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77,Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India,”1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions. 2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the state. 3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the state. 4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”
77,c,1, 2 and 3,”Constitution reads as follow “Nothing in this Article of sub-clause(g) of clause (1) of Article 19 shall prevent the state from making any special provision, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in so far as such special provision related to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by state, other than minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.” Hence, all statements except statement 4 are correct.”
78,Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes,”1. Rights of transgenders 2. Rights of craniopagus twins 3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3”
78,d,1, 2 and 3,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law. This right has been held to be the heart of the Constitution, the most organic and progressive provision in our living Constitution, the foundation of our laws. Article 21 secures two rights: ● Right to life ● Right to personal liberty Thus, Article 21 covers the rights of transgenders, craniopagus twins, and rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
79,Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?,”(a) NG Ayyangar (b) KM Munshi (c) BN Rau (d) Muhammad Saadullah”,(c) BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.
79,c,BN Rau,”BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution in 1946. On 29th August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed with Dr. BR Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members. They were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, KM Munshi, AK Iyer, NG Ayengar, BL Mitter, Md. Saadullah and DP Khaitari.”
80,Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by,”(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 317”,(b) The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safe guards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.
80,b,Article 311,”The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus protects and safeguards the rights of civil servants in Government Services against arbitrary dismissal, removal and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently and effectively.”
81,A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is,”(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition”,(b) The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
81,b,Habeas Corpus,”The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution Under Article 32. There are five types of writs-Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Habeas Corpus writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.”
82,Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?,”(a) Constitutional Amendment (b) CAG Report (c) Annual Financial Statement (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any state”,(
A Bill to alter the boundaries of any State (option 4) can also be introduced in the Rajya Sabha because it is a legislative proposal to modify the boundaries of a state. However, the Annual Financial Statement (option 3) cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha.
83,The National Commission for Women was created by,”(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India (b) a decision of the Union Cabinet (c) an Act passed by the Parliament (d) an order of the President of India”,(c) The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
83,c,an Act passed by the Parliament,”The National Commission for women was set up as statutory body in January, 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, Passed by the Parliament in 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Government of India) to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.”
84,Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?,”(a) M Hidayatullah (b) A S Anand (c) A M Ahmadi (d) P N Bhagwati”,(d) PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, alongwith Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.
84,d,P N Bhagwati,”PIL is directly filed by an individual or group of people in the Supreme Court and High courts and Judicial member. India had to wait till 1986 when the then Chief Justice PN Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to the Indian Judicial system. He is therefore held, along with Justice VR Krishna Iyer, to have pioneered judicial activism in the country.”
85,Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen (b) The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India (c) It is not enforceable by any Court (d) It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country”,(
A
86,Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?,”(a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the states concerning the exercise of their powers. (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments. (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.”,(d) The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.
86,d,If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.,”The executive powers of state are vested with Governor. Unlike President of India, Governor has no such power to declare emergency in the state except under Article 356 that empowers a Governor to report the President about the failure of government in his state, thus to take over the administration of that particular state. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part is threatened, President may declare a state of emergency. During the period of such proclamation, the executive authority of the union extends to the giving of directions to nay state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.”
- Which of the following statement(s) about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct? 1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials. 3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India. 4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed without any modifications.,(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
87,c,1 and 3,”The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon, aiming to abolish racial prejudice from the Indian Penal Code. It proposed to allow Indian judges and magistrates the jurisdiction to try British offenders in criminal cases at the District level. This proposal led to intense opposition from Britain’s European subjects in India, as well as from British residents in India. Although initially withdrawn due to opposition, it was later reintroduced and enacted in 1884 with several amendments. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
- Consider the following statements about the Second Five-Year Plan : 1. It was drafted under the leadership of KN Raj. 2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector. 3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult. 4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy.,(a) Only 1 (b 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
88,c,2 and 3,”The Second Five-Year Plan was drafted under the leadership of PC Mahalanobis, not KN Raj. It focused on heavy industries and followed a socialist pattern of society. While it proposed the development of industries like electricity, railways, steel, machinery, and communication in the public sector, it faced difficulties in balancing industry and agriculture, which made it challenging. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thus, options (c) is correct.”
