujral Doctrine’ relates to which one of the following issues?,”(a) Build trust between India and its neighbours (b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India (c) Undertake development activities in Naxal-dominated areas (d) Ensure food security”

A

32,a,Not (a) The main objective of ‘Gujaral doctrine’ to build trust between India and its neighbours, was initiated in 1996 by IK Gujaral, the then Finance Minister.

457
Q

33,Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers?,”(a) Narendra Modi (b) IK Gujaral (c) JL Nehru (d) Manmohan Singh”

A

33,c,Not (c) Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign policy was initiated by PM Jawaharlal Nehru. JL Nehru believed that Asia had a certain responsibility toward the people of Africa. In this regard, he followed Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign policy.

458
Q

34,The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies?,”(a) The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) (b) The National Disaster Management Authority (c) The Ministry of Finance (d) The National Development Council (NDC)”

A

34,a,Not (a) The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established in 1948 to assist displaced person from Pakistan, now resources of PMNRD are utilised to render relief to families of those killed in natural calamities and man-made disaster. This fund is operated by the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).

459
Q

35,Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct?,”Prior to arogational of Article 370. (a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. (b) Article-35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property. (c) Article-19(1)(f) has been omitted. (d) Article-368 is not applicable for the Amendment of Constitution of the State.”

A
460
Q

36,Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct?,”1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. 2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. 3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any population participation in the administration of the country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3”

A

36,c,Not (c) The Government of India Act, 1858 was an Act of the British Parliament that transferred the government and territories of the East India Company to the British Crown. The Company’s rule over British territories in India came to an end and it was passed directly to the British government. Queen Victoria, who was the monarch of Britain, also became the sovereign of British territories in India as a result of this Act. This act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in administration of the country. Under this act, all the powers of Crown were exercised by Secretary of State of India and was assisted by Council of India (Council of fifteen members). Hence, all statements are correct.

461
Q

37,Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct?,”1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor-General’s Executive Council. 2. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General. 3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1”

A

37,a,Not (a) The Indian Councils Act, 1861 was passed by British Parliament on 1st August, 1861 to make substantial changes in the composition of the Governor-General council. ● The executive council of Governor-General was added a fifth finance member. For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be between 6 and 12 additional members (nominated by the Governor-General). ● They were appointed for a period of 2 years. Out of these, atleast half of the additional members were to be non-official (British or Indian). ● Their functions were confined to legislative measures. ● Any bill related to public revenue or debt, military, religion or foreign affairs could not be passed without the Governor- General’s assent. ● The Viceroy had the power to overrule the council, if necessary. ● The Governor-General also had the power to promulgate ordinances without the council’s concurrence during emergencies. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect.

462
Q

38,Which of the following statements relating to the historic objectives resolution, which was adopted by the constituent assembly, is/are correct?,”1. The objectives resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages. 2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge. 3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3”

A

38,c,Not (c) ‘Objectives Resolution’ was the resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on the 13th of December, 1946 in the 1st Session of India’s Constituent Assembly, which was charged with the objective to frame India’s Constitution. It was unanimously adopted on 22nd of January, 1947. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. The Constituent Assembly declared its firm resolve to proclaim India an Independent Sovereign Republic and draw up a Constitution for her governance. Hence, all statements are correct.

463
Q

39,Which of the following statements relating to the duties of the Governor is/are correct?,”1. The duties of the Governor as a Constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament. 2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

39,b,Not (b) Since Governor is appointed by the President or Union Government. His duties as constitutional Head of the State can become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament. Even in that condition when the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President rule his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

464
Q

40,Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the special provision with respect to the State of Assam?,”(a) Article 371A (b) Article 371B (c) Article 371C (d) Article 371D”

A

40,b,Not (b) The Article 371B of Indian Constitution has special provision with respect to the State of Assam. It is mostly related to Sixth Schedule and functioning of Legislative Assembly and Sixth Schedule. ● Article 371 A of Indian Constitution has special provision with respect to the state of Nagaland. ● Article 371 C deals with special provision with respect to Manipur. ● Article 371 D special provision with respect to the state of Andhra Pradesh.

465
Q

41,Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?,”(a) Article 238 (b) Article 370 (c) Article 371 (d) Article 371G”

A

41,b,Not (b) Article 370 of the Indian Constitution was an article that grants special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. The article was drafted in Part XXI of the Constitution, which relates to Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions. The Government of India abrogated the Article 370 in August 2019, thus making all the provision of the Indian Constitution applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.

466
Q

42,Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?,”(a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule (c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule”

A

42,d,Not (d) The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous Districts Council. The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As per Article 244 and sixth Schedule, these areas are called ‘Tribal Areas’. The Sixth Schedule envisages establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).

