ch2 pump & aerial Flashcards
(158 cards)
1
Q
Exemptions for emergency vehicles from driving regulations when responding to emergency are:
A
- speed limits
- direction of travel
- direction of turns
- parking statutes and ordinances
2
Q
If the DO is negligent in the operation of an emergency vehicle that crashes, who can be held responsible?
A
the DO and the jurisdiction represented.
3
Q
When can negligence be applied?
A
When the DO has been found guilty of a gross violation of standing laws, policies, or ordinances.
4
Q
What are examples of gross negligence and recklessness?
A
driving under the influence of alcohol
5
Q
If the driver is driving under the influence, who can be held responsible?
A
the DO and the officer can be implicated in a criminal or civil lawsuit
6
Q
What is one of the most common causes of DO injuries?
A
slips and falls when mounting and dismounting the apparatus.
7
Q
NFPA 1550 mandates that FF’s riding in an enclosed apparatus cab with seat-back protection must:
A
NOT wear a helmet
8
Q
If the apparatus is an open cab or open tiller, the FF MUST don what?
A
helmets
9
Q
NFPA 1550 states 3 exceptions to wearing seatbelts while an apparatus is in motion
A
- medical care
- tiller training
- hose loading
10
Q
When doing a hose loading operation, what are some guidelines to follow?
A
- at least 1 crew member should be assigned to safety observer. They must keep visual contact with the operation, as well as visual and voice communication with the DO
- Load hose in areas closed to other vehicle traffic
- DO should drive forward only, straddling or to one side of the hose at a speed NO GREATER than 5 mph
11
Q
FF’s must use hearing protection when encountering noises greater than :
A
90 decibels
12
Q
To maintain situational awareness on a scene, DO should ensure personnel:
A
- wear a high-visibility garment
- look before they move
- walk facing oncoming traffic
- follow dept. sops
13
Q
Common highway/roadway incident hazards include:
A
- distracted/impaired drivers
- debris
- fluid spills
- adverse road and weather conditions
- downed high-voltage power lines
- other hazards unique to the incident
14
Q
When there is damage to fuel tanks or lines, they can present significant fire danger. therefore, there should be:
A
FF tasked with standing by with a charged hoseline to protect the scene from a fuel spill fire wearing full PPE and SCBA
15
Q
Spills of hydraulic fluid and battery fluids can
A
cause toxic reactions, skin irritation, and burns
16
Q
What are some adverse road conditions
A
potholes, buckled roadway pavement, and debris
17
Q
Energized electrical wires in contact with the ground can
A
cause current to flow outward in all directions from the point of contact.
18
Q
The energized ground around a downed power line is called?
A
ground gradient
19
Q
How far can ground gradient travel?
A
can extend for several yards from the point of touching the ground
20
Q
Traffic control zone include
A
- advanced warning area- gives oncoming traffic a notice of traffic change ahead
- transition areas- allows oncoming traffic to merge away and later arriving units to slow upon arrival to merge toward incident
- activity area- areas up and downstream of incident a buffer space where emergency vehicles can position in a safety zone
- termination zone- downstream traffic to merge and return to normal flow/lanes
21
Q
To ensure responder and civilian safety, personnel should coordinate traffic management with
A
local law using the traffic incident management system (TIMS) guidelines
22
Q
an idle engine does what?
A
produces carbon more rapidly .
23
Q
Allowing a diesel engine to idle unnecessarily will:
A
waste fuel and may cause carbon build up in injectors, valves, and pistons, which may damage engine components and diesel emission controls
24
Q
If DOs need to idle longer, they should do what
A
engage the high idle setting.
25
Engines produced in or after _________ normally come equipped with a DPF that _________
2007
Traps diesel particulate matter, such as soot and ash, and prevents it from entering the atmosphere.
26
Starting in ______, apparatus equipped with _________ have reduced the emission of harmful ____________.
2010
Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR)
nitrogen oxides (NOx)
27
What is derating use in the derate feature?
the process of reducing engine torque output or limiting vehicle speed.
*Derate: to downgrade the power rating or measured capability of a device or apparatus.
28
An apparatus with a DPF should have:
a clean exhaust emissions and none of the black smoke.