- To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should 1. have a functional toilet at home 2. have payment slips of power bills 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
89,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, barred several categories of people from contesting Panchayat elections. These included those charged in criminal cases with certain punishments, defaulters on agriculture loans and electricity bills, and those without the minimum educational qualification or a functional toilet at home. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting : 1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The Eleventh Finance Commission 3. Punchhi Commission 4. Sarkaria Commission, (a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
90,a,4, 2, 1, 3,”The chronological order of the mentioned Commissions is as follows: 1. Sarkaria Commission (June 1983) 2. Eleventh Finance Commission (3rd July 1998) 3. Second Administrative Reforms Commission (5th August 2005) 4. Punchhi Commission (April 2007) Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct? 1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. 2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. 3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. 4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
91,c,1, 2 and 4,”In India, all seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from territorial constituencies within the Panchayat area. The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. However, Panchayats do not work on the principle of constitutional autonomy. The State Legislature may endow them with powers and authority necessary for their functioning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
- Which of the following statement(s) regarding Indian federal system is/are correct? 1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries. 3. There is no dual citizenship in India.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
92,b,2 and 3,”In the Indian federal system, all States do not have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Representation is based on population, with each state having varying numbers of representatives. Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries, and there is no provision for dual citizenship in India; there is only Indian citizenship. Hence, options (b) is correct.”
- Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India? 1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more states. 2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts. 3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. 4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
93,a,1, 2, 3 and 4,”The Supreme Court of India has various powers, including original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, hearing appeals from High Courts, and passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it. It does not, however, render advice to the President of India in matters of law. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focused on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness? 1. Poverty 2. Group inequality 3. Regional imbalance 4. Unemployment,(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
94,a,1, 3 and 4,”The Twelfth Five-Year Plan in India focused on inclusive growth, aiming for sustainable development and equitable distribution of wealth. Challenges for inclusiveness included poverty, regional imbalance, and unemployment. Group inequality was not specifically mentioned as a challenge for inclusiveness. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan. 2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general. 3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years. 4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
95,c,1, 2 and 4,”The Saakshar Bharat scheme, launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan, aimed to raise literacy rates and bridge gender gaps in education. It specifically targeted women and disadvantaged groups and was anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government. However, the scheme applied to persons above the age of 15, not 10. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (c) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct? 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him. 3. The Supreme Command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
96,a,1, 2 and 3,”The President of India holds various powers under the Constitution. The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to them. Additionally, the President has supreme command over the defense forces of the Union. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
- Which of the following statements regarding Article-21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period. 2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right. 3. Under Article-21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
97,b,1 and 2,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. It is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained indefinitely, and it asserts that not even the State has the authority to violate this right. However, the right to make reproductive choices is considered a dimension of personal liberty under Article 21. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, option (b) is correct.”
- Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India? 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years. 2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure. 3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
98,a,1, 2 and 3,”The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. It mandates qualified teachers and basic infrastructure in schools and advocates for quality education without discrimination. Hence, all statements are correct. Thus, option (a) is correct.”
- Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct? (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities (b) Every religion or any section there of shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property (c) Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes (d) Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, (a) (b) (c) (d)
99,a,(a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities,”Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is not limited to some minor communities; it applies to all religious denominations. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
- Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article-22 is not correct? (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest. (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice. (c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest. (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order., (a) (b) (c) (d)
100,c,(c) Every person, who is arrested and detained in custody, shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.,”Article 22 of the Indian Constitution states that every person arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, not one week. Hence, option (c) is not correct.”
- Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration? (a) Copyright (b) Patent (c) Industrial design (d) Trademark, (a) (b) (c) (d)
101,a,(a) Copyright,”Copyright is automatically protected upon the creation of a work and does not require registration for protection. While registration provides additional benefits, such as prima facie evidence in court, it is not necessary for copyright protection to exist. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
102,The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of,(a) non-discrimination between nations (b) discrimination between nations (c) differential treatment between locals and foreigners (d) uniform tariff across commodities
102,a,(a) non-discrimination between nations,”The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under the WTO regime is based on the principle of non-discrimination between nations. It ensures that countries treat their trading partners equally and do not discriminate in granting trade advantages. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
103,The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following?,(a) Captain of the Indian Army (b) Group Captain in the Indian Airforce (c) Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army (d) Wing Commander of the Indian Airforce
103,b,(b) Group Captain in the Indian Airforce,”In the Indian Navy, the rank of Captain is equivalent to the rank of Group Captain in the Indian Air Force. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
104,Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Airforce?,(a) It has bases in many friendly countries. (b) It does not carry out joint exercises with any country. (c) It has a separate Maintenance Command. (d) No officer has ever been elevated to the rank Marshal of the Indian Airforce.
