Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rubins Q&A > Ch 9 - Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Ch 9 - Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis characterized by?

A

fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and circulating atypical lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis caused by?

A

This systemic viral infection is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EBV

A

a herpesvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is EBV transmitted?

A

through respiratory droplets and saliva and binds to nasopharyngeal cells and B lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In developed countries, infectious mononucleosis commonly affects what aspect of the population?

A

teenagers and young adults and is often referred to as the “kissing disease.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does EBV activate T cells?

A

T cells proliferate in response to activated B lymphocytes and appear in the peripheral blood as atypical lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is commonly seen with EBV?

A

Anemia and thrombocytopenia are common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In underdeveloped countries, EBV infections are typically seen as what? And are associated with what?

A

Subclinical infections in childhood and are associated with an increased risk of Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the atypical lymphocytes seen circulating in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A

1) indirectly activated T cells 2) Although EBV infects B cells, the circulating atypical lymphocytes seen in patients with infectious mononucleosis are not immature B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the relationship between the spleen and infectious mononucleosis?

A

Splenomegaly often develops in patients with infectious mononucleosis due to lymphoid infiltration, hyperplasia, and edema. The enlarged spleen may rupture after minor trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Burkitt lymphoma and EBV

A

it is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection in certain parts of the world but is uncommon in North America.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

N. gonorrhoeae causes

A

an acute suppurative infection of the genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

N. gonorrhoeae presents as?

A

urethritis in men and endocervicitis in women. It is one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gonorrhea may involve

A

the throat, anus, rectum, epididymis, cervix, fallopian tubes, prostate gland, or joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Septic arthritis due to N. gonorrhoeae

A

a suppurative inflammation most commonly caused by hematogenous spread, is usually monoarticular, most commonly affecting hips and knees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Primary syphilis presents with what?

A

chancre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

represents systemic dissemination and proliferation of the spirochete, Treponema pallidum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This secondary syphilis stage is characterized pathologically by?

A

lesions in skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, meninges, stomach, and liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do the pathological lesions of secondary syphilis show?

A

a perivascular lymphocytic infiltration and endarteritis obliterans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In most cases of secondary syphilis when does the rash appear?

A

2 weeks to 3 months after the primary lesion (chancre) heals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Other lesions associated with secondary syphilis include

A

condylomata lata, follicular syphilis, and nummular syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chancre is a characteristic lesion of

A

primary syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dementia, Gummas, Tabes dorsalis are encountered in patients with

A

tertiary syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anthrax

A

is a necrotizing disease caused by B. anthracis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the clinical presentation of anthrax depend on?

A

the site of inoculation and includes “malignant” pustule, pulmonary anthrax, septicemic anthrax, and gastrointestinal anthrax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does B. anthracis typically produce?

A

extensive tissue necrosis at the site of infection, with a mild neutrophilic infiltration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Malignant pustule

A

is seen in over 95% of all cases of anthrax and represents the cutaneous form of this infectious disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The person infected with anthrax presents with?

A

an elevated cutaneous papulae that enlarges and erodes into an ulcer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In an anthrax infection what might local hemorrhagic pustules progress to?

A

Carbuncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do cutaneous lesions in an anthrax infection contain?

A

numerous organisms that release a potent necrotizing toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cholera is

A

a severe diarrheal illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cholera is caused by

A

the enterotoxin of Vibrio choleraE an anaerobic Gram-negative rod.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where does the organism Vibrio Cholerae proliferate and what does it cause?

A

in the lumen of the small intestine and causes profuse watery diarrhea and rapid dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What might happen if the symptoms of cholera are allowed to persist?

A

Shock and death can ensue within 24 hours from the onset of symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the toxin that is secreted by Vibrio Cholerae?

A

The AB toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does the AB toxin bind to?

A

Ganglioside GM1 on the intestinal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is stimulated when the AB toxin binds to ganglioside GM1?

A

Stimulates an increase in intracellular levels of cAMP – leading to water secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Vibrio Cholerae?

A

The AB toxin secreted by the organism binds to ganglioside GM1 on intestinal epithelial cells and stimulates an increase in intracellular levels of cAMP, thereby leading to water secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does the mucosa change upon exposure to Vibrio Cholerae?

A

The mucosa does not show significant pathologic changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (serotype 0157-H7)

A

may contaminate meat or milk, causes bloody diarrhea, which can be followed by the hemolytic-uremic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does E coli adhere to?

A

The organism adheres to the colonic mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does E coli releases?

A

an enterotoxin that destroys epithelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Patients with enterohemorrhagic E coli present with?

A

abdominal pain, lowgrade fever, and bloody diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

For E. Coli patients what does stool examination show?

A

leukocytes and erythrocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome is manifested by

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Under what conditions do Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella typhi, Shigella dysenteriae and Yersinia pestis present with hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Although they may be associated with bloody diarrhea, they do not present with hemolytic-uremic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in patients on antibiotic therapy (e.g., clindamycin or cephalosporins) who are hospitalized for more than 3 days?

A

C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

(pseudomembranous colitis) is a disease that may affect the colon in segments or in its entirety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In Necrotizing enterocolitis (pseudomembranous colitis) what happens to the mucosa?

A

The mucosa is covered by yellow-green, necrotic exudates (pseudomembranes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are food poisoning and necrotizing entercolitis are caused by?

A

the enterotoxins of C. perfringens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens about 48 hours after the ingestion of C. perfringens contaminated meal?

A

patients present with abdominal pain and distention, vomiting, and passage of bloody stools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most common cause of gas gangrene following wound infection or septic abortion?

A

C. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

C. tetani produces what?

A

a potent neurotoxin that causes tetany and generalized muscle spasms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Clostridium botulinum produces what?

