Chapter 19: Hepatitis and Liver Disease Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route through improper hand washing after exposure to an infected person or via contaminated food/water

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2
Q

How are Hep B and C transmitted?

A

contact with infectious blood or other body fluids

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3
Q

Which type(s) of hepatitis has a vaccine?

A

Hep A and B

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4
Q

First-line treatment for Hep A?

A

Supportive therapy

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5
Q

First-line treatment for Hep B?

A

PEG-INF or NRTI (tenofovir or entecavir)

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6
Q

First-line treatment for Hep C?

A

Treatment naiive: DAA combination (2-3 with different mechs)

Other: DAA combination + RBV or DAA combination + RBV + PEG-INF

DAA treatment lasts 8-12 weeks

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7
Q

What is the purpose of ritonavir for HCV?

A

used to boost levels of HCV protease inhibitors used with it

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8
Q

T/F: DAAs offer a cure for most patients with HCV?

A

True

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9
Q

Which drug class ends in -privir?

A

NS3/4A Protease inhibitor (P for PI)

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10
Q

Which drug class ends in -asvir?

A

N55A Replication Complex Inhibitor (A for N55A)

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11
Q

Which drug class ends in -buvir?

A

N55B Polymerase Inhibitor (B for N55B)

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12
Q

What do the protease inhibitors used for HIV and HCV have in common?

A

They are taken with food

Remember: PIG - Protease Inhibitors & Grub

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13
Q

Boxed warning for all DAAs?

A

Risk of reactivating HBV

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14
Q

Warning for sofosbuvir-containing regimens?

A

Serious symptomatic bradycardia has been reported when amiodarone is taken with sofosbuvir-containing regimen; do not use together

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15
Q

Sofosbuvir/velpatasvir brand name?

A

Epclusa

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16
Q

Glecaprevir/pibrentasvir brand name?

A

Mavyret

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17
Q

How are the tablets in Viekira Pak taken?

A

2 tabs of paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir once daily in the morning and 1 dasabuvir tablet twice daily with meals

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18
Q

T/F: Sofosbuvir monotherapy is NOT effective and NOT recommended?

A

True

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19
Q

Which HCV drugs must you avoid or minimize acid suppressive therapy with during treatment?

A

Epclusa, Harvoni, & Vosevi

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20
Q

Which HCV drugs are pan-genotypic (approved for all 6 HCV genotypes) for treatment naive?

A

Epclusa & Mavyret

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21
Q

CI for paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir (Technivie) + dasabuvir (Viekira Pak)?

A

3A4 substrates or inducers & use with ethinyl estradiol, lovastatin & simvastatin

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22
Q

Warnings for paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir (Technivie) + dasabuvir (Viekira Pak)?

A

Hepatic decompensation/failure in patients with cirrhosis, risk of increased LFTs, significant drug interaction potential

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23
Q

CI for Elbasvir/grazoprevir (Zepatier)?

A

3A4 inducers

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24
Q

Warnings for Elbasvir/grazoprevir (Zepatier)?