104,c,(c) It has a separate Maintenance Command.,”The Indian Air Force has a separate Maintenance Command, which is responsible for maintenance and upkeep of aircraft and equipment. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
105,Statement I The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate. Statement II Dr. BR Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked. Codes (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I (b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.,(c)
105,c,(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false,”The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the Scheduled Castes to be elected by a joint electorate, not separate. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar did not withdraw from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was revoked. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
106,Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct?,(a) The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with MC Rajah as its first elected President. (b) The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. BR Ambedkar in 1926. (c) Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930. (d) The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for separate electorate for the depressed classes.,(c)
D
107,Which one of the following statements about the Justice Party is not correct?,(a) It clamoured for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non-Brahmins as had been granted to the Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms. (b) It was patronised mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins. (c) It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. (d) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.,(d)
107,d,(d) It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920.,”The Justice Party did not support the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
108,Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?,(a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve its language, script or culture. (b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language. (c) The State shall, in granting aid educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community. (d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.,(c)
108,c,(c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community.,”The State shall not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
109,Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?,(a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court. (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country. (c) It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws. (d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.,(d)
109,d,(d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.,”The Directive Principles of State Policy are not directed towards making India an advanced capitalist country. They aim to establish social and economic democracy. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
110,Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice-President of India?,(a) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament. (b) The Vice-President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. (c) The Vice-President shall not be a member of either house of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State. (d) The Vice-President of India shall be ex-officio chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit.,(a)
110,a,(a) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament.,”The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament, including both elected and nominated members. Hence, option (a) is not correct.”
111,Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice-President of India?,(a) The Supreme Court of India (b) The Election Commission of India (c) The Parliamentary Committee (d) The High Court of Delhi,(a)
111,a,(a) The Supreme Court of India,”In case of doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President and Vice-President of India, the Supreme Court of India is the constitutional authority that inquires and decides. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
112,The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to 1. the power of judicial review. 2. the judgement in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). 3. the constraints on Article-368 of the Constitution of India. 4. the judgement in Golaknath case (1967). Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?,(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these,(a)
112,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,”The basic structure doctrine, as enunciated by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), relates to the power of judicial review, constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution, and the idea that certain basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
113,Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? 1. Article-19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article-21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article-15 (Prohibition of discrimination) 4. Article-16 (Equality of opportunity) Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4,(c)
113,c,(c) 1, 3 and 4,”Fundamental rights enshrined in Articles 15, 16, and 19 of the Constitution of India apply only to citizens, not to all individuals. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
114,A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1. renounces Indian citizenship. 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. 3. marries a citizen of another country. 4. criticises the government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4,(c)
114,c,(c) 1 and 2,”Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, a citizen of India can lose their citizenship if they renounce Indian citizenship or voluntarily acquire the citizenship of another country. Marrying a citizen of another country does not automatically result in loss of Indian citizenship. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
115,Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?,(a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused (b) The accused must have violated an existing law (c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again (d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence,(a)
115,a,(a) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused,”Confessions can be used as evidence against the accused under certain conditions. Hence, option (a) is not correct.”
116,Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article-32 of the Constitution of India?,(a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights (b) It is a part of fundamental rights (c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article-32 on the ground of delay (d) Protection under Article-32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights,(d)
116,d,(d) Protection under Article-32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights,”Protection under Article 32 applies only to the enforcement of fundamental rights, not ordinary laws. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.”
117,Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?,(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto,(a)
117,a,(a) Habeas Corpus,”The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
118,According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?,(a) To respect the National Flag (b) To defend the country (c) To provide education to one’s child (d) To promote village and cottage industries DPSP,(d)
118,d,(d) To promote village and cottage industries DPSP,”Promotion of village and cottage industries is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not a Fundamental Duty. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
119,Under Article-352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared, if security of any part of India is threatened by 1. war 2. external aggression 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2,(a)
119,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,”Under Article-352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if the security of any part of India is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
120,Which one of the following statements is not true of the protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?,(a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence (b) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation (c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship (d) The Act includes not just wives, but also women in marriage-like relationships,(b)
120,b,(b) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation,”Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, both women and men can file complaints. Hence, option (b) is not true.”