467
Q

43,Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is correct?,”(a) Five years from the date of election (b) Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the council after the election (c) Six years from the date of administration of oath (d) Six years from the date of election”

A

43,b,Not (b) The tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election. They are known as MDC (Member of the District Council). The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution empowers the Governor to determine the administrative areas of the autonomous councils.

468
Q

44,Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be audited?,”(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (b) The Chartered Accountant empanelled by the Government of India (c) The State Government Auditors (d) Any Chartered Accountant”

A

44,a,Not (a) The Comptroller and Auditor General shall cause the accounts of District and Regional Councils to be audited in such manner as he may think fit, and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the council. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India also envisages audit of accounts of district and regional councils of autonomous regions by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).

469
Q

45,Who has the power of annulment or suspension of acts and resolutions of the autonomous district and regional Councils?,”(a) The Governor (b) The President (c) The Chief Minister of the State (d) The Prime Minister”

A

45,a,Not (a) Governor has the power of annulment of suspension of Acts and resolutions of the autonomous district and regional council. The Governor also has power to include any other area, exclude any area, increase, decrease, diminish these areas, unite two districts/regions, and alter the names and boundaries of these autonomous district councils.

470
Q

46,The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to,”(a) the President (b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) the Prime Minister (d) the Vice-President”

A

46,a,Not (a) Under Article 151 of Constitution, the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.

471
Q

47,Which of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?,”(a) Diplomatic and Military powers (b) Power of appointing Advocate General (c) Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature (d) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments”

A

47,a,Not (a) Governor is the Head of the State, as President being the head of the country. He enjoys executive, legislative as well as judicial functions. Diplomatic and Military powers not related to the powers of Governor. Following are the powers and duties performed by Governor in states are (i) They have power to appoint Advocate General. (ii) They can summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature. (iii) They have power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments.

472
Q

48,Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?,”(a) To discuss state matters (b) To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities (c) To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an undertaking under the control of the Union Government (d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour”

A

48,a,Not (a) To discuss state matters in general condition does not lie under procedure and conduct of business of Parliament. Under Article 246 of the Constitution, Parliament has right to make laws on Union list and Concurrent list of Schedule seven. Parliament can discuss the issue of Police action against the Schedule Castes and Tribes under the Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Issue of Industrial labours come under Concurrent list, so it can be discussed in Parliament. Parliament can also discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an undertaking under the control of the Union Government.

473
Q

49,Which of the following is not under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?,”(a) Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls (b) Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the Legislature of each state (c) Conduct of election of the office of the President and the Vice-President (d) Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission”

A

49,d,Not (d) Appointment of the Regional Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission is not done by the Election Commission of India. According to Article 324 of Indian Constitution, the Election Commission of India has superintendence, direction and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Parliament and Legislature (State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council) of every state and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India.

474
Q

50,Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?,”(a) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court (b) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court (c) In the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist (d) At least twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate”

A

50,d,Not (d) Article 124 (3) of the Constitution prescribes that for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court a person must be (i) a citizen of India, (ii) has been a judge of any High Court for at least 5 years, or (iii) has been an advocate in a High Court for 10 years or is in the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist. Hence, the criteria given in option (d) is not required.

475
Q

51,Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Ministers?,”(a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation (b) To furnish information relating to the administration of the state and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for (c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report (d) To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council, if the governor so requires”

A

51,c,Not (c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report is the duty of Prime Minister under Article 78. Hence, option (c) is incorrect. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor. Article 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at its hand to aid and advise the Governor. Under Article 167 of the Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each state (i) to communicate to the Governor of the state all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation. (ii) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for.

476
Q

52,Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States?,”(a) The Governor (b) The Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council (d) The Chief Minister”

A

52,d,Not (d) Under Article 168 of the Constitution, for every state there shall be a Legislature which shall consist of the Governor, and where there are two Houses of the Legislature of a State, one shall be known as the Legislative Council and the other as the Legislative Assembly, and where there is only one House, it shall be known as the Legislative Assembly. Hence, Chief Minister is not the part of Legislature.

477
Q

53,Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct?,”(a) It is not a discretionary power (b) The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime (c) The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session (d) The aid and advice of Ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance”

A

53,d,Not (d) Governor of an Indian state draws ordinance making power from Article 213 of the Constitution. The Governor can only issue ordinances when the Legislative Assembly of a state or where there are two houses in a state both houses are not in session. Governor’s ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. Thus option (d) is incorrect.

478
Q

54,The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to,”(a) sexual harassment at the workplace (b) sati (c) dowry death (d) rape”

A

54,a,Not (a) Vishaka Guidelines against Sexual Harassment at Workplace. Guidelines and norms laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Vishaka and Others Vs State of Rajasthan and Others (JT 1997 (7) SC 384). The Vishaka guidelines were superseded in 2013 by The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013. State of Rajasthan and Union of India to enforce the Fundamental Rights of working women under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of Constitution of India.