29
If an apparatus is produced after ______ and produces excess soot in exhaust, this should be noted in operational checks
2007
30
If a DPF light is illuminated, what does it inform the DO?
that the engine requires a more challenging duty cycle (such as driving, pumping, or using the aerial device) or a complete manual (parked) regeneration.
31
If the DPF light illuminates and it is ignored, what will happen?
If DO delays addressing the issues, the light will begin to flash, indicating the need for regen is urgent.
32
If the DPF light continues to be ignored after the DPF light starts flashing, what will happen?
The need will address to a critical point, then the check engine light will illuminate.
When this appears, the park/manual regen needs to happen immediately to prevent engine damage
33
If the DPF light has been ignored to the point where the check engine light is on, but is not addressed, what will happen?
The stop engine light will illuminate and the engine may lose power.
34
An apparatus equipped with an SCR (selective Catalyst Reductant) will have a tank with:
a light blue cap that must be filled with DEF
35
What will happen if a truck runs out of DEF?
may derate the engine. The speed may reduce to 5 mph.
36
When can the DO see the location of indicators on the dash?
during gauge prove-out
37
Diesel emission systems typically have what indicators and switches?
1. DPF light- indicates soot has built up. Regen needed
2. DEF indicator- low DEF. Flashes when low
3. High exhaust system temp (HEST) indicator- lights up when exhaust is very hot, usually during regen
4. Manual (parked) regen switch- allows to manually initiate a regen
5. Regeneration inhibit switch- prevents the engine from starting regen. used if parked over dry grass or over other combustible materials, high exhaust present a fire risk.
38
The engine should never be shut down immediately after:
a full load operation or when the temp gauge indicated an overheated engine.
39
A hot engine should cool to normal operating temps before shutting down. How long should it idle?
3-5 mins
40
shutting down a hot engine without sufficient cool down time may result in:
1. immediate increase in engine temp from lack of coolant circulation
2. oil film burning on hot surface
3. damage to cylinder heads and exhaust manifolds
4. damage to the turbocharger that can result i engine seizure
41
shutting down the engine of a moving apparatus will:
cut off fuel flow from the injectors
42
How far behind the apparatus should a spotter stand?
8-10 ft behind and slightly to the left.
43
how many hand signals can the spotter use?
6
Our tapirs have 5
44
DO should follow these 6 guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:
1. Aim high in steering- find a safe path well ahead
2. Get the big picture- stay back, watch the reaction of other motorist
3. Keep your eyes moving- scan the area; do not stare at one view
4. Leave yourself an "out"- visualize an escape route to avoid collision. prepare for the unexpected
5. Maintain a safe distance from the vehicle ahead-
6. make sure others can see and hear you- use combo of warning devices
45
Automatic transmissions reduce the likelihood of engine sustaining damage from what?
lugging.
46
What is lugging?
condition that occurs when the throttle application is greater than necessary for a given set of conditions; may result in an excessive amount of carbon particles issuing from the exhaust , oil dilution, and additional fuel consumption.
Lugging can be avoided by using a lower gear and proper shifting techniques
47
There are several points of potential contact under the front, middle, and rear of the vehicle. keep these points in mind when traversing:
steep ramps, curbs, speed bumps, and similar obstacles on the road.
48
What are the 3 angles of potential points of contact?
1. Angle of approach- angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the from of the apparatus.
(front tires touching the ground to the lowest part of the front bumper)
2. Angle of departure- angle formed by the level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.
(that rear swing. back tires to the low rear bumper)
3. Breakover angle- angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front and rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint.
49
What is the angle formed between the ground and the line from the front tires to the lowest point at the front of the vehicle?
angle of approach
50
Which angle determines whether the underside of the apparatus will contact the crest of a hill or raised surface?
breakover angle.
51
The angle of depature is best described as?
the angle formed from the rear tires to the lowest rear projection of the apparatus.
52
What term refers to the angle formed from level ground to the point beneath the chassis midpoint of the vehicle?
breakover angle
53
The distance between the front and rear axles is known as what?
wheelbase
54
When an apparatus has a smaller wheelbase they are:
generally more maneuverable, but less stable
55
When an apparatus has a longer wheelbase it:
increases the size of the interior but decreases maneuverability.