121,Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?,(a) The Chief of Army Staff (b) The Chief of Naval Staff (c) The Chief of Air Staff (d) The member who has been longest on the Committee,(c)
121,c,(c) The Chief of Air Staff,”The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee is the Chief of Air Staff. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
122,Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is,(a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army (b) a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles (c) the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir (d) a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs,(a)
122,a,(a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army,”The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
123,Which one of the following is correct?,(a) Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment (b) Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers (c) Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps (d) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence,(a)
123,a,(a) The Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment,”The Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanised Infantry Regiment of the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
124,Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of the Indian Army?,(a) South-Western Command (b) North-Eastern Command (c) Central Command (d) Army Training Command (ARTRAC),(b)
124,b,(b) North-Eastern Command,”The North-Eastern Command is not one of the commands of the Indian Army. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
125,Which one of the following statements is correct?,(a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished (b) The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal (c) All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the Indian Navy (d) The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General,(a)
125,a,(a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished,”The rank of Second Lieutenant is no longer in use in the Indian Army. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
126,Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile system?,(a) Akash (b) Trishul (c) Tatra (d) Astra,(c)
126,c,(c) Tatra,”Tatra is not an Air Defence Missile system; it is a Czech manufacturer producing vehicles. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
127,The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of,(a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve (b) 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve (c) 20 aircrafts with no reserve (d) 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve,(a)
127,a,(a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve,”The first Tejas squadron of the Indian Air Force consists of 20 aircraft with 4 in reserve. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
128,Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India? 1. Article-17 of the Constitution of India. 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. 3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these,(d)
128,d,(d) All of these,”Article-17 of the Constitution of India, The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, and The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
129,Which one of the following is not the powers of the Supreme Court?,(a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes (b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India (c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order (d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people,(d)
129,d,(d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people,”The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto, to protect the fundamental rights of the people. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
130,The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?,(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram (c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura (d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh,(a)
130,a,(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram,”The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
131,Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?,(a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 (b) The acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution (c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure (d) The appropriate legislature can repeal or amend an act specified in the Ninth Schedule,(b)
131,b,(b) The acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution,”The Ninth Schedule provides immunity to acts and regulations included in it from judicial review. Hence, option (b) is not correct.”
132,Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct? 1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced. 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India. 4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 4,(a)
132,a,(a) Only 3,”The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are not made by the Election Commission of India but by a Delimitation Commission. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.”
133,Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?,(a) The Union and every State Government shall consult the commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes (b) All the reports of the commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha (c) The commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court (d) The commission has the power to regulate its own procedures,(b)
133,b,(b) All the reports of the commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha,”The reports and recommendations of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are laid before both Houses of Parliament. Hence, option (b) is not correct.”
134,The right to form associations and unions is a right,(a) guaranteed to everybody (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only (c) to equality before law (d) to life and personal liberty,(b)
134,b,(b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only,”The right to form associations and unions is a freedom guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution of India. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
135,Some Indian territories were transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh by following which procedure? (a) By an agreement between the Government of India and the Government of Bangladesh (b) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India (c) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament (d) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament and ratification by 16 State Legislatures,(c)
135,c,(c) By amending First Schedule to the Constitution of India by exercising amending power of the Parliament,”The territories were transferred to Bangladesh by amending the First Schedule to the Constitution of India through the exercise of amending power by Parliament. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
136,Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article-395 of the Constitution of India? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 4. The Government of India Act, 1919 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these,(a)
136,a,(a) 1 and 2,”Article-395 of the Constitution of India repealed the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
137,On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect? 1. Citizenship 2. Elections 3. Provisional Parliament 4. Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2,(b)
137,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,”On 26th November 1949, the provisions relating to citizenship, elections, and the provisional Parliament came into effect. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
138,Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct? 1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. 3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation. 4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3,(d)
138,d,(d) 1 and 3,”The Constituent Assembly was indirectly elected, and the scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Mission, not the Mountbatten Plan. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
139,Which of the following is/are constitutional body/bodies? 1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 2. National Commission for Women 3. National Commission for Minorities 4. National Human Rights Commission Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,(a)
139,a,(a) Only 1,”National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body. The other bodies mentioned are statutory bodies. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
140,Consider the following statements 1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,(d)
140,d,(d) Neither 1 nor 2,”The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The President does not have the power to appoint or remove the Speaker. The Speaker can delegate functions to the Deputy Speaker during absence or illness. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
141,The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with,(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System (c) creating an ombudsman mechanism for reduction of corruption in public life (d) devising new measures for urban governance and management
141,a,(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance,”The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was tasked with suggesting reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
142,As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order 1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority. 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try. 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
142,a,(a) 1 and 2,”The Writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