A

Risk of increased LFTs, significant drug interaction potential

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25
All DAAs are CI with strong ____?
inducers of 3A4 (e.g., carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, rifabutin, and St. John’s Wort)
26
____, ____ & ____ can decrease concentrations of ledipasvir and velpatasvir?
Antacids, H2RAs, PPIs
27
PPIs are not recommended for use with ____?
Epclusa
28
Do not use Harvoni with ____?
Stribild
29
T/F: Ribavirin CANNOT be used as monotherapy for HCV?
True - use in combo with other drugs (DAAs and/or interferon alfa)
30
Aerosolized ribavirin has been used for?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
31
Ribavirin boxed warnings?
Significant teratogenic effects; hemolytic anemia
32
Ribavirin CI?
pregnancy
33
Ribavirin side effects?
Hemolytic anemia
34
When should pregnancy be avoided with Ribavirin?
during therapy and 6 months after completion; need 2 reliable forms of contraceptives
35
Which form of INF-alfa prolongs the half-life, reducing the dose to once weekly?
Pegylated form
36
Interferon alfas are used for: Interferon betas are used for?
alfa: HBV, HCV, & some cancers ## Footnote beta: multiple sclerosis
37
INF-alfa boxed warnings?
can cause or exacerbate neuropsychiatric, autoimmune, ischemic or infectious disorders; if used with ribavirin, teratogenic/anemia risk
38
INF-alfa side effects?
CNS effects (fatigue, depression), GI upset, increased LFTs (5-10x ULN during treatment), myelpsuppression ## Footnote Flu-like syndrome (fever, chills, HA, malaise), pre-treat with APAP and an antihistamine
39
T/F: Interferon alfa CANNOT be used as monotherapy?
FALSE
40
What is the preferred treatment for HBV?
INF-alfa
41
MOA of NRTIs?
Inhibit HBV replication by inhibiting HBV polymerase resulting in DNA chain termination
42
What should be done before a patient can start on an NRTI for HBV?
All pts should be tested for HIV
43
Why must patients be tested for HIV before starting an NRTI?
Antivirals used for HBV can have activity against HIV and if a pt is co-infected with both HIV and HBV, it is important that the chosen therapy is appropriate for both viruses to minimize risk of HIB antiviral resistance
44
All HBV NRTIs should have a decreased dose or frequency with CrCl < ____ mL/min?
50
45
Boxed warnings for all NRTIs?
Lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis, which can be fatal ## Footnote Exacerbations for HBV upon d/c
46
Tenofovir disoproxil brand name?
Viread ## Footnote remember - read dis
47
Tenofovir alafenamide brand name?
Vemlidy
48
Entecavir brand name?
Baraclutide
49
Lamivudine brand name?
Epivir HBV
50
Which NRTIs are the preferred therapy in HBV?
Tenofovir disoproxil ## Footnote Tenofovir alafenamide Entecavir
51
Which NRTI should be taken on an empty stomach?
Entecavir (Baraclutide) ## Footnote remember - empty and entecavir both start with E
52
Tenofovir disoproxil & Tenofovir alafenamide warnings?
renal toxicity and/or Fanconi syndrome, osteomalacia, and decreased bone mineral density
53
Tenofovir disoproxil side effects?
renal impairment, decreased bone mineral density
54
Tenofovir alafenamide side effects?
nausea ## Footnote Less renal and bone toxicity
55
Adefovir (Hepsera) boxed warnings?
Caution in pts with renal impairment or those at risk of renal toxicity (including concurrent nephrotoxic drugs or NSAIDs)
56
Lamivudine boxed warning?
Do not use Lamivudine HBV for treatment of HIV
57
Lamivudine side effects?
HA, N/V/D
58
Tenofovir disoproxil & tenofovir alafenamide should not be used with ____ due to increased risk of virologic failure and potential for increased side effects?
Adefovir ## Footnote remember this b/c they have the same ending of -fovir
59
Most common causes of cirrhosis?
Hepatitis C and alcohol consumption ## Footnote remember this b/c Hep C and cirrhosis
60
Clinical presentation of cirrhosis?
yellowed skin and yellowed whites of the eyes (jaundice)
61
Albumin levels in liver disease
Low
62
Total bilirubin levels in liver disease
High
63
PT levels in liver disease
High
64
Which type of liver disease is associated with ↑ AST/ALT?
Acute liver toxicity, including from drugs
65
Which type of liver disease is associated with ↑ AST/ALT, Alk Phos, Tbili, LDH, PT/INR and ↓ Albumin?
Chronic liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis)
66
Which type of liver disease is associated with ↑ AST > ↑ ALT (AST will be ~2x ALT) and ↑ GGT?
Alcoholic liver disease
67
Which type of liver disease is associated with ↑ ammonia?
Hepatic encephalopathy
68
Which type of liver disease is associated with ↑ Tbili?
Jaundice
69
In general, caution is advised when using hepatically cleared drugs in which Child Pugh class?
Class C (severe liver disease)
70
Which natural product is used for liver disease?
Milk Thistle
71
Which natural product is a known hepatotoxin?
Kava
72
Hepatotoxic drugs are typically d/c when the LFTs are > ___ xULN?
3 times ULN
73
Which class of drugs should be avoided in patients with cirrhosis because they can lead to decompensation, including bleeding?
NSAIDs
74
Key drugs that have a boxed warning for liver damage?
APAP, Amiodarone, Isoniazid, Ketoconazole (oral), MTX, Nefazodone, Nevirapine, NRTIs, PTU, Tipranavir, Valproic Acid
75
Alcoholic liver disease can include?
Fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, and chronic hepatitis
76
Chronic alcohol ingestion over a long period of time causes?
Steatosis or fatty liver
77
Which drugs are used for relapse in alcoholics?
Naltrexone, acamprosate and disulfuram
78
Which vitamin is used to prevent and treat Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in alcoholics?
Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
79
Portal hypertension can cause complications including the development and bleeding of?
Esophageal varices (enlarged veins in the lower part of the esophagus)
80
What are recommended first line treatments for bleeding varices?
Band ligation or sclerotherapy
81
Which drug is selective for the splanchnic vessels?
Octreotide
82
Which drug is non-selective for the splanchnic vessels?
Vasopressin
83
Which drug class should be added after resolution of variceal bleeding for secondary prevention?
Non-selective BB
84
Which non-selective BB are used for primary prevention of variceal bleeding?
Nadolol and propranolol
85
Nadolol brand name?
Corgard
86
The BB used for portal hypertension is titrated to the max tolerated dose with a target HR between ___ = ___ BPM and continued indefinitely.
55-60 BPM
87
What are symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy?
Musty odor of breath and/or urine, changes in thinking, confusion, forgetfulness, hand tremor (asterixis) ## Footnote Result from an accumulation of gut-derived nitrogenous substances in the blood such as ammonia.
88
Besides drug therapy, how is hepatic encephalopathy treated?
Reducing blood ammonia levels through the diet (limiting the amount of animal protein)
89
Which drug is first-line for both acute and chronic (prevention) therapy for hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose followed by rifaximin
90
Lactulose works by?
Converting ammonia products by intestinal bacteria to ammonium
91
Lactulose side effects?
Flatulence, diarrhea, dyspepsia, abdominal discomfort
92
Rifaximin brand name?
Xifaxan
93
Neomycin boxed warning?
Neurotoxicity
94
Neomycin SE?
GI upset
95
Metronidazole should not be used long term d/t?
Peripheral neuropathies
96
What is ascites?
Fluid accumulation within the peritoneal space
97
Patients with ascites d/t portal HTN should restrict ______?
Dietary sodium intake
98
Diuretic therapy for ascites can be initiated with either ______ monotherapy or with a combination of ____ and ____?
Spironolactone monotherapy ## Footnote Furosemide and spironolactone.
99
When Furosemide and spironolactone are used in combination for ascites, they should be titrated to a max weight loss of 0.5 kg/day with a ratio of ____ mg furosemide to ___ mg spironolactone to maintain K balance?
40 mg furosemide:100 mg spironolactone
100
Which antibiotic is used for Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Ceftriaxone to target Streptococci and enteric Gram negative pathogens