56
Lengthening the wheelbase also has a greater effect on:
the weight distribution of the apparatus.
57
What is a tailswing?
the arc created by the distance between the rear axle and the vehicles rear when turning.
58
Apparatus are relatively top heavy and therefore:
have a high center of gravity
59
center of gravity refers to:
point at which the entire weight of a body may be thought of as centered, so that it would balance perfectly.
60
The weight carried on an apparatus can contribute to ________ or _________ due to lateral weight transfer
skidding or possible rollover
61
To keep weight transfer to a minimum, the DO should steer the apparatus in a:
smooth, fluid motion rather than a series of multiple turns.
62
weight transfers follow the laws of inertia, which is:
objects in motion tend to remain in motion, and objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force.
63
Water tanks built for fire trucks are properly _____ to limit lateral and front to back forces from affecting the vehicles handling.
baffled.
64
_______ onboard water tanks are best for the traction of the vehicle.
full
65
Empty water tanks on a fire truck will do what?
they do not surge and do not provide weight on the axles to increase traction.
66
Vehicles built after _______ usually have their GVWR (gross vehicle weight rating) displayed where?
2012 . on dashboard plaque.
67
The GVWR should be displayed in ______ for bridge limits.
tons
68
DO should ensure that a vehicle is properly loaded and has a full water tank bc poor weight distribution can create vehicle handling hazards, such as:
1. too much weight on the steering axle, which can make steering the apparatus more difficult and damage the steering axle and tires
2. too little weight on the driving axles, which can cause poor traction and handling problems as the rear axles shift around.
3. imbalance of weight on the wheels, which can cause the wheels to spin or skid easily.
69
What info must a DO know to determine if an apparatus can safely traverse roads and bridges?
Gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) or actual weight of the apparatus in tons
70
What can poor axle weight distribution lead to?
vehicle handling hazards
71
What is the consequence of too much weight on the steering axle?
difficulty steering and damage to axle and tires
72
What happens if there is too little weight on the driving axles?
poor traction and handling as the rear axle shifts
73
what is the potential result of weight imbalances on the wheels?
wheels may spin or skid easily.
74
A defensive driver:
1. continually evaluates upcoming road conditions for hazards and adjusts to these conditions and traffic.
2. uses central vision (focusing the eyes straight ahead)
3. drives at speeds safe for conditions.
4. drives with the understanding that other drivers may take reckless actions
75
When driving downhill, when should shifting be done?
prior to descending. To prevent engine damage, limit speed to lower than the max RPM.
76
The engine governor CANNOT control speed _____
downhill
77
when does engine lugging occur?
When the throttle is a mx and a manual transmission is in to high of a gear for the speed.
*This usually does not occur with a manual transmission
78
what is overthrottling?
when the engine CANNOT respond to the amount of work being asked of it at the throttle.
79
When a vehicle is over throttling, what is happening ?
more fuel is injected than can be burned, which results in an excessive amount of carbon particles in the exhaust, oil dilution, and excessive fuel consumption.
80
what may cause engine lugging when driving uphill?
downshifting too late when a lower gear is needed.
81
what is a consequence of over throttling?
excessive carbon particles in exhaust, oil dilution, and excessive fuel consumption.
82
What should the DO do if engine lugging occurs?
downshift to bring engine RPM to peak torque speed.
83
it may take _______ times greater the distance to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than dry pavement.
3-15x
84
most likely place for collisions involving emergency vehicle
intersections
85
On multilane roads, vehicles in the left lane may do what?
may pull into a left turn lane instead of making lane changes to yield.
86
When passing vehicles, use these guidelines to ensure safety:
1. always travel on the inner most lane (fast lane) of multilane roads. Wait for cars to move to the right before passing.
2. avoid passing vehicles on the right side bc drivers normally move to the right.
3. be certain lanes are cleared before passing the centerline.
4. avoid passing other emergency vehicles if possible. driver should coordinate the moves via radio, with the slower vehicle moving to the right to allow faster vehicle to pass.