479
Q

55,Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?,”(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu”

A

A Among all the given options, West Bengal has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly. The number of seats allotted to Legislative Assembly of any state is based on the population of that state. The maximum number of seats are in the Legislative Assembly of Uttar Pradesh (403) followed by West Bengal (294), Maharashtra (288), Bihar (243), Tamil Nadu (234) and Madhya Pradesh (230).

480
Q

56,Which of the following statements about the ordinance making power of the Governor is/are correct?,”1. It is a discretionary power. 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the ordinance at any time. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

56,d,Not (d) The State Executive has temporary law-making power in emergent situations under the Constitution of India. And the Governor is the head of the State Executive. So, the ordinance making power confers on him by the Constitution itself. But this is not a discretionary power. The ordinance making power of the Governor is coextensive with the legislative power of the State Legislature to make laws. He can promulgate ordinances only on the subjects on which the State Legislature has power to make laws under the Constitution. Hence, both the statements are incorrect.

481
Q

57,Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?,”(a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (b) Convention of the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (d) Declaration on the Right to Development”

A

57,d,Not (d) ‘Declaration on the Right to Development’ is not an International Human Rights Treaty. There are seven core international human rights treaties. Each of these treaties has established a committee of experts to monitor implementation of the treaty provisions by its states parties, other than three treaties mentioned in question. The other treaties are (i) International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD) (ii) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) (iii) International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) (iv) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)

482
Q

58,In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?,”(a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail (b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail”

A

58,c,Not (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is a method of providing feedback to voters using a ballotless voting system. A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines. It was designed to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly,to detect possible election fraud or malfunction and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.

483
Q

59,Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?,”1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights. 2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim. 3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates. 4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these”

A

59,d,Not (d) All the statements given in question come under the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). It is formed as per the statutory provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is a multi-member body consisting of Chairman and four members. President appoints the Chairman and members of the NHRC on the recommendation of the high-powered committee headed by the Prime Minister. Hence, all the statements are correct.

484
Q

60,A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if the person,”1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder 2. is an undischarged insolvent 3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India 4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these”

A

60,d,All of these,The Constitution of India has provided (in Article 102) that a member of Parliament will be disqualified for membership if (i) he holds any office of profit under the Union or State Government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). (ii) he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. (iii) he is an undischarged insolvent. (iv) he has ceased to be a citizen of India. (v) he is disqualified under any other law by Parliament. Hence, all the statements are correct.

485
Q

61,According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognised as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognised political party in how many states?,”(a) At least two states (b) At least three states (c) At least four states (d) At least five states”

A

61,c,At least four states,For recognition as National Party, a political party has to fulfill the following conditions: (i) The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha (11 seats) from at least three different states. (ii) At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in four states and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats. (iii) A party gets recognition as state party in four or more states. Both national and state parties have to fulfill these conditions for all subsequent Lok Sabha or State elections. Otherwise, they lose their status. Hence, options (c) is correct.

486
Q

62,Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?,”(a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General (b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal (c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal (d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral”

A

62,c,Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal,As per the given table option (c) is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in defence forces of India.

487
Q

63,Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?,”1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. 2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament. 3. He is a whole-time counsel for the government. 4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1”

A

63,c,Only 3,Attorney General of India is not a whole time counsel for the government. Attorney General is Indian government’s chief legal advisor and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. As per Article 76(1), President of India appoints Attorney General for a term which is decided by President. The Attorney General holds the office during the pleasure of the President. The Attorney General represents the government but is also allowed to take up private practice, provided the other party is not the state. Attorney General has right of audience in all courts within the territory of India. He has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament including joint sittings. Attorney General has all the powers and privileges that of a member of Parliament. Hence, all the statements are correct except 3.

488
Q

64,Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?,”(a) 35th (b) 36th (c) 37th (d) 38th”

A

64,b,36th,Under the 36th Amemdment Act the state Sikkim admitted to the Union of India. Sikkim became a state of India via the Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office. In 1974, the Sikkim Assembly passed a Government of Sikkim Act, 1974, which paved the way for setting up the first ever responsible government in Sikkim and sought Sikkim’s representation in the political institutions of India. India also passed the 35th Amendment Act, 1974 which inserted a new Article 2A (Sikkim to be associated with Union).

489
Q

65,Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?,”(a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions (b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution (c) States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India (d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly”

A

65,d,The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 10% of the total number of members in the Assembly.,Therefore, option(d) is incorrect. India is governed by a single Constitution for the whole country. The states in India are carved for the administrative significance so, they do not have any right to secession from the Union.