143,Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence? 1. Morarji Desai 2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh 3. HD Deve Gowda 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
143,a,(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4,”Morarji Desai, Vishwanath Pratap Singh, HD Deve Gowda, and Atal Bihari Vajpayee were all Prime Ministers of India who faced a vote of No Confidence. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
144,Which of the following statement(s) regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct? 1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250. 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories. 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
144,a,(a) 1 and 2,”The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
145,Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct? 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases. 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session. 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency. 4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
145,b,(b) 1 and 4,”The President has the power to grant pardon and to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community. The President cannot dissolve the Rajya Sabha during an emergency. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
146,Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article-44 of the Constitution of India. 2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court. 3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set-up under the Constitution of India in 1950. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
146,a,(a) 1, 2 and 3,”Article 44 of the Constitution of India sets forth the ideal of a common civil code. The High Courts have been given extensive powers in certain respects, and the Supreme Court of India was established in 1950 under the Constitution. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
147,Which of the following statement(s) about Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is/are correct? 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years term. 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. 4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
147,a,(a) 1, 2 and 4,”The CAG holds office for a period of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India. The CAG can be removed by the President on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
148,In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down? (a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980) (b) Gopalanachari Vs State of Kerala (1980) (c) Dr. Upendra Baxi Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1983) (d) Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979)
148,a,(a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980),”The ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down in the Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab case in 1980. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
149,Consider the following statements about the President of India: 1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. 2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
149,d,(d) 1, 2 and 3,”All three statements are correct regarding the President’s powers and interactions with the Council of Ministers. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
150,In which one of the following cases, the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India? (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum (b) Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India (c) Mary Roy Vs State of Kerala (d) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India
150,b,(b) Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India,”The constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India in the case of Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
151,Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is/are correct? 1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in Clauses (4) and (5) of Article-22 of Constitution of India. 2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed. 3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the Magistrate. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
151,b,(b) Only 2,”In India, the detenue has the right to challenge the detention order on specific grounds, such as being already in jail when the detention order was passed. Hence, only statement 2 is true.”
152,A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the member (a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected (b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House (c) joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate (d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party
152,b,(b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House,”A Member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if expelled by the political party from which they were elected. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985) provided for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. The grounds of disqualification are:
A) if an elected member voluntarily give up his membership
B) if he votes or abstains from voting without the permission of the party
C) when an independent member joins a political party
D) when a nominated member of a house joins a political party after six months from the date on which he takes his seat.
153,Which one of the following languages is not recognised in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India? (a) English (b) Sanskrit (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
153,a,(a) English,”English is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
154,The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year (a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2003
154,d,(d) 2003,”The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year 2003. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
155,The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005 (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
155,a,(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002,”The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
156,Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article 343 of the Constitution of India? 1. Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the national language of the Union. 2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. 3. English language shall continue to be used for official purposes within states. 4. If two or more states agree, Hindi language should be the official language of communication between the states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
156,a,(a) 1, 3 and 4,”Article 343 of the Constitution of India establishes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union, but it does not declare it as the national language. English continues to be used for official purposes within states, and the use of Hindi as the official language of communication between states is subject to agreement. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are not central features of Article 343. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
157,After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is (a) elected by the Lok Sabha (b) appointed by the President of India (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (d) the seniormost member of the Lok Sabha
157,b,(b) appointed by the President of India,”After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is appointed by the President of India. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
158,Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (Leader) List ll (Party) A. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 1. Communist Party of India B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party Codes A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
158,a,(a) 2 3 1 4,”The correct matching of leaders with their parties is: A - Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Bharatiya Jana Sangh, B - Minoo Masani - Swatantra Party, C - SA Dange - Communist Party of India, D - Ashok Mehta - Praja Socialist Party. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
159,Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion. 2. Gives official status to certain religions. 3. Provides freedom to profess any religion. 4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
159,d,(d) Only 2,”The Constitution of India does not give official status to any religion. Instead, it prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, provides freedom to profess any religion, and ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities. Therefore, only statement 2 is not a central tenet of the Constitution. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
160,Who is the current Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog? (a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Arvind Panagariya (c) Bibek Debroy (d) VK Saraswat
160,b,(b) Arvind Panagariya,”Arvind Panagariya served as the first Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
161,Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to 1. public order, morality and health. 2. a law providing for social welfare and reform. 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus. 4. defamation or incitement to an offence. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
161,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,”Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to public order, morality, and health, a law providing for social welfare and reform, and opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
162,Which of the following Fundamental Right(s) is/are available to non-citizens? 1. Equality Before Law 2. Right Against Discrimination 3. Equality of Opportunity 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
162,b,(b) 1 and 4,”Non-citizens in India have the Fundamental Rights of Equality Before Law (Article 14) and Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21). Hence, option (b) is correct.”