A

a neurotoxin that causes paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lyme disease

A

is a chronic infection that begins with a characteristic skin lesion and later variably manifests cardiac, neurologic, and joint disturbances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the causative agent of lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

a large spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How is Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted?

A

from its animal reservoir to humans by the bite of the deer tick (Ixodes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where does B. burgdorferi reproduce?

A

at the site of inoculation, spreads to regional lymph nodes, and is eventually disseminated throughout the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Untreated Lyme disease

A

it is chronic, with periods of remission and exacerbation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Stage 1 Lyme disease characterized by?

A

erythema chronicum migrans, a skin lesion that appears at the site of the tick bite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does Stage 3 Lyme disease begin?

A

months to years after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Stage 2 Lyme disease characterized by?

A

features migratory musculoskeletal pain and the development of cardiac or neurologic abnormalities (meningitis and facial nerve palsy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does Stage 3 Lyme disease involve?

A

joint, skin, and neurologic abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to over half of the Stage 3 Lyme disease patients?

A

these patients develop a severe arthritis of the hips and knees, which is indistinguishable from the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Acute meningococcal meningitis

A

may develop rapidly and is often fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Meningococcal sepsis

A

it is marked by profound endotoxemic shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation, known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Waterhouse – Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Profound endotoxemic shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Airborne transmission of meningococcal meningitis?

A

in crowded places (e.g., schools or barracks) can cause “epidemic meningitis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are common symptoms for meningococcal meningitis?

A

Fever, malaise, petechial rash, and adrenal hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the four species of Plasmodium?

A

P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Can Haemophilus influenza, Klebsiella pneumonia, Streptococcus pneumonia, Treponema pallidumare cause meningitis?

A

Yes but they are not typically associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Malaria is

A

a mosquito-borne illness that infects over 200 million persons per year worldwide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

All of Plasmodium organisms infect what?

A

erythrocytes,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which plasmodium causes the most severe disease?

A

P. falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In “malignant” malaria caused by P. falciparum, what happens?

A

1) ischemic injury to the brain causes a range of symptoms, including somnolence, hallucinations, behavioral changes, seizures, and even coma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Why are the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes darkened in malignant malaria caused by P falciparum?

A

by macrophages that are filled with hemosiderin and malaria pigments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Naegleria fowleri

A

is associated with a fatal type of meningitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Schistosoma haematobium

A

is associated with bladder infections but does not cause the hematologic symptoms seen in this patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the most serious manifestation of Aspergillus infection and in what situations does this occur?

A

invasive aspergillosis, occurring almost exclusively as an opportunistic infection in persons with compromised immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does Aspergillus invade and what does it cause?

A

readily invades blood vessels and causes thrombosis and local infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

For Invasive aspergillosis what are found in the walls and lumens of pulmonary vessels?

A

Branching hyphae (visualized by silver stain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pneumocystis. jiroveci

A

1) (formerly P. carinii) was identified in malnourished infants at the end of World War II. 2) It causes progressive, often fatal pneumonia in persons with impaired cell-mediated immunity 3) is one of the most common opportunistic pathogens in persons wit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is P. jiroveci classified?

A

the organism is now classified with the fungi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How does the infection with P jiroveci begin?

A

with the attachment of trophozoites to the alveolar lining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In an infection with P jiroveci what happens after the attachment of trophozoites?

A

1) Trophozoites feed, enlarge, and transform into cysts within the host cells. 2) Eventually, the cysts burst, releasing new trophozoites. 3) Progressive consolidation of the lung ensues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

S. pneumonia (pneumococcus) causes what?

A

pyogenic infections involving the lungs (pneumonia), middle ear (otitis media), sinuses (sinusitis), and meninges (meningitis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is one of the most common causes of community-acquired pneumonia?

A

S. pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Consolidation of lung parenchyma typically produces what?

A

lobar pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the four stages of lobar pneumonia?

A

(1) congestion and edema, (2) red hepatization, (3) gray hepatization, and (4) resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

is a classic immune complex–mediated disease that is associated with nephritic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What happens during the acute phase of lobar pneumonia?

A

the alveoli are packed with neutrophils, fibrin, and debris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the Infection with two major nonsuppurative complications caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

namely rheumatic fever and acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

CMV infection

A

Cytomegalovirus induces interstitial pneumonia in infants and immunocompromised persons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

CMV infected alveolar cells show what?

A

cytomegaly and display a single, dark basophilic nuclear inclusion surrounded by a halo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

CMV in children

A

may be transmitted from mother to child in utero or acquired during delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CMV in adults

A

CMV is transmitted through sexual encounters, blood transfusions, transplantation, and even through the inhalation of infectious viral particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What symptoms in CMV predominate in symptomatic infants and children?

A

Central nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the symptoms for CMV in adults?

A

the virus produces mostly respiratory and gastrointestinal symptoms but does not cause encephalitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Herpes simplex virus

A

also features intranuclear inclusions (also surrounded by a clear halo) but does not cause chronic interstitial pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

A

is an RNA virus,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does RSV bronchiolitis or pneumonitis presents with?

A

expiratory and inspiratory wheezing, cough, and hyperexpansion of both lung fields.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

For RSV bronchiolitis or pneumonitis what are the expected findings on chest X-ray?

A

Hyperinflation, interstitial infiltrates, and segmented atelectasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What do you do for RSV?

A

The illness is usually self-limited and typically resolves within 1 to 2 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the RSV mortality in healthy babies?

A

Low mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Influenza A and B are

A

RNA viruses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Influenza infections are common when?

A

in the wintertime,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does the severity of the illness from influenza infections depend on?