490
Q

66,Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?,”(a) 91st Amendment (b) 87th Amendment (c) 97th Amendment (d) 90th Amendment”

A

66,a,91st Amendment,Earlier, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a merger. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this. So now atleast two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a ‘merger’ for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. This amendment also fixed the strength of council of ministers to 15% of the total number of members of the house

491
Q

67,In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?,”1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Karnakata 4. Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4”

A

67,b,2 and 4,”Haryana and Rajasthan are the states who mandate to ‘fix minimum education qualification for those contesting in Panchayat Raj Institutions. The Haryana law mandates that the minimum education qualification that to context in the Panchayat polls is class 10th pass for men, class 8th for women and class 5th pass for dalits. In Rajasthan, candidates contesting Zila Parishad and Panchayat Samiti polls have to be Xth pass and for Sarpanch elections class 8th pass.”

492
Q

68,Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?,”1. It is the abdication of responsibility. 2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one. 3. It is subject to supervision and review. 4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organisation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4”

A

68,c,3 and 4,”The delegation of authority is an organisational process wherein, the manager divides his work among the subordinates and gives them the responsibility to accomplish the respective tasks. Along with the responsibility, he also shares the authority i.e., the power to take decisions with the subordinates, such that responsibilities can be completed efficiently. Hence option (c) is correct.”

493
Q

69,Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?,”1. Rule of Law 2. Law making Procedure 3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4”

A

69,d,1, 2 and 4,”The Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and spirit. Though borrowed from almost every Constitution of the world, the Constitution of India has several features that distinguish it from the Constitutions of other countries. Following features have been borrowed by the British Constitution: 1. Parliamentary government 2. Rule of Law 3. Legislative procedure 4. Single Citizenship Independence of Judiciary has been taken from the Constitution of USA. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.”

494
Q

70,Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state?,”(a) Fifth Schedule (b) Third Schedule (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fourth Schedule”

A

70,d,Fourth Schedule,”The Fourth schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the council of states. Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules. Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total 12 schedules. These are basically tables which contains additional details not mentioned in the articles. Third Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations. Fifth Schedule Provisions as to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. Sixth Schedule Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in (the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.)”

495
Q

71,Statement I The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. Statement II By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.”

A

71,c,Statement I is true, but Statement II is false,”The communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. The All India Trade Union Congress was started in 1920. But from 1922, Socialist and Communist ideas started to emerge. There were differences in the ideologies of both wings. This led to split and NM Joshi left the All India Trade Union Congress. Hence, statement (1) is true and (2) is false.”

496
Q

72,The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by (a) a proclamation of National Emergency (b) an Act passed by the Parliament (c) an amendment to the Constitution of India (d) the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court”

A

72,a,a proclamation of National Emergency,”During a national emergency, all the basic freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 automatically get suspended. During emergency, President can suspend all other fundamental rights except Article 20 and Article 21. Such suspension needs parliamentary approval. Hence, option (a) is true.”

497
Q

73,Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct?,”1. It makes it mandatory for all states to establish a three-tier system of Government. 2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years. 3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3”

A

73,b,2 and 3,”73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments are a part of the Constitution, but many of its key provisions are not mandatory for the state government. These amendments prescribe regular elections on every five years and election within six months of the dissolution of urban bodies and rural bodies. The election supervised by the State Election Commission. The most revolutionary provision is the reservation of 1/3 rd of the seats for women in local bodies, along with the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in proportion to their regional population. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 and 3 are correct.”

C states that the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of government. This statement is incorrect. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts actually mandated the establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayats in rural areas and Municipalities in urban areas, but it did not make it mandatory for all States to establish this system. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect

498
Q

74,A joint sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills?,”1. Money Bill 2. Constitutional Amendment Bill 3. Ordinary Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3”

A

D

499
Q

75,Which of the following statements is/are correct?,”1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India. 2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions. 3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3”

A

75,c,1 and 2,”The Directive Principles of State Policy of India are the guidelines which have been enshrined in Part IV of Indian Constitution. Directive Principles given in the Constitution are meant to promote social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fundamental rights are those rights which are essential for existence and all-round development of individuals, hence, it’s called as ‘Fundamental’ rights. These are enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Constitution of India. Accordingly under Article 19 (2), the state may make a law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech and expression. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.”

500
Q

76,The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following?,”1. Both the Houses of the Parliament 2. The Legislative Assemblies of States 3. The Legislative Councils of States 4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 4”

A

76,c,1, 2 and 4,”The President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of (i) the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament and (ii) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states. (In this article and in Article 55, ‘State’ includes the National Capital Territory of Puducherry). Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.”