87
Situations to be aware of when driving at night include:
1. fatigue
2. wildlife
3. glare
4. road conditions due to weather
5. impaired drivers
6. decreased vision
7. reflection caused by snow, fog, or rain
88
The weight of a full water tank provides:
better braking and road surface traction
89
a 1,000 gallon pumper with a full tank weighs over _______ pounds more than a tanker with a full water tank.
8,000
90
An apparatus with a properly baffled, but partially filled water tank can be more:
dangerous to handle than one with a full or empty tank
*For safety reasons, many manufacturers recommend that tanks be empty or filled completely
91
Situational awareness is a
mindset
92
An effective mind set (situational awareness) involves a:
base level of awareness that demands clarity of time and space.
93
What is the primary goal of Crew Resource Management (CRM) model?
to reduce line of duty death (LODDs), reduce all types of injuries and collisions.
94
CRM (Crew resource management) requires that all crew memebers:
maintain situational awareness and communicate changes in environment or behavior
95
what factor contributes to loss of situational awareness involves unclear or confusing information?
Ambiguity
96
What does the term "distraction" refer to in CRM context?
loss of focus on the original mission without appropriate rationale.
97
Fixation occurs when:
someone focuses only on one element of the situation
98
In CRM, which of the following best defines "overload":
information or task burden that overwhelms crew or leads them to try doing everything themselves
99
A FF believing a call is a false alarm due to past experiences is an example of:
complacency
100
What does "improper procedure" refer to in CRM:
violating or ignoring policies/procedures without justification
101
What is meant by "unresolved discrepancy" in CRM?
two or more pieces of information that do not agree.
102
"lack of comprehensive hazard surveillance" refers to:
focusing so much on one detail that other hazards are ignored.
103
What incidents generally account for significant percentage of all damage repair costs?
backing
104
excessive speed can cause difficulties such as _____ when braking.
brake fade
105
________ brake components lose their ability to stop the vehicle, regardless of the configuration of the braking system.
overheated
106
Examples of mechanical failure include:
1. failing brakes
2. improperly inflated tires causing a blow out
3. steering component failures (linkage, tie-rods, ball joints, etc)
4. power steering failure
5. equipment becoming untethered
6. electronic failure
7. hydraulic failure
8. suspension failure (broken leaf springs, broken U-bolts, etc)
107
what is an engine compression brake?
device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion of the motor vehicle by compression within the engine cylinders
108
What are some auxiliary braking devices?
1. engine compression brakes
2. exhaust brakes
3. transmission retarders
4. driveline retarders
109
When does the engine brake or retarder activated?
when the DO releases pressure from the accelerator.
110
What is the purpose of visual lead time when driving an apparatus?
to recognize hazards and react in time to stop or maneuver
111
what does aiming high in steering do?
by aiming high in steering to get the big picture (scanning ahead, maintaining situational awareness), they recognize hazardous conditions soon enough to act
112
What is the visual lead time?
the time needed to stop the apparatus or to perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed
113
how do DO's create visual lead time?
by scanning their path of travel far enough ahead based on speed
114
what happens when the DO has sufficient visual lead time?
it improves reaction time and reduces stopping distance
115
What is the definition of total stopping distance?
the sum of perception distance, driver reaction distance, and braking distance
116
what is perception distance?
distance the vehicle travels while the DO visually sees and mentally processes a reason to stop.
117
What does driver reaction distance refer to:
distance the vehicle travels while the driver moves their foot from the gas to the brake.
118
What is the braking distance?
distance the vehicle travels from when brakes are applied until it comes to a full stop.
119
What is the purpose of the 2-4-12 rule?
to help drivers see conditions well ahead of their apparatus and act early.
120
what does the 2-4-12 rule help to determine?
proper following distance
121
According to the 2-4-12 rule, when should a DO maintain a 2 second interval?
at speeds below 55 mph
*Maintain a 2 second interval between your vehicle and the vehicle ahead for speeds below 55
122
When driving at speeds above 55 mph, what following intervals is recommended by the 2-4-12 rule?
4 seconds
123
What does the "12" in the 2-4-12 rule refer to?
visual lead time in seconds
*that is, look ahead for possible hazards and potential alternate paths of travel in case of emergency occurs.
