Chapter 18 Flashcards
2
Q
The AFI that governs the Fitness Program is: (18.2.3.)
A
AFI 36-2905, Fitness Program
3
Q
The Air Force uses a composite fitness score based on _______ to determine overall fitness. (18.3.1.)
A
aerobic fitness, muscular strength, and body composition
4
Q
The Air Force uses a composite fitness score to determine overall fitness. The minimum acceptable score, in addition to meeting the minimum component scores, is _______. (18.3.1.)
A
75
5
Q
Members taking the PT test will receive a composite score of 0 to 100 based on the following maximum component scores: 60 points for aerobic fitness assessment and: (18.3.2.)
A
20 points for body composition, 10 points for pushups, and 10 points for situps
6
Q
What are the components that make up the PT Test? (18.3.2.)
A
aerobic fitness assessment, body composition, pushups, and situps
7
Q
Members with a medical profile prohibiting them from performing one or more components of the fitness assessment will have a composite score calculated on: (18.3.3.)
A
the tested components
8
Q
Although members should complete the entire composite fitness assessment test biannually, what component requirement must be met every 6 months? (18.3.3.1.)
A
abdominal circumference measurement requirement
9
Q
Fitness Assessment exemptions categorize members as unable or unavailable to train or test for reasons beyond the control of the member for a limited time. Based on medical recommendations, the commander may grant exemption from: (18.3.3.2.)
A
aerobic and muscle fitness components (other FA components will still be assessed)
10
Q
What are the four fitness levels based on score and components tested? (18.3.3.2.)
A
Excellent (all 4 components), Excellent (3 or less components), Satisfactory, and Unsatisfactory
11
Q
If a member’s fitness level is Excellent (all 4 components), testing is required every 12 months. If a member’s fitness level is Unsatisfactory, then retesting is required: (18.3.4. and Table 18.1.)
A
within 90 days
12
Q
While deployed, if the deployed commander grants an exemption from fitness assessment, the member will have _______ after return from deployment to train and will then be required to complete the fitness assessment. (18.3.5.)
A
42 days
13
Q
What activity will normally conduct the fitness assessment for all Airmen (Regular Air Force, Reserve, and Guard)? (18.4.1.)
A
the fitness assessment cell (FAC)
14
Q
Pregnant service members will engage in physical activity to maintain cardiovascular and muscular fitness throughout the pregnancy and postpartum period. Members are exempted from fitness testing during pregnancy and for: (18.4.4.)
A
180 days after the delivery date
15
Q
All components of the fitness assessment must be completed within a 3-hour window on the same day. If extenuating circumstances occur (severe weather, emergencies, safety issues, etc), then all components must be completed within _______. (18.5.)
A
5 duty days
16
Q
What component is required to be assessed first during the fitness assessment? (18.5.)
A
body composition (height, weight, and abdominal circumference)
17
Q
Body composition must be the first component assessed during the fitness assessment. The muscular fitness components (pushups and situps) may be accomplished before or after the aerobic component. There is a minimum _______ between components. (18.5.)
A
3-minute rest period
18
Q
The body composition assessment is performed by FAC members and appointed and trained unit members. The body composition assessment consists of _______. (18.5.1.)
A
height and weight and Abdominal Circumference (AC)
19
Q
The aerobic component of the fitness assessment consists of: (18.5.2.)
A
a 1.5-mile run (or 1-mile walk for medically exempted members)
20
Q
The muscular fitness component of the fitness assessment consists of: (18.5.3.)
A
pushups and situps
21
Q
Members with an unsatisfactory fitness assessment score must attend the Balanced Eating, Work out Effectively, Living Longer (BE WELL) Program which is managed by _______. (18.6.1.)
A
the Health and Wellness Center (HAWC)
22
Q
The five major components of fitness are: (18.8.)
A
cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability
23
Q
The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability. Cardiorespiratory endurance is: (18.8.1.)
A
the ability to perform large muscle, dynamic, moderate-to-high intensity exercise for prolonged periods
24
Q
The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability. Body composition is: (18.8.2.)
