Ch4: B Cells Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Ch4: B Cells Deck (240):
1

Define immunoglobulin

proteins which structurally resemble antibodies.

2

Define antibodies

proteins made by lymphocytes and plasma cells, which specifically react with molecules termed antigens (Ags).

3

All antibodies are what type of protein?

Immuoglobulins

4

Where did the name antigen come from?

ANTIbody GENerator

5

Define antigen

any compound that elicits an immune response

6

What is an immunogen

Antigen that causes immune response

7

What is immunogenicity dependent on? (3)

foreignness, size, and complexity

8

What two types of molecules induce strong immune response?

Proteins and polysaccharides

9

Recognition of antigen directed at what?

antigenic determinant or epitope

10

What is an epitope?

The chemical structures of a molecule that is directly recognized

11

Antibodies are composed of what?

heavy and light chains that both contain variable and constant regions

12

Antibodies are made up of how many chains?

2 identical heavy chains
2 identical light chains

13

Antigens are bound to what part of antibody?
What holds the antigen in place?

fragment antigenbinding (Fab) region
Disulfide bonds

14

What part of the antibody tells the host how to handle the antigen:antibody complex?

The fragment crystallizable (Fc) region

15

The interactions of antibodies and antigen are mediated by what types of forces?

1) electrostatic forces,
2) hydrogen bonds,
3) Van der Waals forces,
4) hydrophobic forces

16

Since the interactions are less stable between antigens and antibodies (non-covalent) what does this allow the antibody to do?

bind multiple sites on the pathogen

17

How many sites can each antibody bind?

IgM: 10
IgA: 4
IgG: 2
IgE: 2
IgD: 2

18

Linear epiotopes can be predicted by what?

Amino acid sequence

19

Discontinuous epitomes can be predicted by what?

Amino acid sequence AND 3-D folding knowledge

20

IgA has how many subtypes?

2

21

What is the heavy chain of IgA?

Alpha (1 or 2)

22

Secreted form of IgA?

Monomer or Dimer

23

Function of IgA?

Mucosal immunity

24

H chain of IgD?

Delta

25

Secreted form of IgD?

Isn't one

26

Function of IgD?

Native B cell antigen receptor

27

H chain of IgE?

Episilon

28

Secreted form of IgE?

Monomer

29

Function of IgE? (2)

1. Mast cell activation
2. Defense against helminthic parasites

30

H chain type of IgG?

Gamma (1,2,3,4)

31

Secreted form of IgG?

Monomer

32

Function of IgG? 5

1. Opsonization
2. Complement activation
3. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
4. Neonatal immunity
5. Feedback inhibition of B cells

33

IgM H chain type?

Mu

34

Secreted form of IgM?

Pentamer

35

Function of IgM? (2)

1. Native B cell antigen receptor
2. Complement activation

36

B cells are produced where?
By what cell?

Bone marrow

Hematopoietic stem cell

37

The germline DNA contains multiple copies of what types of genes that will be rearranged? 3

variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) genes

38

Why does gene rearrangement occur for B cells?

provide significant variability to the antigen-binding portion of immunoglobulins

39

The heavy chain uses what germline genes?

VDJ

40

The light chain uses what germline genes?

VJ

41

Successful rearrangement of the VDJ (heavy chain) and VJ (light chain) allows these genes to do what?

associate with constant genes, and the rearrangement is complete

42

Diversity in T and B cells means what?

The number of antigen specificities present within a single individual at any given time

43

B cell germline rearrangements occur when?

Throughout life

44

Do we have immunoglobulins for antigens we have not encountered?

Yes

45

How many Variable gene segments exist for light chains?

Kappa: 31-36
Lambda: 29-33

46

How many variable gene segments for heavy chain?

38-46

47

How many diversity segments in light chains?

0

48

How many diversity segments in heavy chains?

23

49

How many joining segments in light chains?

Kappa: 5
Lambda: 4-5

50

How many joining segments in heavy chains?

6

51

How many constant segments in light chains?

Kappa: 1
Lambda: 4-5

52

Which gene rearrangements occur first, light or heavy?

Heavy (D to J) then (V to DJ)

53

Gene rearrangements for light chain involve what segments?

V to J fusion

54

Each V, D, or J segments is flanked by what?

Recombination Signal Sequences (RSS)

55

Two types of Recombination Signal Sequences

1. Nonamer and Heptamer separated by a 12 base pair segments
2. Nonamer and heptamer separated by a 23 bp segments

56

The 12/23 rule ensures what?