A

on the immune status of the individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What do influenza A and B patients typically present with?

A

fever, tachypnea, conjunctivitis, and pharyngeal inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In severe cases, what happens in influenza A and B?

A

patients may develop extreme respiratory distress and prostration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Influenza affects what part of the population?

A

affects all segments of the population, but severe cases are more commonly seen among the very young and the elderly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Rhinovirus

A

is the most frequent cause of the “common cold.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Norwalk-like virus and rotavirus cause

A

diarrhea in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Infection with respiratory syncytial virus is commonly seen in?

A

children under 2 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Measles virus is

A

an RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What does measles virus cause?

A

an acute, highly contagious, self-limited illness that is characterized by upper respiratory tract symptoms, fever, and rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The measles virus is transmitted by?

A

in respiratory droplets and secretions, is primarily a disease of children, but its effects may be particularly severe in adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

For the measles virus what does the skin rash result from?

A

the reaction of T cells with infected cells of the vascular endothelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

“Koplik spots”

A

appear on the posterior buccal mucosa and consist of minute gray-white dots on an erythematous base for measles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Measles pneumonia

A

Although measles is usually a selflimited disease, measles pneumonia (particularly in adults) is a serious malady that may be fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Where is the rash for Epstein-Barr virus infection and mumps?

A

do not present with generalized rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the most common cause of severe diarrhea worldwide?

A

Rotavirus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The yeast, Candida albicans, usually cause?

A

localized infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Psittacosis

A

is a self-limited pneumonia transmitted to humans from birds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The etiologic agent, Chlamydia psittaci, is present in?

A

blood, feces, and feathers of infected birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The organism Chlamydia psittaci first infects what?

A

alveolar macrophages, which carry it to the liver and spleen, where it reproduces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What happens to the organism Chlamydia psittaci after it infects alveolar macrophages, which carry it to the liver and spleen, where it reproduces?

A

It is distributed hematogenously to produce a systemic infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Where does C. psittaci reproduce?

A

in alveolar lining cells,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What happens when C. psittaci reproduces in alveolar lining cells causing its destruction?

A

its destruction elicits an inflammatory response and interstitial pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Type II pneumocytes

A

they are hyperplastic and may show characteristic chlamydial cytoplasmic inclusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Clinically, what does Type II pneumocytes present with?

A

the disease presents with persistent dry cough, fever, headache, malaise, myalgias, and arthralgias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Measles virus and Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells?

A

fusion of infected cells, producing multinucleated cells termed “Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells

A

These multinucleated giant cells are pathognomonic of measles infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Cytomegalovirus-infected cells

A

are very large and contain nuclear and cytoplasmic viral inclusions, but they are not multinucleated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Adenovirus

A

also features intranuclear inclusions but not multinucleation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Mumps and rubella viruses induce

A

a mononuclear infiltrate composed of lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells (no giant cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Legionnaire disease

A

Legionella pneumophila causes a pneumonia that ranges from mild to a severe life threatening, necrotizing pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Where is Legionella pneumophila found?

A

in natural bodies of fresh water and survives chlorination, allowing it to proliferate in cooling towers, water heaters, humidifiers, and ventilation systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

When does Legionella pneumonia begin?

A

when microorganisms enter alveoli, where they are phagocytized by resident macrophages and bacteria multiply within macrophages and are released to infect new macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

The disease Legionella pneumonia presents as what?

A

an acute bronchopneumonia, with a diffuse and patchy pattern of infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Tuberculosis

A

is a chronic, communicable disease in which the lungs are the prime target.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Tuberculosis is caused principally by?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (Koch bacillus), but infection with other species occurs, notably M. tuberculosis bovis (bovine tuberculosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Primary tuberculosis consists of

A

lesions in the lower lobes and subpleural space, referred to as the Ghon focus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is Ghon focus?

A

lesions in the lower lobes and subpleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The infection in primary tuberculosis drains to what?

A

hilar lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is Ghon complex?

A

the combination of Ghon focus and hilar lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Noncaseating granulomas

A

are a feature of sarcoidosis, among other causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The typical lesion of tuberculosis is a

A

caseous granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is a caseous granuloma?

A

a soft core surrounded by epithelioid macrophages, Langhans giant cells, lymphocytes, and peripheral fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Environmental fungi, such as Rhizopus, Mucor, Rhizomucor, and Absidia species, can produce

A

necrotizing opportunistic infections that begin in the nasal sinuses or lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Mucor is

A

ubiquitous in the nasal sinuses and invades surrounding tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

With mucor what happens?

A

the hard palate or nasal cavity is typically covered by a black crust, and the underlying tissues become friable and hemorrhagic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

In mucor what is involved with the fungal hyphae?

A

They grow into arteries, causing devastating and rapidly progressive septic embolic infarctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the three principal forms of mucormycosis?

A

rhinocerebral, pulmonary, and subcutaneous.

156
Q

Pulmonary mucormycosis

A

is usually fatal.

157
Q

What does pulmonary mucormycosis show on microscopic examination?

A

shows a purulent arteritis with thrombi composed of hyphae

158
Q

In patients who present with a paranasal sinusitis unresponsive to antibiotic treatment particularly those who also have an underlying chronic disease (e.g., diabetes or leukemia) what should be suspected?

A

Mucormycosis should be suspected

159
Q

Unde what conditions would parainfluenza virus cause thrombosis or infarction?

A

They don’t cause it

160
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

noninvasive and causes interstitial pneumonitis

161
Q

H. influenzae

A

is a Gram-negative coccobacillus

162
Q

What is the leading cause of meningitis and epiglottitis in children worldwide?