163,Which of the following statement(s) about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct? 1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the basis of the Provincial Elections of 1946. 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the princely states. 3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public. 4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
163,a,(a) Only 1,”The members of the Constituent Assembly were indeed chosen on the basis of the Provincial Elections of 1946. However, the Constituent Assembly did include representatives of the princely states. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were influenced by opinions expressed by the public, and submissions were solicited from the public to create a sense of collective participation. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
164,Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India? 1. The Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947. 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949. 4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
164,d,(d) 1, 2 and 4,”The Constitution of India repealed the Government of India Act, 1935, and the Indian Independence Act, 1947. Additionally, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was also repealed. Therefore, all the laws mentioned in the options have been repealed by the Constitution of India. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
165,A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be issued 1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in contravention of the procedure established by law. 2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a criminal charge. 3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of court or the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2
165,c,(c) Only 1,”The writ of Habeas Corpus is not issued where the detention is lawful, where the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, or where the detention is under an order of a competent court. Hence, only statement 1 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is correct.”
166,Which one of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015? (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the Overseas Citizens of India cardholders (b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India (c) The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at par with the Overseas Citizens of India (d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to life long visa to visit India
166,b,(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India,”The Amendment in 2015 did not grant voting rights to Non-Resident Indians. Therefore, option (b) is not correct.”
167,Which one of the following statements about electoral government in India is not correct? (a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections are vested in the Election Commission of India (b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency (c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies (d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinise the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies
167,d,(d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinise the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies,”The Supreme Court of India does not have the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies. Therefore, option (d) is not correct.”
168,The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are developed jointly with 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited. 2. Bharat Electronics Limited. 3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited. 4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
168,b,(b) 2 and 3,”The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are developed jointly by Bharat Electronics Limited and Electronics Corporation of India Limited. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited are not involved in the development of EVMs. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
169,The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to 1. implementation of Directive Principles. 2. Fundamental Duties. 3. Right to Equality. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
169,c,(c) Only 1,”Freedom of thought and expression is subject to the implementation of Directive Principles, which includes ensuring the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, public order, and other interests. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
170,Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual peace’? (a) Republican constitutionalism (b) Federal contract among states to abolish war (c) World government (d) Transformation of individual consciousness
170,d,(d) Transformation of individual consciousness,”Immanuel Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual peace’ includes Republican constitutionalism, federal contract among states to abolish war, and world government. However, it does not include the transformation of individual consciousness. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
171,Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament to make new states is not correct? (a) The Parliament may by law form a new state and alter the boundaries or names of existing states (b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except on the recommendation of the President (c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the legislature of the affected state (d) Such a law will fall under the Provision of Article 368
171,d,(d) Such a law will fall under the Provision of Article 368,”The process of Parliament to make new states falls under Article 3 of the Constitution and not Article 368. Therefore, option (d) is not correct.”
172,Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. 2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
172,c,(c) Both 1 and 2,”Both statements are correct. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state are not considered citizens of India, and the Parliament has the power to make provisions with respect to citizenship. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
173,The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to 1. an enemy alien. 2. a person detained under a preventive detention law. 3. a foreigner. 4. an overseas citizen of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
173,a,(a) 1 and 2,”Article 22 of the Constitution of India does not provide protection against arrest and detention to an enemy alien or a person detained under a preventive detention law. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
174,In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article-13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights? (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case (b) Golaknath Case (c) Minerva Mills Case (d) Maneka Gandhi Case
174,b,(b) Golaknath Case,”In the Golaknath case, the Supreme Court ruled that Constitutional Amendments were also laws under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights.”
175,Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in 1951. 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review. 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. 4. The laws in the 9th Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3
175,a,(a) 1 and 2,”The 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India was indeed inserted by the First Amendment in 1951. It includes laws that were initially beyond the purview of judicial review, although this was changed later. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
176,Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned? (a) Members of the armed forces (b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communications systems set-up in the country (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set-up for maintenance of public order
176,a,(a) Members of the armed forces,”Members of the armed forces have certain restrictions on their Fundamental Rights, unlike members of other specified forces. Therefore, they are not treated at par in terms of the availability of Fundamental Rights. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
177,Which of the following is not true about the Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)? (a) It defines what constitutes discrimination against women and sets-up an agenda for national action (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the United Nations (c) It commits States to undertake measures to end discrimination in their legal system (d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice
177,d,(d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legally bound to put its provisions into practice,”India is a ratifying country of the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) and is legally bound to put its provisions into practice. Therefore, option (d) is not true about CEDAW.”