Gene segments are joined in the correct orientation

57

During rearrangement of gene segments, what two genes bind to the 12 bp and 23 bp spacers?
Function of this?

RAG--1 and RAG-2

Bring two heptamer sequences in close proximity through formation of a hairpin that contains the DNA segments to be removed

58

DNA is excised where in germline rearrangment?

End of both heptamer sequences

59

What joins chromosomal DNA together following recombination?

Terminal deoxynucleotidal transferase (TdT)

60

Describe the steps of Germline rearrangement 8

1. Generation of junctional diversity
2. RAG complex cleaves heptamer RSS's from the D and J gene segments to yield hairpins
3. RAG complex opens hairpins by nicking one strand of DNA which generates palindromic P-nucleotides
4. N-nucleotide additions are performed by TdT
5. TdT adds N nucleotides
6. Pairing of strands occurs
7. Unpaired nucleotides are removed by exonuclease
8. Gaps are filled by DNA synthesis and ligation to form coding joint

61

What are P nucleotides?

pallindromic nucleotides that are identical when read from either end, but they are not complementary to each other and cannot join together.

62

What are N nucleotides?

Nontemplated/not encoded in germline DNA

63

How does TdT contribute to diversity of antibodies?

Formation of coding joint involves TdT adding N-nucleotides

64

How might two B cells with identical V, D, and J genes differ?

Different N-nucleotides added

65

After B cells rearrange the heavy chain, they express what?
For what reason?

Express a Pre-B cell receptor

To test the ability to express the heavy chain at the cell surface

66

What is needed to make the Pre-B cell receptor?

1. Heavy Chain
2. Surrogate light chain
3. Two disulfide linked signaling molecules (Igalpha and IgBeta)

67

B cells that possess an appropriate heavy chain in the Pre-B cell receptor undergo what?

cell division to produce around 100 clones expressing the same heavy chain

68

Do clones of B cells have the same light chain?

No. each clone begins making light chains independently

69

How many chances does a B cell have to create a proper light chain?
Why?

4

both κ light chain and λ light chain gene rearrangements are possible

70

If a successful light chain rearrangement does not occur, what happens to the B cell?

Dies by apoptosis

71

If a successful light chain rearrangement does occur, what happens?

the B cell receptor is expressed at the cell surface along with two disulfide-linked signaling molecules (Igα and Igβ)

72

As an early pro-B cell, what can the B cell do for rearrangements?

D-J rearrangements on both chromosomes

73

As a late pro-B cell, what can the B cell do for rearrangements?
And if this fails?
And if this fails?

1. V-DJ rearrangement on first chromosome
2. V-DJ rearrangement on second chromosome
3. Apoptosis

74

If successful rearrangement occurs of V-DJ, what can the B cell do next for light chain rearrangement?
If this fails?
If this fails?
If this fails?
If this fails?

1. Rearrange Kappa gene on first chromosome
2. Rearrange Kappa gene on second chromosome
3. Rearrange Lambda gene on first chromosome
4. Rearrange lambda gene on second chromosome
5. Apoptosis

75

If successful kappa light chain rearrangement occurs in Pre-B cell, what is the result?

Cell expresses IgM of mu/Kappa

76

If successful lambda light chain rearrangement occurs in Pre-B cell, what is the result?

Cell expresses IgM of mu/Lambda

77

What are the two checkpoints in determining whether a B cell will make functional IgM?

1. First: Can it make a pre-B cell receptor
2. Second: Can it make a mature B cell receptor

78

What is allelic exclusion?

process of encoding immunoglobulin genes from a single chromosome per cell, instead of both

79

What is affinity?

Strength of binding at a single site

80

What is avidity?

Strength associated with binding multiple
sites, regardless of affinity

81

Having multiple B-cell receptors that recognize the same antigen increases what?

increases the avidity and potential for activation of the B cell because multiple signals tell B cell to become activated

82

After the V, D, and J genes rearrange, the B cell can proceed to rearragnements with what genes?

Constant genes

83

How many constant genes exist on heavy chain of B cells?
What do they determine

9

define the antibody isotype that is being produced
by the cell.

84

The default constant gene for all B cells is what? (2)

Cμ (IgM) and Cδ (IgD)

85

B cell express what antibodies at cell surface during development?

IgM and IgD

86

What two types of IgM do B cells express?

surface IgM and secreted IgM

87

Downstream constant genes (not the default ones) exist for what reason?