A

H. influenza, a Gram-negative coccobacillus

163
Q

H. influenza infections may also involve

A

the middle ear, sinuses, facial skin, lungs, and joints.

164
Q

H. influenzae spreads

A

from person to person in respiratory droplets and secretions.

165
Q

H. influenza causing inflammation of the epiglottis, aryepiglottis sinus, and pyriform recess produces what?

A

significant airway obstruction, which can be fatal.

166
Q

Since the widespread use of the HiB vaccine in the United States what happened?

A

invasive disease due to H. influenzae type B in pediatric patients has been reduced by 80% to 90%.

167
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus, now represent a larger proportion of pediatric cases of what?

A

epiglottitis in the United States.

168
Q

The genus Candida

A

comprises over 20 species of fungi, which include the most common opportunistic pathogens.

169
Q

Many Candida species are

A

endogenous human flora.

170
Q

When the normal bacterial flora that limit fungal growth are suppressed what happens?

A

the yeast converts to an invasive form, eliciting an inflammatory reaction.

171
Q

What does thrush signify?

A

candidal infection of the tongue and mucous membranes of the mouth.

172
Q

What does thrush consist of?

A

friable, white, curd-like membranes adherent to the affected area.

173
Q

What does removal of the membrane involved in thrush?

A

leaves a painful bleeding surface.

174
Q

What conditions may predispose to the reemergence of endogenous microorganisms?

A

immunosuppressive states such as cancer, chemotherapy, immunosuppressive therapy, AIDS, and old age.

175
Q

What does secondary tuberculosis result from?

A

the proliferation of M. tuberculosis in a person who has been previously infected and has mounted an immunologic response.

176
Q

What is the source of infection for secondary tuberculosis?

A

It is usually dormant bacteria from old granulomas but may also represent a newly acquired infection.

177
Q

What are the most common sites of reinfection for secondary tuberculosis?

A

lung

178
Q

What does the bacilli elicit?

A

an acute inflammatory response that leads to extensive tissue necrosis and the production of tuberculous cavities.

179
Q

Clinically what do secondary tuberculosis patients present with?

A

cough, low-grade fever, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and night sweats

180
Q

What does parainfluenza virus cause?

A

acute upper and lower respiratory tract infections particularly in young children.

181
Q

What are the most common cause of laryngotracheobronchitis?

A

The RNA parainfluenza viruses referred to as “croup.”

182
Q

What is laryngotracheobronchitis characterized by?

A

a subglottic swelling and airway obstruction, which lead to acute respiratory distress.

183
Q

How does the parainfluenza virus spread?

A

The infection spreads from person to person through contaminated respiratory aerosols and secretions.

184
Q

The parainfluenza virus does what to the cells?

A

infects and kills ciliated respiratory epithelial cells and elicits an inflammatory response.

185
Q

What happens when laryngotracheitis occurs?

A

localized edema compresses the upper airway enough to obstruct breathing.

186
Q

What are the symptoms associated with croup?

A

They include fever, hoarseness, barking cough, and inspiratory stridor.

187
Q

Human parvovirus B19

A

is a DNA virus that causes systemic infections

188
Q

What is human parvovirus B19 characterized by?

A

rash, arthralgias, and a transient defect in erythropoiesis.

189
Q

How is human parvovirus B19 spread?

A

the virus is spread from person to person through respiratory secretions.

190
Q

Infections by parvovirus B19 are common in?

A

children.

191
Q

The parvovirus B19 is cytopathic for?

A

erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow.

192
Q

The nuclei of cells infected by parvovirus B19 are?

A

enlarged, and the chromatin is displaced to the periphery.

193
Q

What do most parvovirus B19 patients suffer from?

A

a mild exanthema known as erythema infectiosum.

194
Q

How does the parvovirus B19 relate to apalstic crisis?

A

in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia (e.g., sickle cell disease), this transient interruption in erythropoiesis causes a potentially fatal condition known as “aplastic crisis.”

195
Q

Tosoplasmosis and the CNS?

A

Infection of the central nervous system produces a necrotizing meningoencephalitis, which, in the most severe cases, results in destruction of brain parenchyma, cerebral calcification, and hydrocephalus.

196
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

is a worldwide disease caused by the protozoan T. gondii.

197
Q

Most toxoplasmosis infections are?

A

asymptomatic, but a devastating necrotizing disease may occur when they involve the fetus or an immunocompromised adult.

198
Q

Toxoplasmosis and eye infections?

A

Ocular infections cause chorioretinitis.

199
Q

Frequency of group B streptococci in neonates?

A

Several thousand neonatal infections with group B streptococci occur in the United States every year.

200
Q

What proportion of the neonates affected by group B streptococci die?

A

About 30% of infected infants die.

201
Q

Meningococci are

A

Gram-negative organisms.

202
Q

Endemic typhus is

A

a severe vasculitis transmitted by R. typhi through the bite of infected lice.

203
Q

What does the endemic typhus begin with?

A

localized infection of capillary endothelium, which progresses to systemic vasculitis.

204
Q

For endemic typhus where are mononuclear cell infiltrates found?

A

in multiple organs and are typically arranged in typhus nodules.

205
Q

Louse-borne typhus is characterized clinically by

A

fever, severe headache, and myalgias, followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the upper trunk and axillary folds, spreading centrifugally to the extremities.

206
Q

Chagas disease

A

is an insect-borne systemic infection in humans caused by the protozoan T. cruzi.(Trypanosoma cruzi)

207
Q

For Chagas, where does acute manifestations and the long-term sequelae of infection occur primarily?

A

in the heart and gastrointestinal tract.

208
Q

Where are chagas infections endemic in?

A

Central and South America,

209
Q

In Central and South America how is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?