A
the relative portion of the body comprised of fat and fat-free tissue
25
Q
The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability. Muscular strength is: (18.8.3.)
A
the maximum force generated by a specific muscle or muscle group
26
The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability. Muscular endurance is: (18.8.4.)
the ability of a muscle group to execute repeated contractions over a period of sufficient time duration to cause muscular fatigue
27
The five major components of fitness are cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility-mobility-stability. Flexibility-mobility-stability is: (18.8.5.)
the ability to move a joint freely, without pain, through a range of motion
28
A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of: (18.9.)
frequency, intensity, duration, and mode
29
A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Frequency is: (18.9.1.)
how often one exercises
30
A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Intensity is: (18.9.2.)
how hard one exercises
31
A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Duration is: (18.9.3.)
the time spent exercising in the THR zone
32
A successful cardiovascular exercise program should include the principles of frequency, intensity, duration, and mode. Mode is: (18.9.4.)
the type of exercise (jogging, swimming, etc)
33
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of: (18.10.)
specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety
34
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Specificity means: (18.10.1.)
providing resistance to the specific muscle groups that need to be strengthened
35
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Regularity means: (18.10.2.)
exercising regularly (three workouts per week are best for optimal gains)
36
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Recovery means: (18.10.3.)
allowing sufficient recovery time for the muscles to adapt
37
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Balance means: (18.10.4.)
exercising all the major muscle groups in both the upper and lower body
38
A successful strength and endurance training program should include the principles of specificity, regularity, recovery, balance, and variety. Variety means: (18.10.5.)
changing equipment, exercises, or intensity to maintain enthusiasm and interest
39
The two largest factors that contribute to maintaining a positive body composition are: (18.12.)
exercise and diet
40
A male Airman who is not under medical supervision when dieting requires a daily caloric intake of at least ______; women require at least ______ calories. (18.12.2.)
1,500; 1,200
41
The Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) and Demand Reduction (DR) Programs include: (18.15.1.)
substance abuse prevention, education, treatment, and urinalysis testing
42
The Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program objectives are to: (18.15.2.)
-promote readiness, health, and wellness through the prevention and treatment of substance abuse-minimize the negative consequences of substance abuse to the individual, family, and organization-educate and treat identified substance abusers and return them to unrestricted duty status or civilian life
43
Drug abuse is defined as the illegal, wrongful, or improper use, possession, sale, transfer, or introduction onto a military installation of any drug defined in AFI 44-121, Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program. "Wrongful" means: (18.16.2.)
-without legal justification or excuse and includes use contrary to the directions of the manufacturer or prescribing healthcare provider-use of any intoxicating substance not intended for human ingestion (paint, glue, etc.)without legal justification or excuse and includes use contrary to the directions of the manufacturer or prescribing healthcare providerC. use of any intoxicating substance not intended for human ingestion (paint, glue, etc.)
44
Studies have shown that products made with hemp seed or hemp seed oil may contain varying levels of tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), the active ingredient of marijuana. The ingestion of hemp seed oil is prohibited and is a violation of: (18.18.)
Article 92, Failure to obey order or regulation
45
What regulation provides guidance for the identification, treatment, and management of personnel with substance abuse problems and describes Air Force policy regarding alcohol and drug abuse? (18.19.1.)
AFI 44-121, Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program
46
AFI 31-204, Air Force Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision, applies to: (18.19.2.)
everyone with military installation driving privileges
47
Which AFI establishes guidance on court hearing procedures, convictions, nonjudicial punishment, civilian administrative action, or appropriate punishment for violation of impaired and intoxicated driving policies? (18.19.2.)
AFI 31-204, Air Force Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision
48
AFI 31-204 prohibits driving while intoxicated. If a member has a blood alcohol percentage of _______, the person is presumed to be impaired. (18.19.2.)
0.05 but less than 0.10
49
Intoxicated driving is operating a motor vehicle under intoxication caused by: (18.19.2.)
alcohol or drugs
50
In the United States, if a state uses a more stringent standard for driving while intoxicated (i.e., 0.08 instead of 0.10), Air Force units will use the lower standard. Overseas, the limit is _______. (18.19.2.)
0.10 unless the Secretary of Defense sets a lower limit
51
The supervisory role in recognizing and referring personnel for substance abuse is: (18.20.1.2.)
to identify subordinates with problems early and to motivate them to seek and accept help
52
The supervisory role in recognizing and referring personnel for substance abuse is to identify subordinates with problems early and to motivate them to seek and accept help. The responsibility for making a conclusive diagnosis of substance abuse belongs to: (18.20.1.2.)
ADAPT Program personnel
53
There are basically five ways service members who are experiencing problems with substance use are identified: (18.20.2.)
medical care referrals, commander's identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification
54
The five ways service members with substance abuse issues are identified are medical care referrals, commander's identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Medical care referrals means: (18.20.2.1.)
identification by medical personnel as a result of receiving treatment for an injury or illness
55
The five ways service members with substance abuse issues are identified are medical care referrals, commander's identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Commander's identification means: (18.20.2.2.)
identification as a result of being referred for assessment by the Commander due to an incident
56
The five ways service members with substance abuse issues are identified are medical care referrals, commander's identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Drug testing refers to: (18.20.2.3.)
identification by random drug testing results
57
Drug testing is most effective as a deterrent if it reaches every Air Force member. Therefore, all military personnel are subject to testing regardless of _______. (18.20.2.3.)
-grade-status-position
58
The most common method of testing in the Air Force and the best deterrent presently available against drug abuse is: (18.20.2.3.)
inspection testing
59
There are two categories of drug testing: random inspection testing and Commander-directed. Commander-directed testing should only be used as a last resort because: (18.20.2.3.)
the results cannot be used in actions under the UCMJ
60
The five ways service members are identified as having substance use problems are medical care referrals, commander's identification, drug testing, medical purposes, and self-identification. Medical purposes means: (18.20.2.4.)
identification by results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose
61
The results of any examination conducted for a valid medical purpose, including emergency medical treatment, may be used to identify drug abusers. Results may be used: (18.20.2.4.)
-to refer a member for a substance abuse evaluation-as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge-to support the characterization of discharge in separation proceedings
62
The supervisor's role in the treatment process does not end with identifying and referring members. The supervisor will have daily interaction with his or her personnel and the treatment team (TT) which consists of: (18.21.)
the commander, supervisor, member's counselor, medical consultants, other appropriate helping agencies, and the member
63
The central purpose of the Substance Abuse assessment is to: (18.22.)
determine the patient's need for treatment and level of care required
64
Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: (18.23.)
nonclinical and clinical
65
Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: non-clinical and clinical. Non-clinical treatment is for: (18.23.1.)
members involved in alcohol-related misconduct who do not meet diagnostic criteria for alcohol dependence
66
Substance Abuse treatment is divided into two services: non-clinical and clinical. Clinical treatment is for: (18.23.2.)
patients who meet the diagnostic criteria for alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence
67
The commander is responsible for all administrative actions involving patients in the ADAPT Program. Administrative action should be based on _______ and not solely based on their involvement in the ADAPT Program. (18.26.)
the member's unacceptable behavior
68
A member's substance abuse can lead to a Line of Duty (LOD) determination. A LOD determination is an investigation that determines whether or not: (18.27.)
-the illness, injury, or disease existed prior to service and if it was aggravated by military service-the illness, injury, disease, or death occurred while the member was absent from duty-the illness, injury, disease, or death was due to the member's own misconduct
69
A Line of Duty (LOD) Determination is significant because it may affect: (18.27.)
-disability retirement and severance pay-forfeiture of pay and period of enlistment-veterans' benefits
70
The Military Health System (MHS) is a partnership of medical educators, medical researchers, and healthcare providers and their support personnel worldwide. This DoD enterprise consists of: (18.32.1.)