The 12 second visual lead time permits the DO to make continual, smooth adjustments to speed and position.
124
Why is visual lead time important as a DO?
it allows continual, smooth adjustments to speed and position.
125
What are the 2 common causes of skidding?
acceleration skids and locked wheel skids.
126
What should a DO do when experiencing an acceleration skid?
ease off the accelerator and straighten the front wheels.
127
Locked wheel skids generally result from?
braking too hard or at a high speed.
128
To regain proper control during a locked wheel skid, the DO should:
ease off the brake to unlock the drive wheels and then straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control.
129
Driver error commonly causes skids when the DO does which of the following?
1. drives too fast for road conditions
2. fails to anticipate the path of travel obstacles
3. uses auxiliary braking devices improperly.
4. does not maintain apparatus tires.
130
What is the purpose of Antilock Braking System (ABS)
to minimize the chance of skidding during forceful braking.
131
What should a DO do when braking with an ABS-equipped vehicle?
maintain steady pressure on the brake pedal until stopped.
"stomp and stay"
132
What does NFPA 1550 require for non-ABS-equipped fire apparatus carrying 1,000 gallons of water or more?
respond in non-emergency mode
133
According to NFPA 1900, when must an auxiliary braking system be installed?
on apparatus with a GVWR of 36,000 pounds or more
134
There are 4 types of auxiliary brakes:
1. exhaust brakes
2. engine compression brakes
3. electromagnetic retarders
4. transmission output retarders
135
What auxiliary braking systems are unaffected by transmission gear shifts and provide the highest braking torque?
transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders.
136
Which of the 4 auxiliary brake devices is the least effective?
exhaust brakes
*uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust.
137
Which of the 4 auxiliary brakes is an electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train?
engine compression brakes
138
Which of the 4 auxiliary brakes provides the highest braking capacity?
transmission output retarders
139
Many vehicles equipped with ABS (anti-locking brakes) also have:
Automatic traction control (ATC)
140
What does Automatic traction control (ATC) do?
automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction.
141
A Driver-controlled differential lock (DCDL) will improve what?
traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions.
142
When the DCDL (driver controlled differential lock) is engaged:
the lock forces both wheels to turn at the same speed, maximizing traction.
143
What does the interaxle differential lock allow?
for speed differences between the rear driving axles. q
144
What do stability control systems do?
help prevent rollovers and tipping caused by cornering or sudden change in direction.
145
What is roll stability control (RSC) integrated into?
into the ABS (anti-lock braking system)
146
RSC (roll stability control) includes what sensors?
ABS sensors and lateral accelerometer that sense when the side force caused by cornering approaches rollover threshold.
147
When does RSC (Roll stability control) become active?
when ABS computer senses an imminent rollover condition- even if DO does not.
*DO should drive and correct as normal. may feel the truck slowing down.
148
Which stability control allows the DO more control over the apparatus?
Electronic Stability Control (ESC) also known as Eletronic Stability Program (ESP).
149
RSC (roll stability control) slows the vehicle down, while ESC (electronic stability control) does what?
applies brakes in a way that aims the vehicle in the direction that the DO positions the steering wheel.
150
Studies show that civilian drivers respond to sounds that:
change pitch.
151
What is the best way to get the attention of motorist?
short horn bursts and the constant up and down oscillation of an electronic or mechanical siren.
152
At what speed may an emergency vehicle outrun the effective range of its audible warning devices?
above 50 mph.
153
increasing speeds by ______ can decrease the audible distance of audible warning devices by_____ or more.
20 mph
250 ft or more
154
when more than 1 emergency vehicle travels the same response route, they should remain how many feet apart?
300-500 ft or more apart
155
What lights are readily visible even during daylight hours?
white lights
So, headlights should be on as part of the emergency response.
156
Warning lights and flood lights may decrease the effectiveness of what?
reflective trim on FF PPE.
157
What light is more discernible by the human eye at a greater distance?
yellow
158
what is a Vehicle Data Recorder (VDR)?
a device installed in some fire apparatus that collects essential data, such as responder actions, while the vehicle is powered on.