A

they are transmitted by the Reduviid (“kissing”) bug, which hides within the cracks and straw roofs of older homes.

210
Q

How does Trypanosoma cruzi relate to myocarditis?

A

The parasite reproduces within the myocardium and causes myocarditis.

211
Q

Fungus balls

A

(aspergillomas) consist of rounded, lobulated masses of hyphae

212
Q

Aspergillosis occur in patients with what?

A

a previous history of cavitating pulmonary disease (e.g., pulmonary tuberculosis).

213
Q

Aspergillus

A

is a common environmental fungus that causes opportunistic infections in the lungs.

214
Q

What happens to inhaled Aspergillus spores?

A

they germinate in the warm humid atmosphere provided by cavitary lung lesions, filling them with masses of hyphae.

215
Q

At what point in the infection does the aspergillus invade the lung parenchyma?

A

The organisms generally do not invade the lung parenchyma.

216
Q

What are the there are three different types of pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

1) allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, 2) aspergillomas, 3) invasive aspergillosis.

217
Q

Candidiasis

A

Candida infections are not typically angioinvasive.

218
Q

E. histolytica

A

Entamoeba histolytica, resides in the colon of infected persons and is transmitted by fecaloral contact.

219
Q

How do the trophozoites of E. histolytica gain access to the liver?

A

They invade submucosal veins of the colon, enter the portal circulation, and gain access to the liver.

220
Q

For E. histolytica, what does the amebae do to the hepatocytes?

A

kill hepatocytes, producing a slowly expanding, necrotic cavity.

221
Q

Describe the abccess created by E. histolytica?

A

The abscess is filled with a dark brown material that resembles anchovy paste.

222
Q

What can happen with an amebic liver abscess?

A

can rupture and extend into the peritoneal cavity.

223
Q

Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is caused by

A

the ingestion of food contaminated with preformed, heat-stable enterotoxin B.

224
Q

Outbreaks of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning occur when?

A

When food handlers inoculate foods such as meat or dairy products (salad dressings, cream sauces, and custard-filled pastries) with contaminated wounds or infected nasal droplets.

225
Q

When does Staphylococcal food poisoning typically begin?

A

less than 6 hours after a meal.

226
Q

When do symptoms for Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning usually resolve?

A

Nausea and vomiting usually resolve within 12 hours. The other choices do not initiate rapid gastrointestinal symptoms.

227
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare. - M. avium and M. intracellulare

A

they are similar mycobacterial species that cause identical diseases

228
Q

How are M. avium and M. intracellulare classified?

A

together as M. avium-intracellulare complex (MAC).

229
Q

MAC in immunocompetent versus immunocomprimised individuals.

A

(M. avium and M. intracellulare) is a rare, granulomatous, pulmonary disease in immunocompetent persons, but it is a progressive systemic disorder in patients with AIDS.

230
Q

What proportion of all AIDS patients develop overt MAC infections?

A

One third of all AIDS patients

231
Q

In MAC (M. avium and M. intracellulare) what forms the lesions?

A

The proliferation of organisms and the recruitment of macrophages produce expanding lesions, ranging from epithelioid granulomas containing few organisms to loose aggregates with foamy macrophages.

232
Q

What are the symptoms associated with MAC?

A

resemble those of tuberculosis; however, progressive involvement of the small bowel produces malabsorption and diarrhea.

233
Q

Camplyobacter jejuni

A

produces a self-limited bacterial diarrhea.

234
Q

Cryptosporidium

A

is a protozoan that causes diarrhea in immunocompromised patients but is not associated with respiratory infections.

235
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causing Impetigo

A

patient represents a localized, intraepidermal infection with S. pyogenes.

236
Q

How does impetigo from S pyogenes spread?

A

by close contact and most commonly affects children.

237
Q

What is the relatioinship between S pyogenes resulting in impetigo and minor trauma?

A

It allows inoculation of the bacteria, forming an intraepithelial pustule that eventually ruptures and leaks a purulent exudate.

238
Q

S. pneumoniae is a major cause of what?

A

lobar pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis and meningitis.

239
Q

S. viridans

A

is a major cause of bacterial endocarditis.

240
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

produces a maculopapular rash of the palms and soles in secondary syphilis.

241
Q

Staphylococcus aureus. S. aureus is a

A

Gram-positive coccus

242
Q

What is the most common cause of suppurative infections involving the skin, joints, and bones?

A

S. aureus

243
Q

What is one of the most common causes of acute bacterial endocarditis?

A

S. aureus

244
Q

How does S. aureus relate to the heart?

A

this infection features colonization of heart valves or mural endocardium, leading to the formation of friable vegetations composed of thrombotic debris and microorganisms.

245
Q

Bacterial growth in the heart is often associated with what?

A

Destruction of the underlying valve tissue.

246
Q

What is one of the most common complications of IV drug abuse involving the heart?

A

Tricuspid insufficiency secondary to bacterial endocarditis

247
Q

For bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users what is the most common source for the bacteria?

A

in these patients the most common area is the skin.

248
Q

What proportion of bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users involves the tricuspid valve?

A

it is infected in half of the cases.

249
Q

Nontyphoidal species of Salmonella contaminate what?

A

a variety of foods, including poultry, eggs, meat, and dairy products.

250
Q

Salmonella infections are characterized clinically by?

A

diarrhea, which begins 12 to 24 hours after ingestion of the contaminated food.

251
Q

Salmonella food poisoning

A

it is self-limited, lasting from 1 to 3 days.

252
Q

What happens to Salmonella in the GI?

A

1) The bacteria proliferate in the small intestine and invade enterocytes, where they produce several toxins that contribute to the dysfunction of the intestinal epithelium. 2) The mucosal surface of the ileum and colon become acutely inflamed and occasio

253
Q

Does pathogenic Escherichia coli infect eggs?