-the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs-the medical departments of the Army, Navy, Marine Corps, Air Force, and Coast Guard-the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Combatant Command surgeons, and TRICARE providers
71
The Military Health System (MHS) mission is: (18.32.3.)
to provide optimal health services in support of our nation's military mission -anytime, anywhere
72
The TRICARE mission is: (18.33.2.)
to enhance DoD and national security by providing health support for the full range of military operations and sustaining the health of all those entrusted to our care
73
TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: (18.35.)
three in the United States and one overseas (that is divided into three main areas)
74
TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: three in the United States and one overseas (which is divided into three areas). The three U.S. regions are: (18.35.)
North, South, and West
75
TRICARE is available worldwide and is managed in four separate regions: three in the United States and one overseas (which is divided into three areas). The U.S. regions are North, South, and West. The overseas regions are: (18.35.)
TRICARE Eurasia-Africa, TRICARE Latin America and Canada, and TRICARE Pacific
76
The three primary healthcare options offered to eligible TRICARE beneficiaries are: (18.36.)
TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra
77
The three healthcare choices for eligible members are: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The option that provides care to active duty members and their families with no enrollment fees, annual deductibles, or copayments is _______. (18.36.1.)
TRICARE Prime
78
TRICARE offers military members three choices for their healthcare: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The only option available to active duty service members is _______. (18.36.1.)
TRICARE Prime
79
The TRICARE Prime option for those active duty service members and family members who live and work 50 miles or an hour's drive from a military treatment facility is _______. (18.36.1.1.)
TRICARE Prime Remote (TPR)
80
The three healthcare choices for eligible members are: TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard, and TRICARE Extra. The option that is a fee-for-service plan available to all nonactive duty beneficiaries is _______. (18.36.2.)
TRICARE StandardTRICARE Extra
81
TRICARE Standard and Extra are fee-for-service plans available to all non-active duty beneficiaries. The type of provider seen determines which option is being used. If visiting a non-network provider, the _______ option is being used. (18.36.2.)
Standard
82
TRICARE Standard and Extra are fee-for-service plans available to all non-active duty beneficiaries. The type of provider seen determines which option is being used. If visiting a network provider, the _______ option is being used. (18.36.2.)
Extra
83
The TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) is a voluntary, premium-based insurance plan. Who is not eligible for the TDP? (18.37.)
active duty service members and Reservists on active duty for more than 30 days
84
The second leading cause of death amongst Regular Air Force personnel is: (18.39.)
suicide
85
The leading cause of death amongst Regular Air Force personnel is: (18.39.)
accidents
86
Within the Air Force, the most common stressors seen in the lives of those who die by suicide are: (18.39.)
-work problems-mental health problems-relationship problems and legal problems
87
There are two personal perceptions that place someone at risk for suicide: (18.41.)
-a perception of a lack of belongingness with others-a perception that they are a burden to those around them
88
There are two perceptions that place someone at risk for suicide: a perception of not belonging and of being a burden to those around them. A final factor that leads to suicide is: (18.41.)
the development of the ability to take your own life
89
In addition to the perceptions of not belonging or of being a burden to others, a final factor that leads to suicide is the development of the ability to take your own life. The most common method of acquiring this capability in the Air Force is _______. (18.41.)
the acquisition of a firearm
90
It's important to understand that suicides: (18.42.)
are often preventable
91
Common risk factors for suicide include: (18.43.)