178,The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule? (a) Asom (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
178,b,(b) Manipur,”The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution covers the states of Asom, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, but not Manipur. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
179,Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (a) India does not have a Chief of Defence Staff (b) India does not have a Permanent Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chief of the Defence Staff (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who does not function as Chief of the Defense Staff
179,c,(c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who functions as Chief of the Defence Staff,”India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee, who does not function as Chief of Defence Staff. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
180,Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of (a) National Security Council Secretariat (b) Assam Rifles (c) Border Road Development Board (d) Border Road Organisation
180,d,(d) Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, information can be provided in respect of various organizations and departments. Among the options given, the correct answer is option ‘D’ - Border Road Organisation (BRO). Here’s an explanation of why the information can be provided under the RTI Act for BRO: 1. Background: The RTI Act, 2005 is an important legislation that empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities. It promotes transparency, accountability, and participation in governance. It applies to all central, state, and local government bodies, as well as private organizations that receive government funding or perform public functions. 2. Border Road Organisation (BRO): The Border Road Organisation (BRO) is a premier organization under the Ministry of Defence, responsible for the construction, maintenance, and upgradation of roads in border areas of India. It plays a crucial role in ensuring connectivity to remote regions, including those near the international borders. 3. Public Authority: The RTI Act defines a “public authority” as any authority or body that is established or constituted by or under the Constitution of India, by any law made by Parliament or the state legislature, or by a notification issued by the appropriate government. The BRO falls under the category of a public authority as it is established by the central government and operates under the Ministry of Defence. 4. Obligation to Provide Information: As a public authority, the BRO is obligated to provide information to citizens seeking it under the RTI Act. The Act allows citizens to seek information in the form of records, documents, memos, emails, opinions, advice, etc., held by a public authority. 5. Exceptions: While the RTI Act ensures the right to information, it also recognizes certain exemptions where information can be withheld. These exemptions include matters related to national security, defense, and strategic interests of the country. However, these exemptions are subject to a public interest test, and information can be disclosed if it outweighs the harm or injury caused to the protected interests. 6. National Security: Although the National Security Council Secretariat (option A) and Assam Rifles (option B) are also related to national security, it does not mean that information cannot be provided under the RTI Act for these organizations. The correct answer for this question is option D because the BRO is specifically mentioned as an organization for which information can be provided under the RTI Act. However, it is important to note that information related to national security may be subject to specific restrictions and scrutiny. In conclusion, under the RTI Act, 2005, information can be provided in respect of the Border Road Organisation (BRO) as it is a public authority established by the central government. While certain exemptions exist for matters related to national security, the Act ensures transparency and accountability in governance by allowing citizens to seek information from public authorities.
Read more at: https://edurev.in/question/2849178/Information-under-the-RTI-Act–2005-can-be-provided-in-respect-ofa-National-Security-Council-Secreta
181,Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee? (a) The President of India in his capacity as the Commander-in-Chief (b) The Prime Minister (c) The Defence Minister (d) The seniormost Chief of Staff
181,d,(d) The seniormost Chief of Staff,”The senior-most Chief of Staff acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. Therefore, option (d) is correct.”
182,Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a Court Martial (b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelled to do hard work as this would amount to violation of Article-23 of the Constitution of India (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers of the High Courts under Article-226 of the Constitution of India in relation to service matters of persons in the armed forces
182,b,(b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law,”The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, but the exercise of this command has to be regulated by law. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
183,Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the Panchsheel? (a) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity (b) Mutual non-aggression (c) Mutual support for each other in world forum (d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
183,c,(c) Mutual support for each other in world forum,”Mutual support for each other in world forum is not one of the laid down principles of the Panchsheel. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty,
Mutual non-aggression
Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs,
Equality and mutual benefit
Peaceful co-existence
184,Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The Central Government is empowered to issue a notification to specify any service in a state as a service of vital importance to the community (b) Such a notification remains valid for 6th months (c) Every command given by a superior officer casts a duty on all persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command when such a notification is in force (d) The provision of the Armed Forces (Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are applicable in connection with vital services imposed in a emergency on the armed forces
184,b,(b) Such a notification remains valid for 6 months,”Such a notification specifying a service as a service of vital importance to the community remains valid for 1 month in the first instance but may be extended from time-to-time by a hike notification. Hence, option (b) is not correct.”
185,Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? 1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons on India Origin (PIO), who are citizens of another country. 2. It gives Persons of Indian origin (PIO), who are citizens of another country, are OCI card without citizenship. 3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 4. It allows the OCI to travel to Indian without visa. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4
185,b,(b) 1 and 3,”The OCI does not grant dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO). Also, OCI holders are not permitted to vote in general elections in India. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are not true for OCI. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
186,Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct? 1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland. 2. A person taken into custody under the above Act must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest police station with least possible delay. 3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under the above Act only when the State Government is of the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous condition in the concerned area. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
186,c,(c) Only 3,”The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, can be applicable to various states and Union Territories, not just Manipur, Tripura, and Nagaland. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
187,The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the (a) President of India (b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet (c) Election Commission of India (d) Parliament
187,c,(c) Election Commission of India,”The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the Election Commission of India. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
188,A Parliamentary Democracy is one where 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place. 2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives. 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
188,b,(b) 2 and 3,”In a parliamentary democracy, the government is responsible to the elected representatives, and parliamentarians act on behalf of their constituents. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
189,When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in respect of which one of the following matters? (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance of order in the area where martial law in force (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial law was in force in the area (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law
189,d,(d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law,”Article 34 of the Indian Constitution provides that any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law. Hence, option (d) is correct.”
Alert - correct answer should be: When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make a law to validate any act done under martial law.
190,Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System? (a) Dual citizenship (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments (c) Supremacy of the Constitution (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
190,a,(a) Dual citizenship,”Dual citizenship is not found in the Indian Political System. India follows the concept of single citizenship. Hence, option (a) is correct.”
191,Which of the following is not true of Article-32 of the Indian Constitution? (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right (c) Dr Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian Constitution’ (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article-32 where a Fundamental Right has not been violated
191,a,(a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights,”Article 32 of the Indian Constitution indeed gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Therefore, option (a) is incorrect.”
192,Consider the following statements about local government in India : 1. Article-40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to make them function as units of self-government. 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part-IX and IX A in the Constitution. 3. The provisions in Part-IX and IX A of Indian Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous. 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all States irrespective of size of population. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
192,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,”All the statements are correct regarding local government in India. Article 40 of the Indian Constitution provides for the State to organize village panchayats, and the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part-IX and IX A in the Constitution, which are more or less parallel and analogous. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is indeed applicable to all States irrespective of the size of the population. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
193,Consider the following statements about State Election Commission : 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction and control of election to the panchayats. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
193,b,(b) 1 and 2,”The State Election Commissioner is indeed appointed by the Governor, and the State Election Commission does have the power to prepare electoral rolls, as well as the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to the panchayats. The Commissioner cannot be removed from office until he demits himself or completes his tenure. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
194,Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct? (a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States. (b) The organisation of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State. (c) Every State in India has separate High Court. (d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side.
194,c,(c) Every State in India has a separate High Court,”While the Indian judiciary indeed does not have a double system of courts like in the United States, it’s incorrect to say that every State in India has a separate High Court. For instance, the Guwahati High Court has jurisdiction over several states. Therefore, option (c) is incorrect.”
195,Consider the following statements about world’s first Modern Slavery Bill, published in June, 2014 by the British House of Commons : 1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the 21st century. 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for the most serious offenders up to 14 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
195,c,(c) Both 1 and 2,”Both statements are correct regarding the world’s first Modern Slavery Bill published by the British House of Commons in June 2014. It is indeed the first bill of its kind in Europe and one of the first globally, and it fixes the maximum sentence for serious offenders at 14 years to life imprisonment. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
196,Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are correct? 1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States. 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonisation would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations. 3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
196,c,(c) 1, 2 and 3,”All the statements are correct about the principles of Panchsheel. These principles govern relations between states, and they were indeed based on the assumption that newly independent states would develop a new approach to international relations. The first formal codification of these principles was in an agreement between China and India. Hence, option (c) is correct.”
197,Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required? (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of alternation of areas of existing states (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which states are interested
197,a,(a) For the introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters,”Recommendation of the President is not required for the introduction of Bills and moving amendments relating to financial matters. However, it’s required for other cases mentioned in options (b), (c), and (d). Hence, option (a) is correct.”
198,‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’. The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr BR Ambedkar (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) Acharya J B Kriplan
198,b,(b) Dr BR Ambedkar,”The passage is indeed from the Constituent Assembly debates and is attributed to Dr. BR Ambedkar. He emphasized the democratic nature of the Constitution and its machinery for the governance of the country. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
199,Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. 3. It is being notified by the President. 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
199,b,(b) 1, 2 and 3,”The Joint Session of the Parliament is indeed an enabling provision to resolve deadlock between the two Houses, and it’s not obligatory for the President to summon such a session. However, it’s not notified by the President, and it’s not frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha. Hence, option (b) is correct.”