A

does not typically infect eggs.

254
Q

Staphylococcus aureus characteristically causes what?

A

diarrhea 1 to 6 hours after ingestion.

255
Q

Granuloma inguinale

A

is a sexually transmitted, chronic, superficial ulceration of the genital, inguinal, and perianal region.

256
Q

What is Granuloma inguinale caused by?

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis, a small Gram-negative bacillus.

257
Q

What is the characteristic lesion for Granuloma inguinale?

A

is a beefy-red superficial ulcer.

258
Q

What is seen with Granuloma inguinale microscopically?

A

the dermis and subcutis are infiltrated by macrophages and plasma cells.

259
Q

What are seen in Granuloma inguinale Skin lesions?

A

show microorganisms, termed “Donovan bodies,” clustered within enlarged macrophages.

260
Q

Trichinosis is produced by what?

A

the roundworm Trichinella spiralis.

261
Q

After mating, the females for Trichinella spiralis do what?

A

they liberate larvae into the circulation.

262
Q

What happens to the larvae for Trichinella spiralis?

A

they can invade almost any tissue but survive only in skeletal muscle in an encapsulated form.

263
Q

Elevated serum levels of creatine kinase indicate

A

muscle cell necrosis.

264
Q

For Trichinella spiralis, Early muscle involvement elicits what?

A

an intense inflammatory infiltrate rich in eosinophils.

265
Q

Mycobacterium leprae.

A

Leprosy (Hansen disease) is caused by M. leprae and appears in two forms, namely tuberculoid and lepromatous.

266
Q

The tuberculoid type

A

occurs in patients who mount an immunologic response,

267
Q

The lepromatous form

A

are anergic.

268
Q

Lepromatous leprosy is

A

a chronic, slowly progressive, destructive process involving peripheral nerves, skin, and mucous membranes.

269
Q

Patients with lepromatous leprosy exhibit what?

A

multiple nodular lesions of the skin, eyes, testes, nerves, lymph nodes, and spleen. The skin infiltrates expand slowly to distort and disfigure the face, ears, and upper airways. There is also involvement of the eyes, eyebrows, eyelashes, nerves, and tes

270
Q

Cat-scratch disease is

A

(Bartonella henselae) a self-limited infection caused by B. henselae or (more rarely) B. quintana.

271
Q

These bacteria (B. henselae, B. quintana) are

A

small, Gram-negative rods that are difficult to culture but easily seen in a lymph node biopsy when stained with silver.

272
Q

How would you identify B. henselae, B. quintana?

A

They are difficult to culture but easily seen in a lymph node biopsy when stained with silver.

273
Q

Where does B. henselae multiply?

A

in the walls of small vessels and extracellular collagen fibers at the site of inoculation.

274
Q

To where are the organisms B. henselae, B. quintana carried?

A

to the lymph nodes, where they produce suppurative lymphadenitis.

275
Q

Pasteurella multocida

A

is associated with wound infection after animal bites.

276
Q

What happens to the lymph nodes in B. henselae, B. quintana?

A

they enlarge and drain through the skin.

277
Q

About half of B. henselae, B. quintana infected patients present with what?

A

systemic symptoms such as fever, malaise, rash, and erythema nodosum.

278
Q

Eikenella corrodens

A

produces wound infections after human bites.

279
Q

Hookworm

A

(Ancylostoma duodenale). Hookworms are intestinal nematodes that infect the small bowel.

280
Q

A. duodenale does what in the GI?

A

molts within the duodenum and attaches to the mucosa.

281
Q

What might happen with extensive infections of Ancylostoma duodenale?

A

particularly with A. duodenale, considerable blood loss results in iron-deficiency anemia.

282
Q

What does VZV initially infect?

A

Varicella-zoster virus initially infects cells of the respiratory tract or conjunctival epithelium

283
Q

What does VZV do after it initially infects the cells of the respiratory tract or the conjunctival epithelium?

A

then reproduces and spreads via the bloodstream and lymphatic system.

284
Q

What does first exposure to the VZV produce?

A

chickenpox,

285
Q

What is chickenpox?

A

an acute systemic illness whose dominant feature is a generalized vesicular skin eruption.

286
Q

Reactivation of latent VZV in adults causes what?

A

herpes zoster.

287
Q

Microscopically what is seen with VZV?

A

intraepithelial vesicles contain multinucleated giant cells and nuclear inclusions.

288
Q

Human herpesvirus-8

A

is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in patients with AIDS.

289
Q

Herpes simplex virus type 2.

A

Herpes simplex viruses are common human pathogens,

290
Q

What does herpes simplex virus most frequently produce?

A

recurrent painful vesicular eruptions of the skin and mucous membranes.

291
Q

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

A

is associated with a painful genital ulcer (chancroid).

292
Q

Human papillomavirus relates to

A

genital warts.

293
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

causes syphilis.

294
Q

Where does the latent form of herpes virus survive?

A

In the sacral ganglia

295
Q

Herpesvirus ascends from

A

genital lesions along sensory neurons and survives in a latent form in the sacral ganglia.

296
Q

Nonspecific stimuli (including sexual intercourse and menses) can do what to the herpes virus?

A

Reactivate the virus, which then descends along axons to the genital mucosa, causing recurrent blisters on the external and internal genitalia.

297
Q

Enterobius vermicularis

A

causes enterobiasis (“pinworm”) is an intestinal nematode

298
Q

Where is Enterobius vermicularis found?

A

is encountered worldwide but is more common in temperate zones.

299
Q

Who does Enterobius vermicularis affect?