-severe, prolonged, or unmanageable stress-difficulty coping or functioning; lack of social support or social isolation-escalating alcohol or drug use and feelings of hopelessness or depression
92
The most dangerous time of year for suicides is _______. (18.49.4.)
statistics do not indicate a significant difference between the months
93
From 2007 through 2009, only 25% of Air Force suicide victims saw an Air Force mental health provider in the month before their deaths, but 100% were seen by their supervisors and peers the month before their deaths. This means that: (18.52.3.)
successful risk identification rests with the potential victim's peers and first-line supervisor
94
The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Air Force Suicide Prevention Program is: (18.53.)
the Air Force Surgeon General (HQ USAF/SG)
95
Suicide prevention is the responsibility of: (18.56.)
everyone
96
To facilitate personal engagement in suicide prevention, the Air Force developed an acronym to help people remember the key steps. The acronym is ACE which stands for: (18.56.1.)
ask, care, and escort
97
To facilitate personal engagement in suicide prevention, the Air Force developed an acronym to help people remember the key steps. The acronym is ACE which stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Ask refers to: (18.56.1.1.)
asking questions to learn more about a person's problems or concerns
98
To facilitate personal engagement in suicide prevention, the Air Force developed an acronym to help people remember the key steps. The acronym is ACE which stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Care refers to: (18.56.1.2.)
showing care and concern for those at risk by talking to them
99
To facilitate personal engagement in suicide prevention, the Air Force developed an acronym to help people remember the key steps. The acronym is ACE which stands for Ask, Care, and Escort. Escort refers to: (18.56.1.3.)
escorting a person to the person or agency that can provide assistance
100
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "exposure to a traumatic event" means: (18.57.1.)
experiencing or witnessing an event involving actual or threatened death or serious injury
101
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "re-experiencing the event" means: (18.57.2.)
recurrent and intrusive memories of the event when cues remind the individual of the event, or flashbacks
102
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "avoidance or numbing" means: (18.57.3.)
efforts to avoid thoughts and feelings related to the event, inability to recall important aspects of the trauma
103
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "persistent arousal symptoms" are: (18.57.4.)
sleep difficulties, angry outbursts, hypervigilance, and exaggerated startle response
104
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "symptom duration of greater than 1 month" means: (18.57.5.)
the diagnosis of PTSD is not made unless the symptoms persist for at least a month
105
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder involves six components: exposure to a traumatic event, re-experiencing the event, avoidance or numbing, persistent arousal symptoms, symptom duration of greater than 1 month, and significant distress or impairment. "significant distress or impairment" means: (18.57.6.)
the other symptoms of PTSD will lead to significant social or work impairment
106
Personnel who have a moderate or high chance of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the following preparation principles: (18.58.)
Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope
107
Personnel who are at risk of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the preparation principles of Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope. Engage in Realistic Training means to: (18.58.1.)
train using exposure to realistic events such as body handling, survival training, and mock captivity training
108
Personnel who are at risk of being exposed to a traumatic event and developing PTSD can enhance their psychological resilience with the preparation principles of Engage in Realistic Training and Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope. Strengthen Perceived Ability to Cope means to: (18.58.2.)
teach coping mechanisms during training in order to strengthen coping skills in anticipation of actual trauma
109
Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, defined stress as: (18.59.1.)
the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it
110
Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, defined stress as "the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it". The demand in Selye's definition is commonly called: (18.59.1.)
a stressor
111
Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, concluded that the body's reaction to stress was the same whether the source was good or bad. He labeled the stress experienced from positive factors as: (18.59.2.)
eustress
112
Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, concluded that the body's reaction to stress was the same regardless of whether the source was good or bad. He labeled the stress experienced from negative factors as: (18.59.2.)
distress
113
Hans Selye found that there are two types of stress: positive stress (eustress) and negative stress (distress). What type of stress results from losing, failing, overworking, or not coping effectively? (18.59.2.)
distress
114
Hans Selye found that there are two types of stress: positive stress (eustress) and negative stress (distress). What type of stress results from exhilarating experiences such as winning and achieving? (18.59.2.)
eustress
115
We are in daily contact with many types of stressors. For the most part, we can categorize them into two major areas: (18.59.3.)
organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors
116
In general, we can categorize the stressors we encounter every day into two major areas: organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors. Organizational stressors are: (18.59.3.1.)
the type of factors experienced in the work environment
117
In general, we can categorize the stressors we encounter every day into two major areas: organizational stressors and extra-organizational stressors. Extra-organizational stressors are: (18.59.3.2.)
-stressors occurring in one's personal life or family-family issues, marital issues, and financial issues-the type of factors experienced outside the work environment
118
How do you know if you're stressed? The key to recognizing stress is: (18.59.4.)
to understand what is normal for you so you can recognize when something changes
119
How do you know if you are stressed? Stress reactions appear in three different categories: (18.59.4.)
emotional, behavioral, and physical
120
Stress management programs and methods vary, but they all have common goals. Individual stress management methods aim at strengthening your ability to manage stressors and the stress response. Organizational stress management methods aim more at: (18.59.6.)
altering potential stressors themselves
121
There are many individual stress management methods. Which one consists of identifying potential stressors before they cause problems and developing strategies to avoid their effects? (18.60.1.)
Planning
122
There are many individual stress management methods. Which one consists of using effective time management skills and tools, like developing a task list and prioritizing tasks? (18.60.2.)
Time Management
123
There are many individual stress management methods. Which one relieves stress by identifying and avoiding busy work, delegating or empowering others when possible, learning to say no, and attempting to negotiate unreasonable deadlines? (18.60.3.)
Overload Avoidance
124
Organizational stress management methods focus on identifying and removing stressors in the workplace. Which organizational stress management method examines the job itself to determine if there is a need for the task and if the task is feasible? (18.61.1.)
Job Design
125
Which organizational stress management method examines such environmental factors as temperature, noise, and light levels and makes necessary improvements? (18.61.2.)
Improving the Work Environment
126
Which organizational stress management method focuses on improving communication and keeping your subordinates informed? (18.61.3.)
Improving Organizational Communication
127
Which organizational stress management method involves matching individuals to their assigned positions? (18.61.4.)
Personnel Selection and Job Placement
128
Which organizational stress management method involves monitoring the work environment and identifying substance abuse problems that have a negative effect on mission, morale, and readiness? (18.61.5.)
Substance Abuse Programs
129
The goal of the redeployment support process is to ensure personnel readiness by providing timely support for our military members and their families. Redeployment support is _______. (18.62.)
an ongoing process
130
The intent of the redeployment support process is to provide continuous, integrated support from the area of responsibility (AOR) to home station and to assist in the transition from the deployed environment to: (18.62.)
family life and work site
131
After a long deployment, a recovery period provides time for returning Airmen to tend to personal needs. ________ is responsible for establishing personnel recovery (leave, passes, attribution, and retention) policies. (18.63.)
each MAJCOM
132
Although it's important to support returning forces as they transition back to their normal environment, they must be ready for further deployments. While there is no one correct rule for reconstitution planning, consideration must be given to: (18.64.)
-recovering lost training-aspects determined by the unit based on the situation-prioritizing and restoring levels of consumables expended during the crisis
133
While there is no one correct rule set for reconstitution planning, consideration must be given to prioritizing and restoring levels of consumables expended during the crisis, and recovering lost training. What AFI provides further guidance? (18.64.)
AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution
134
The Air Force redeployment support process applies to all personnel deployed to: (18.65.)
-an AOR-remote assignments-continental United States locations in support of contingencies
135
The Air Force redeployment support process applies to personnel deployed to an AOR, to CONUS locations in support of contingencies, and to remote assignments. Key determinants for participation are: (18.65.)
lengthy family separation and significant family-related stressors prior to redeployment
136
The Personnel Readiness function will ensure procedures are established to account for members returning from deployments. These procedures will be incorporated into _______. (18.67.1.)
installation reconstitution planning and the Installation Deployment Plan
137
Returning units and individuals will inprocess with the personnel readiness function within _______ of redeployment day. (18.67.1.)
two duty days
138
Chaplain service members support personnel, families, and base populations during contingencies in accordance with: (18.67.2.)
AFI 52-104, Chaplain Corps Readiness
139
These protocols help bases respond to increased childcare needs during contingencies and during the Air and Space Expeditionary Force cycle: (18.67.4.)
Force Support Squadron and Family Member Program Protocols