Future isotype switching

88

How many different V gene segments exist for B cell heavy chains?

100

89

How many different V gene segments exist for B cells' kappa chains?

35

90

How many different D gene segments exist for B heavy chains?

27

91

How many different D gene segments exist for B kappa chains?

0

92

How many different J gene segments exist for B kappa chains?

5

93

How many different J gene segments exist for B heavy chains?

6

94

Which has the better possible repertoire of antigen diversity, TcR's or Immunoglobulin?

TcR's 10^16 vs 10^11

95

The primary transcript for antibody is processed by what 3 things?

cleavage, polyadenylation, and splicing

96

Processing of primary antibody transcript creates what? 2

1. μ transcript that does not encode the δ,
2. δ transcript that does not encode μ.

97

The mu transcript and delta transcript creation allow for expression of what?

expression of both IgM and IgD surface immunoglobulin by naïve, mature B cells

98

Do some B cells secrete IgD?

yes but not commonly

99

What mediates association of lymphoid progenitor cells with stromal cells of bone marrow?
Specifically what? (2)

cellular adhesion molecules

1. Lymphoid VLA-4 (integrin)
2. Stromal cell VCAM-1

100

B cells express what protein that binds to membrane-bound stem cell factor?

Kit

101

Production of IL-7 by bone marrow stromal cells has what effect?

stimulates B cell growth and proliferation

102

Function of Kit, IL-7 and CD25 on pro B cels?

Growth factor receptors

103

Function of RAG-1 and RAG-2 in development of B cells

Lymphoid specific recombinase

104

Funtion of TdT in pro and pre B cells?

N-nucleotide addition

105

What are Lambda5 and VpreB's functions in B cell development?

Surrogate light chain components

106

Ig-alpha and Ig-Beta, BtK, CD19, CD45R are involved in what during B cell development?

Signal transduction

107

CD43, CD24, and BP-1 have what function in B cells?

Differentiation markers

108

E2A and EBF along with Pax-5 have what function in B cell development?

TF's

109

What happens if immature B cell has no reaction with a self antigen in bone marrow?

Moves to the blood and expresses IgD and IgM

110

What happens if immature B cell has a reaction with a self antigen in bone marrow?

Retained in bone marrow

111

What happens to B cells that are self-reactive in bone marrow?

undergo receptor editing

112

how does receptor editing occur?
Specifically how?

rearrangement of the light chain locus, to express a new Ig V region

The current, self-reactive rearrangement is deleted, and rearrangement of the light chain continues until the B cell is either non-self reactive or no V regions are available

113

Low avidity self antigens induce what?

anergy

114

Anergic B cells are removed from circulation how quickly?

1-5 days

115

Non-self-reactive B cell lasts how long in blood?

40-day half-life in blood.

116

What is central tolerance?

elimination of self-reactive B cells before they leave the bone marrow

117

What is peripheral tolerance?

elimination of self-reactive B cells after they leave the bone marrow

118

What is also responsible for differential expression of the transmembrane and secreted forms of IgM?

Alternative RNA processing

119

Each transcript has how many polyadenylation sites?

Where? (2)

2

1. one after the secretion-coding sequence (pAμs)
2. one after the membrane-coding sequence (pAμm).

120

Secreted IgM, which is linked by what molecule?
Forms what structure?

J chain
Pentamer

121

How many antigens can IgM pentamer bind?

10

122

What is IgM's avidity?
What is IgM's affinity?

High
Low

123

B cells become activated when?

When their receptor are cross-linked by antigens

124

Cross linking induces signaling with B cells which is mediated by what?

immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) signaling components of the B cell receptor (Igα and Igβ)

125

What exactly happens to the ITAM's?

phosphorylated by the receptor-associated
tyrosine kinases Blk, Fyn, and/or Lyn

126

After phosphorylation of the ITAM's what happens?

tyrosine kinase Syk then binds the phosphorylated Igβ and initiates intracellular signaling pathways that lead to changes in gene expression in the nucleus

127

Since a pathogen might not express multiple copies of an epitope, what do B cells have in addition to cross-linkign to activate themselves?

Co-receptor which consists of proteins (CR2, CD19, and CD81)

128

Explain the steps of the B-cell co-receptor in action?

1. CR1 on the B cell surface binds to pathogens coated with C3b
2. Factor I cleaves C3b into iC3b
3. iC3b is cleaved into C3d
4. CR2 recognizes either iC3b or C3d and stimulates signaling through CD19

129

Complement decorating a pathogen provides what to the B cell?

provides a signal to a B cell recognizing a specific antigen

130

What does complement tell the B cell?

Complement tells the B cell that the antigen is foreign and bridges innate and adaptive immunity

131

CR2 also is known by what name?

CD21

132

CR2 or CD21 recognize what?

IC3b and C3d

133

What is the signaling molecule of CR2?

CD19

134

What attracts B cells to the high endothelial venules?

Chemokine CCL21 interacts with receptor CCR7 on B cells to attract B cells

135

What attracts B cells to the lymph node?

CCL21 and CCL19

136

What attracts B cells into primary follicle?

CXCL13

137

What two molecules drive the mature of immature B cells in the primary follicle?

1. B-cell activating factor in the TNF family (BAFF)
2. Lymphotoxin (LT)

138

What family of molecules do BAFF and LT belong to?

TNF-alpha family

139

BAFF is produced by what cells?

follicular dendritic cells

140

BAFF binds to its receptor on B cells to promote what?

survival and maturation of the B cell

141

LT is produced by what cells?

B cells

142

LT binds to its receptor on follicular dendritic cells to do what?

preserve integrity of the FDC network

143

Mature B cells recirculate between what?

Lymph, blood, and secondary lymphoid tissues

144

4 main responses of B cell to bound antigen?
And result of each

1. Entry into cell cycle (Clonal expansion)
2. Increased expression of cytokine receptors (Respond to cytokines made by helper T cells)
3. Migration out of lymphoid follicles (Interact with helper T cells)
4. Secrete low levels of IgM (Early phase of humoral immune response)

145

4 general steps of B cell antigen presentation?

1. B cell recognizes native protein antigen
2. B cell undegoes receptor mediated endocytosis of antigen
3. Antigen processing and presentation
4. Helper T cell recognizes antigen

146

What leads to antigen uptake by B cell?

When an antigen binds its antigen-specific B cell receptor and activates it

147

How does a B cell present its processed peptide epitopes to a helper T cell?

MHC-II

148

What recognizes the B cell's peptide:MHC complex?
Result upon this recognition?

The antigen-specific T cell receptor
expresses CD40 ligand on surface

149

CD40L ligand of the helper T cell binds to what?
What does this provide?

CD40 on B cells

provides a second signal for B cell
activation, leading to division and differentiation of B cells

150

All the while CD40 is doing its thing, what else is the T cell doing?

produce cytokines to assist in this activation, with the ultimate goal of inducing antibody production from the B cell.

151

Where is the primary focus of expansion of antigen activated B cells?

Medullary cords

152

The secondary focus of expansion of antigen-activated B cells is where?

Germinal center

153

Activated B and T cells migrate out of T Cell zone of lymph node and go to where?

Medullary cords

154

B cells in medullary cords produce what?
Where does this go?

antigen-specific IgM

exits via the efferent lymphatic vessel, gets into
the blood, and rapidly travels to the site of infection

155

Serum IgM antibody is first detected when?
After what happens?

7-10 days after antigen exposure

bind 10 antigens and efficiently fix complement

156

What happens to some antigen-specific B and T cells in the medullary cords?

migrate back to a primary follicle and enter into
the germinal center reaction

157

T cells are activated with what?

APC's

158

Where do T and B cells typically have first interaction?

in the T cell zone of the lymph node

159

B cells can also present antigen in order to match up with what?

activated T cell

160

B cells that encounter their antigen form what?
And then go where?
Where they under go what? (2)

foci

germinal centers and enter into the germinal center reaction

1. Affinity Maturation (somatic hypermutation)
2. isotype switching

161

What maintain the antigen during germinal center reactions?
Via what receptor?

Follicular Dendritic Cells

Complement receptors

162

After B cells produce antibodies, they bind what on FDC's?
In order to do what?

Fc receptors on FDCs

hold noncomplement-bound epitopes in place on the FDC

163

Somatic hypermutation targets what?

Rearranged gene segments encoding the variable region

164

What happens in somatic hypermutation?

The enzyme activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID) deaminates cytosine residues within the single-stranded DNA into uracil, and DNA repair
mechanisms randomly converts the uracil to any one of the 4 bases found in DNA

165

What cells make AID enzyme?

Proliferating B cells

166

What is purpose of hypermutation?

increase the affinity and improve specificity of antibody toward the invading pathogen

167

What is isotype switching?

the process by which a B cell changes the constant region that is expressed in its germline

168

Isotype switching is done how? 2

1. AID deaminates cytosine to uracil at two sites in the DNA
2. Uracil is removed by uracil-DNA-glycosylase and recombination occurs

169

Isotype-switched cells now produce what?

Whatever the next remaining downstream constant segment is? (gamma, epsilon, alpha)

170

What happens to constant regions removed by isotype switching?

Deleted forever

171

Since all B cells start as IgM producers, what happens to IgM expression throughout an immune response?

Reduces because cells switch to other isotypes

172

What will cause an antigen-selected B cell centrocyte to form into plasma cells?

IL-10 secreted from helper T cell

173

What will cause an antigen-selected B cell centrocyte to form memory cells?

IL-4 secreted from Helper T cell

174

What do plasma cells do?

Make antibodies that fight and terminate current infection?

175

What do memory B cells do?

Prevent future infections from causing disease

176

Primary response takes how long?

5-10 days

177

Secondary response takes how long?

1-3 days

178

What is relative difference between primary and secondary peak response?

Secondary rseponse has larger peak response

179

What is the balance of IgM and IgG in primary response?

IgM > IgG

180

What is balance of IgG and IgM in secondary response?

IgG > IgM

181

What is relative difference between antibody affinity in primary response and secondary response?

Secondary response has higher average antibody affinity than primary

182

What two types of B cells are in spleen and other lymphoid organs?

Follicular B cells
Marginal Zone B cells

183

What type of B cels are in mucosal tissues?

B-1 Cells

184

Both marginal zone B cells and B-1 cells secrete what mainly?
What do they differentiate into?

IgM

Short-lived plasma cells

185

Two types of T-independent antigens?

TI-1
TI-2

186

TI-1 antigen has what main example?

LPS on gram negative bacteria

187

Thymus independent antigens can do what?

activate B cells without T cell
help in one of three ways

188

What are 3 ways a TI-1 antigen will activate a B cell?

1. The TI-1 antigen directly activates the B cells response to that specific antigen
2. TI-1 antigen activates B cells that are specific for other antigens
3. The DNA can act as TI-1 that activates B cells specific for a surface antigen

189

TI-1 activation of B cells is dependent on what?

complement components and TLR recognition of
microbial products

190

TI-2 antigens activate B cells how?

Cross-linking the BCR and its co-receptor due to repetitive expression of identical epitopes on the surface of the pathogen

191

TI-2 crosslinking is so strong that what is not needed?

Additional signals

192

Do TI-2 antigens use complement components?
How about TLR recognition?

Sometimes

No

193

What cells typically respond to TI-2 antigens?

B-1 cells

194

What antibodies circulate through the bloodstream? (3)

1. Pentamer IgM
2. Monomeric IgA
3. IgG

195

What are the main isotypes in extracellular fluid?

1. Monomeric IgA
2. IgG

196

What antibody coats mucosal surfaces?

Dimeric IgA

197

What antibody associates with mast cells in the CT?

gE

198

Passive transfer of IgG from mother to fetus occurs across the placenta via what?

FcRn

199

What allows dimeric A to be in mother's breastmilk?

Passive transfer

200

What mucosal cell receptor binds dimeric IgA?
Via what portion?
For what purpose?

Polymeric Ig Receptor (pIgR)

J chain

Transport IgA across mucosal surface

201

What part of pIgR is cleaved and released along with IgA?

Secretory comonent

202

Two functions of secretory component?

1. Binds to mucins and holds IgA in the mucus layer
2. Protects IgA from degradation by enzymes present at mucosal sites

203

pIgR has a higher affinity for IgA or IgM?

IgA

204

People with an IgA deficiency will transport what instead across mucosal surfaces?

IgM

205

FcRn in placenta will do what?

Transport IgG from mother to fetus

206

FcRn is expressed by endothelial cells and extends the half life of IgG to what?

3 weeks

207

At birth, what antibody do newborns have the most of?

IgG from the mother

208

What happens as passive IgG from mother begins to wane? 2

1. Newly synthesized IgM dominate
2. Infant produces its own IgG at 6 months of age

209

Newborns do not have memory cells against pathogens until when? 2

1. Vaccinated
2. infected with pathogen

210

Interaction with a pathogen is done with what part of the antibody?

Fab (variable region)

211

Interaction with a host cell is done with what part of antibody?

Fc

212

What role do antibodies whose Fc regions do not have high affinity interaction with Fc receptors have?

protecting the host by neutralizing the pathogen
so that it cannot interact with the host cell

213

Toxins naturally interact with cell surface receptors before what?

being endocytosed and releasing their toxic
subunit intracellularly

214

How do IgG antibodies that are bonded with an antigen on a pathogen help complement?

C1q binds to two or more IgG molecules and initiates complement activation

215

How do IgM antibodies that are bonded to soluble multivalent antigen help complement?

C1q binds to the complex and initiates complement activation

216

When immune complexes bind C1q and fix c3b they can be recognized by what?

CR1 on erythrocytes

217

The erythrocyte with CR1 can transport immune complex to where and for what?

To liver or spleen where it is detached and taken up by macropahges

218

The purpose of erythrocytes with CR1 binding immune complexes is what?

Keeping complexes from depositing in the kidney glomeruli

219

What do Fc receptors on host cells allow?

induction of an active process associated with removal of a pathogen from an infected host

220

What is the high affinity receptor for IgG1 and IgG3?

Fc-gamma-RI

221

What portion of Fc-gamma-RI does the Fc bind to?
What portion performs the signaling?
What does this signaling utilize?

Extracellular alpha chain

Gamma chain

ITAM

222

Activation of Fc receptors requires what?

cross-linking of these receptors

223

Explain osphonophagocytosis with IgG! 5

1. Antibody binds to bacterium
2. Antibody coated bacterium binds to Fc receptors on cell
3. Macrophage membrane surrounds bacterium
4. Macrophages membranes fuse to form phagosome
5. Lysosomes fuse with phagosome to form phagolysosome

224

What antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

When IgG binds to surface of target cell can then links with Fc receptor on NK cells (FC-gamma-RIII) which causes NK cells to release cytotoxic granules of perforin and granzymes to kill target cell

225

The high affinity Fc receptor for IgE (FC-epsilon-RI) is expressed where?

Mast cells

226

What causes an eosinophil to be ready for IgE bound parasites?

IL-5 released from Th-2 cell

227

6 main functions of IgG

1. Neutralize microbes and toxins
2. Osponization of antigens for phagocytosis
3. Activation of classical complement pathway
4. ADCC mediated by NK cells
5. Neonatal immunity
6. Feedback inhibition of B cell activation

228

Main function of IgM?

Activation of classical pathway of complement

229

Function of IgA?

Mucosal immunity

230

Function of IgE? (2)

1. Defense against helminths
2. Mast cell degranulation

231

What main Fc receptor acts as an inhibitory response to downregulate antibody responses?

Fc-gamma-RIIB

232

Fc-gamma-RIIB sends a negative signal through what?
To what?

ITIM

B cell to stop making antibody

233

First pregnancy of Rh- mother with Rh+ fetus results in what? 3

1. Primary immune response of IgM with low affinity IgG
2. Minor destructin of fetal erthryocytes by anti-Rh IgG
3. health newborn

234

Second and subsequent pregnancy of Rh- mother with Rh+ fetus results in what? 3

1. Secondary immune response of high affinity IgG transcytosed to fetal circulation
2. Massive destruction of fetal erythrocytes by anti Rh igG
3. Anemic babies

235

First pregnancy of Rh- mother with Rh+ fetus infused with anti-Rh IgG results in what? 3

1. Primary immune response to Rh is inhibited by presence of Rh-specific IgG
2. Fetal erythrocytes are not destroyed
3. Healthy newborns

236

Fc-gamma-RI has what affinity for Ig?
Specifically what Ig's
What cells have it? (3)
Function?

High
IgG1 and IgG3
Macrophages, Neutrophils, Eosinophils
Phagocytosis

237

Fc-gamma-RIIA has what affinity for Ig?
What cells have it? (3)
Function?

Low
Macrophages, Neutrophils, Eosinophils
Phagocytosis

238

Fc-gamma-RIIB has what affinity for Ig?
What cells have it? (4)
Function? 2

Low
B cells, Dendritic cells, mast cells, neutrophils, macropahges
Feedback inhibition of B cell and attenuation of inflammation

239

Fc-gamma-RIIIA has what affinity for Ig?
What cells have it?
Function?

Low
NK cells
ADCC

240

Fc-epsilon-RI has what affinity for Ig?
Specifically what?
What cells have it? (3)
Function?

High
Monomeric IgE
Mast cells, basophils, eosinophils
Activation of those cells