A

Individuals can be infected at any age, but parasitism is more common in children.

300
Q

With Enterobius vermicularis what do most people complain of?

A

pruritus

301
Q

In Enterobius vermicularis infection what is pruitus caused by?

A

migrating worms.

302
Q

What are Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus? They are associated with?

A

They are hookworms associated with intestinal bleeding and iron-deficiency anemia.

303
Q

Schistosomiasis is caused by?

A

Schistosoma haematobium.

304
Q

What is the most important helminthic disease of humans?

A

Schistosomiasis

305
Q

What is Schistosomiasis characterized by?

A

intense inflammatory and immunologic responses that damage the liver, intestine, and urinary bladder.

306
Q

S. haematobium causes

A

urogenital infections and increases the risk for developing squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder.

307
Q

S. mansoni affects what?

A

the liver.

308
Q

Erysipelas

A

is an erythematous swelling of the skin caused chiefly by Streptococcus. Pyogenes infection.

309
Q

S. pyogenes, also known as

A

group A streptococcus,

310
Q

Is Streptococcus. pyogenes common?

A

it is one of the most frequent bacterial pathogens of humans

311
Q

What does Streptococcus. pyogenes produce?

A

various diseases ranging from acute self-limited pharyngitis to rheumatic fever. The rash usually begins on the face but can affect any part of the body.

312
Q

What is common in Streptococcus. pyogenes resulting in erysipelas?

A

Cutaneous microabscesses and foci of necrosis are common.

313
Q

Mycoplasma. Pneumonia

A

produces an acute self-limited lower respiratory tract infection, primarily in children and young adults.

314
Q

In whom do most infections of mycoplasma pneumonia occur?

A

in groups of persons living in close contact.

315
Q

What is walking pneumonia?

A

M. pneumoniae tends to be milder than other bacterial pneumonias

316
Q

What is usually seen with M. pneumoniae?

A

Fever usually persists for no more than 2 weeks, although a cough may linger for 6 weeks or more.

317
Q

For M. pneumoniae what is commonly seen on chest X-ray?

A

shows patchy consolidation of a single segment of a lower lung lobe.

318
Q

M. pneumoniae is responsible for what proportion of all pneumonias in developed countries?

A

about 20%

319
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans.

A

Cryptococcosis is a mycosis that primarily affects the meninges and lungs.

320
Q

How is C. neoformans unique?

A

Its unique among pathogenic fungi because it has a proteoglycan capsule, which is essential for pathogenicity.

321
Q

What is the main reservoir for C neoformans?

A

Main reservoir for this fungus is pigeon droppings.

322
Q

What does Cryptococcus neoformans appear as?

A

faintly stained, basophilic yeast with a clear, 3- to 5-μm thick mucinous capsule.

323
Q

Cryptococcus almost exclusively affects persons with what?

A

impaired cell-mediated immunity.

324
Q

For the following which stain with mucicarmine; Aspergillus flavus, Candida albicans, Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, Histoplasma capsulatum ?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

325
Q

Yellow fever is

A

an acute hemorrhagic fever, which is associated with hepatic necrosis and jaundice.

326
Q

What is yellow fever caused by?

A

a mosquito-borne flavivirus.

327
Q

How is yellow fever related to shock?

A

extensive injury to vascular endothelial cells may cause hemorrhage and shock.

328
Q

The flavivirus causing yellow fever has a tropism for?

A

liver cells, where it causes extensive hepatocellular injury.

329
Q

What is seen in the liver as a result of exposure to flavivirus causing yellow fever?

A

Councilman bodies (apoptotic bodies) and microvesicular fatty change are evident.

330
Q

What happens in severe cases of yellow fever?

A

the entire liver lobule may become necrotic.

331
Q

For Leishmaniasis what are Leishmaniae?

A

Protozoans

332
Q

How are Leishmaniae transmitted?

A

that are transmitted to humans through insect bites.

333
Q

What is the spectrum of clinical syndromes cuased by Leishmaniae?

A

ranging from indolent self-resolving cutaneous ulcers to fatal disseminated disease.

334
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by

A

the bite of phlebotomus sandflies, which acquire infections from feeding on infected animals.

335
Q

The infestation by Leishmaniae is primarily a disease of what population?

A

less developed countries, where over 20 million people are believed to be infected.

336
Q

What are the three distinct clinical entities for Leishmaniae?

A

(1) localized cutaneous leishmaniasis, (2) mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, and (3) visceral leishmaniasis.

337
Q

What do patients with visceral leishmaniasis suffer from?

A

persistent fever, progressive weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia. Light-skinned persons develop darkening of the skin.

338
Q

What happens if Leishmaniae is untreated?

A

the disease is fatal.

339
Q

Giardia lamblia – Giardiasis

A

is an infestation of the small intestine by the flagellated protozoan G. lamblia.

340
Q

How might Giardia lamblia be acquired?

A

from contaminated water or food

341
Q

What are the Giardia lamblia infection characterized by?

A

abdominal cramping and nonbloody diarrhea.

342
Q

When are the gastrointestinal symptoms for Giardia lamblia usually resolved?

A

in 1 to 4 weeks

343
Q

In Giardia lamblia, what might chronic giardiasis lead to?

A

malabsorption, weight loss, and growth retardation.

344
Q

In Giardia lamblia, form where are the organisms recovered?

A

from stool specimens, duodenal aspirates, or intestinal biopsies.

345
Q

Rhinovirus.

A

The common cold is an acute, self-limited disorder of the upper respiratory tract caused by infection with a variety of RNA viruses, including over 100 distinct rhinoviruses and several coronaviruses.

346
Q

What do rhinoviruses infect?

A

the nasal respiratory epithelial cells, causing edema and increased mucus production.

347
Q

Clinically, what is the common cold characterized by?

A

rhinorrhea, pharyngitis, cough, and lowgrade fever. Symptoms last about a week.

348
Q

Human Parvovirus B19 infections are characterized by?

A

rash, arthralgias, and transient interruption in erythropoiesis.

349
Q

HIV

A

is a lentivirus

350
Q

Human Parvovirus B19 - Human parvovirus B19 is

A

a DNA virus that causes systemic

351
Q

The Human Parvovirus B19 produces?

A

characteristic cytopathic effects in erythroid precursor cells.

352
Q

What happens to the cells infected with Human Parvovirus B19?

A

The nucleus of an affected cell is enlarged, and the chromatin is displaced peripherally by central, glassy, eosinophilic material.

353
Q

When the fetus is infected with parvovirus B19 what happens?

A

a transient cessation of erythrocyte production leads to severe anemia, hydrops fetalis, and often death in utero.

354
Q

hydrops fetalis is

A

is the most serious form of erythroblastosis fetalis (Fig. 6-43) in liveborn infants. It is characterized by severe edema due to congestive heart failure caused by severe anemia. Affected infants generally die unless adequate exchange transfusions with R

355
Q

TORCH syndrome

A

refers to a complex of similar signs and symptoms produced by fetal or neonatal infection with Toxoplasma (T), rubella (R), cytomegalovirus (C) and herpes simplex virus (H). In the acronym TORCH, the letter “O” represents “others”

356
Q

Campylobacter jejuni.

A

C. jejuni (Campylobacter enteritis) causes an acute, self-limited, infl ammatory diarrheal illness.

357
Q

Where is C. jejuni and how is it acquired?

A

The organism is distributed worldwide and is acquired through contaminated food or water.

358
Q

What does C. jejuni cause in children? In adults?

A

It is a major cause of childhood mortality in developing countries and is responsible for many cases of travelers’ diarrhea.

359
Q

C. jejuni causes what?

A

1) a superficial enterocolitis primarily involving the terminal ileum and colon. 2) Focal necrosis of the intestinal epithelium is accompanied by an acute inflammatory infiltrate.

360
Q

What happens in severe cases of C. Jejuni?

A

focal disease progresses to small ulcers and patchy inflamatory exudates (pseudomembranes).

361
Q

When do the symptoms for C. jejuni typically resolve?

A

in 5 to 7 days.

362
Q

What happens to a few C. jejuni patients?

A

they develop a severe, protracted illness resembling acute ulcerative colitis.

363
Q

Clostridium perfringens.

A

Gas gangrene (clostridial myonecrosis)

364
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A

(clostridial myonecrosis) is a necrotizing, gas-forming infection that begins in contaminated wounds and spreads rapidly to adjacent tissues.

365
Q

Can clostridial myonecrosis be fatal?

A

The disease can be fatal within hours of onset.

366
Q

Gas gangrene follows what?

A

the deposition of C. perfringens into tissues under anaerobic conditions.

367
Q

What are the conditions that allow for the deposition of C perfringens?

A

they occur in areas of extensive necrosis (e.g., severe trauma, wartime injuries, and septic abortions).

368
Q

Clostridial myonecrosis is rare when

A

the wound is subjected to prompt and thorough debridement of dead tissue.

369
Q

Damage to previously healthy muscle is mediated by a

A

myotoxin.

370
Q

C. botulinum

A

secretes a preformed neurotoxin.

371
Q

Cysticercosis.

A

1) Pigs acquire cysticerci by ingesting eggs of Taenia solium shed in human feces. 2) When humans accidentally ingest the eggs from human feces and become infected with cysticerci, the consequences may be catastrophic.

372
Q

What do the eggs from human feces of Taenia slium release?

A

Oncospheres

373
Q

What happens to the oncospheres from the eggs of Taenia silum from human feces?

A

It penetrates the wall of the gut, enter the bloodstream, lodge in tissues, and differentiate to cysticerci.

374
Q

What is the cysticercus?

A

it is a spherical milky white cyst of about 1 cm in diameter that contains fluid and an invaginated scolex (head of the worm). Viable cysts can be shelled out from the infected tissue.

375
Q

Multiple cysticerci in the brain

A

may impart a “Swiss cheese” appearance and manifest clinically as headaches and seizures.

376
Q

Which of the following infect the brain: Aspergillosis, Clonorchiasis, Cysticercosis, Fascioliasis Paragonimiasis?

A

Cysticercosis

377
Q

Is Aspergillosis of the brain common?

A

it is distinctly uncommon.

378
Q

What is the most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in the white population?

A

Cystic fibrosis

379
Q

What is cystic fibrosis characterized by?

A

(1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and the reproductive tract.

380
Q

What does cystic fibrosis result from?

A

abnormal electrolyte transport caused by impaired function of the chloride channel of epithelial cells.

381
Q

What are the pulmonary symptoms of CF?

A

they begin with cough, which eventually becomes productive of large amounts of tenacious and purulent sputum.

382
Q

What happens in the progression of CF?

A

Episodes of infectious bronchitis and bronchopneumonia become progressively more frequent, and eventually shortness of breath develops.

383
Q

What happens late in CF?

A

Respiratory failure and the cardiac complications of pulmonary hypertension (cor pulmonale) are late sequelae.

384
Q

What are the most common organisms that infect the respiratory tract in CF?

A

Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas species.

385
Q

As CF advances, what organism might be the only one cultured from the lung?

A

Pseudomonas where the recovery of Pseudomonas sp., particularly the mucoid variety, from the lungs of a child with chronic pulmonary disease is virtually diagnostic of CF.

Rubins Q&A (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions