chapter 28, 29, 30, 31, and 32 questions

Question 1

Microbiology is the study of microbes. These include all but which of the following?
A. Archaea
B. Bacteria
C. viruses
D. plants

Answer 1

plants

Question 2

What general feature is necessary to consider an organism a microbe?
A. small enough that a microscope is required to see them
B. heterotrophic
C. sexual reproduction
D. use aerobic respiration for metabolism

Answer 2

small enough that a microscope is required to see them

Question 3

Miller’s laboratory experiments showed that
A. it is possible to form protocells.
B. the primitive gases can react together to produce small organic molecules.
C. atmospheric pressure is required for life to begin.
D. the earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old.

Answer 3

the primitive gases can react together to produce small organic molecules

Question 4

Which of the following kinds of molecules is thought to have been absent from the
primitive reducing atmosphere?
A. water vapor (H2O)
B. methane (CH4)
C. hydrogen (H2)
D. oxygen (O2)

Answer 4

oxygen (O2)

Question 5

Considering the various theories, the energy used in forming organic molecules in the
primitive atmosphere could have come from all EXCEPT
A. lightning.
B. ultraviolet radiation.
C. heat from volcanoes.
D. sound.

Answer 5

sound

Question 6

What is the evolutionary relationship among archaea, bacteria, and eukarya?
A. Since archaea are the most primitive, archaean ancestors gave rise to
bacteria that in turn gave rise to eukaryotes.
B. All three domains are equally distant from the most primitive common
ancestor, a protocell.
C. Archaea and eukarya share nucleic acid similarities, so eukarya split off from
archaea.
D. Bacterial ancestors gave rise to both archaea and to eukaryotes as two
separate side branches.

Answer 6

Archaea and eukarya share nucleic acid similarities, so eukarya split off from
archaea.

Question 7

A new classification by domains separates prokaryotes into
A. Bacteria and Cyanobacteria.
B. photosynthetic bacteria and chemosynthetic bacteria.
C. Archaea and Bacteria.
D. autotrophs and heterotrophs.

Answer 7

Archaea and Bacteria.

Question 8

One bacterial cell passes DNA to a second cell through a sex pilus in the process of
A. transformation.
B. transduction.
C. conjugation.
D. replication

Answer 8

conjugation

Question 9

Bacterial cells pick up free pieces of DNA from the medium pieces that were released
from dead bacteria in a process called
A. transformation.
B. transduction.
C. conjugation.
D. replication

Answer 9

transformation.

Question 10

Which of these is a correct description of a form of horizontal gene transfer in
bacteria?
A. Crossing-over occurs between paired chromosomes in meiosis.
B. Conjugation occurs when a cell passes DNA to another cell by means of a
sex pilus.
C. Transformation occurs when a bacteriophage carries a bit of DNA from a
previous host cell to a new host cell.
D. Transduction occurs when a live bacterium picks up DNA from dead bacteria
that have shed it into the environment of the living cell.

Answer 10

Conjugation occurs when a cell passes DNA to another cell by means of a
sex pilus.

Question 11

Which type of genetic exchange occurs among bacteria in which DNA is carried into
a bacterial cell by means of a virus?
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. budding

Answer 11

transduction

Question 12

Which statement is true about bacteria?
A. They contain a nucleus.
B. They lack ribosomes.
C. They usually lack a cell wall.
D. They contain a single, circular DNA molecule as the genetic material.

Answer 12

They contain a single, circular DNA molecule as the genetic material.

Question 13

Which statement is NOT true about bacteria?
A. They lack mitochondria.
B. They lack a nucleus but contain DNA.
C. They reproduce sexually.
D. They have a single circular chromosome

Answer 13

They reproduce sexually.

Question 14

The capsid of a virus is composed of
A. RNA.
B. protein.
C. DNA.
D. cellulose.
E. lipid.

Answer 14

protein

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?
A. The genome may be DNA or RNA.
B. They contain nucleic acid, protein, and mitochondria.
C. They exhibit host specificity.
D. They are obligate intracellular parasites.

Answer 15

They contain nucleic acid, protein, and mitochondria.

Question 16

The innermost core of a virus’s structure is made up of
A. a membranous envelope.
B. either DNA or RNA.
C. a protein capsid.
D. a protein spore coat.

Answer 16

either DNA or RNA

Question 17

A viral envelope describes
A. the outer layer of some viruses composed of the host’s plasma membrane
B. viral DNA.
C. a prion.
D. a protein capsid.

Answer 17

the outer layer of some viruses composed of the host’s plasma membrane

Question 18

Which of these is the most accurate description of a virus?
A. a noncellular living organism
B. one of the smallest bacteria known
C. a cell at the boundary between living and nonliving things
D. chemical complexes of RNA or DNA protected by protein

Answer 18

chemical complexes of RNA or DNA protected by protein

Question 19

Which of the following is considered to be acellular?
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. algae
D. protozoans
E. viruses

Answer 19

viruses

Question 20

The life cycle stage of an animal virus during which a mature capsid forms around
copies of the viral RNA genome is
A. budding.
B. biosynthesis.
C. uncoating.
D. assembly.

Answer 20

assembly

Question 21

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), or “mad cow disease,” is caused by a(n)
A. archeon.
B. bacterium.
C. cyanobacterium.
D. prion.
E. virus.

Answer 21

prion

Question 22

Which stage of viral reproduction takes place when the spikes of the virus bind to a
specific receptor molecule on the surface of a host cell?
A. attachment stage
B. penetration stage
C. biosynthesis stage
D. release stage

Answer 22

attachment stage

Question 23

When an enveloped animal virus enters a cell during the entry stage,
A. the next thing it does is assemble a new virus.
B. the envelope is removed after the virus is inside the cell’s nucleus.
C. the protein capsid is removed through uncoating to expose the viral genome.
D. it immediately integrates its nucleic acid genome into the host chromosomes.

Answer 23

the protein capsid is removed through uncoating to expose the viral genome.

Question 24

Some human diseases appear to be due to protein agents that may convert other
normal proteins in the cell to also become these agents. This new disease protein agent
is called a(n)
A. prion.
B. cyanobacterium.
C. phage.
D. retrovirus.

Answer 24

prion

Question 25

Who invented the term "virus"? A. Louis Pasteur B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek C. Stanley Miller D. Harold Urey

Answer 25

Louis Pasteur

Question 26

Cyanobacteria A. do photosynthesis similar to green plants. B. are heterotrophs. C. have a nucleus and chloroplast. D. split hydrogen sulfide.

Answer 26

do photosynthesis similar to green plants.

Question 27

The process of bacterial reproduction is referred to as A. binary fission. B. budding. C. mitosis. D. meiosis.

Answer 27

binary fission

Question 27

Which type of archaean is likely to be found in the intestines of animals? A. Methanogen. B. Halophile. C. Thermacidophile.

Answer 27

methanogen

Question 27

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek A. improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules. B. invented the idea of spontaneous generation. C. did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation. D. tested theories about how organic molecules could form without the presence of life.

Answer 27

improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules.

Question 27

The first membranes that formed before full cells were likely made of A. fatty acids. B. phospholipids. C. proteins. D. RNA.

Answer 27

fatty acids

Question 27

Single-celled eukaryotes are A. Protists. B. Archaea. C. land plants. D. animals.

Answer 27

protists

Question 27

Which features set most of the members of protista apart from the rest of the kingdoms? A. unicellular and microscopic B. multicellular and microscopic C. photosynthetic and unicellular D. None of the answer choices is correct.

Answer 27

unicellular and microscopic

Question 27

Which protist is NOT correctly linked to the type of movement it shows? A. amoeboids-pseudopodia B. ciliates-cilia C. Euglena-pseudopod D. Paramecium-cilia

Answer 27

Euglena-pseudopod

Question 27

Louis Pasteur A. improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules. B. invented the idea of spontaneous generation. C. did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation. D. tested theories about how organic molecules could form without the presence of life.

Answer 27

did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation.

Question 27

Members of which genus of algae are found in ponds and have chloroplasts that are arranged in a spiral? A. Spirogyra B. Euglena C. Chlamydomonas D. Volvox

Answer 27

Spirogyra

Question 27

The ____ algae are thought to be closely related to the first plants because they share most of the characteristics of plants. A. brown B. red C. green D. pink

Answer 27

green

Question 27

Which is an example of an alga? A. amoebae B. slime molds C. diatoms D. ciliates

Answer 27

diatoms

Question 28

Which of the following organisms move about by means of pseudopodia? A. trypanosome B. Amoeba proteus C. Chlamydomonas D. Paramecium caudatum

Answer 28

Amoeba proteus

Question 29

The kingdom ____ are characterized by having filaments called hyphae that are used to absorb nutrients. A. Archaea B. Protista C. Fungi D. Animalia E. Plantae

Answer 29

Fungi

Question 30

Molds (except slime and water molds) and mushrooms belong to the kingdom A. Protists. B. Fungi. C. Plantae. D. Animalia.

Answer 30

Fungi

Question 31

An organism that will feed on dead plants, animals, and microbes are called A. autotrophic. B. heterotrophic. C. saprotrophs. D. parasitic.

Answer 31

saprotrophs.

Question 32

____ are organisms that break down dead organic matter in order to absorb the nutrient molecules. A. Eukaryotes B. Parasites C. Saprotrophs D. Heterotrophs

Answer 32

Saprotrophs

Question 33

____ are mostly saprotrophic decomposers that assist in recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. A. Algae B. Fungi C. Protozoans D. Ciliates

Answer 33

Fungi

Question 34

In what way are fungi like heterotrophic bacteria? A. They both produce gametes. B. They are both heterotrophic and play an important role in ecosystems. C. They both have cell walls of the same material. D. They are both photosynthetic and thus are producers. E. They are both eukaryotic.

Answer 34

They are both heterotrophic and play an important role in ecosystems.

Question 35

At one time, biologists thought that fungi were merely forms of plants that had lost their chlorophyll and had returned to saprotrophy to gain food. Why is this no longer considered a solid theory? A. Fungal cell walls contain chitin rather than cellulose. B. Fungi attack and engulf food for internal digestion. C. Fungi have flagella at some stage, providing mobility that plants never have. D. Plants are multicellular and fungi are unicellular or multinucleated noncellular plasmodia. E. Plants store glycogen, while fungi store starch.

Answer 35

Fungal cell walls contain chitin rather than cellulose.

Question 36

Fungi are NOT photosynthetic because they lack A. xylem. B. cell walls. C. chloroplasts. D. cell membrane.

Answer 36

chloroplasts.

Question 37

A chain of asexual spores produced by a sac fungus is called A. a mycelium. B. a conidia. C. an ascospore. D. a basidiospore.

Answer 37

a conidia.

Question 38

The mycelium is a mesh of filaments, each of which is called A. a conidium. B. an ascospore. C. a basidiospore. D. a hypha.

Answer 38

a hypha.

Question 39

When the cap of an average gilled mushroom is cut off and shaken, a cloud of powdery material is released. The material released are A. mycelia. B. sporangia. C. hyphae. D. spores. E. seeds.

Answer 39

spores

Question 40

Amoebae A. have pseudopodia. B. have a nucleus C. are heterotrophic. D. all of the above are true. E. Only A and C are true.

Answer 40

all of the above are true.

Question 41

Diatoms A. are unicellular algae with glassy cell walls. B. have pseudopodia. C. are excavates. D. all of the above are true. E. Only A and B are true.

Answer 41

are unicellular algae with glassy cell walls.

Question 42

Euglena A. is an excavate. B. is an chromalveolate. C. has an eyespot. D. all of the above are true. E. Only A and C are true.

Answer 42

Only A and C are true.

Question 43

Lichens A. are a symbiotic relationship between an alga and fungus. B. thrive in areas of high pollution. C. cause the flavors in blue cheese. D. are important in making bread.

Answer 43

are a symbiotic relationship between an alga and fungus.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is NOT true about alternation of generations life cycle? A. Meiosis produces spores that are haploid. B. Spores develop into the gametophyte generation. C. The gametophyte produces eggs and sperm. D. When the sperm fertilizes the egg, a zygote results that develops into the sporophyte. E. The sporophyte generation produces gametes by mitosis in structures called sporangia.

Answer 44

The sporophyte generation produces gametes by mitosis in structures called sporangia.

Question 45

Which sequence is correct in the life cycle of alternation of generations? A. gametophyte → gametes → spores → sporophyte B. gametophyte → gametes → zygote → spores → sporophyte C. gametophyte → spores → gametes → zygote → sporophyte D. gametophyte → gametes → zygote → sporophyte → spores

Answer 45

gametophyte → gametes → zygote → sporophyte → spores

Question 46

A major evolutionary trend among plants is A. a reduction in the size of the gametophyte and an increase in the size of the sporophyte. B. a reduction in the size of the sporophyte and an increase in the size of the gametophyte. C. an increase in the size of both the sporophyte and the gametophyte. D. a decrease in the size of both the sporophyte and the gametophyte.

Answer 46

a reduction in the size of the gametophyte and an increase in the size of the sporophyte.

Question 47

Which of the following is NOT a significant event in the evolution of plants? A. protection of the embryo B. evolution of vascular tissue C. evolution of the seed D. evolution of the flower E. evolution of the blastula

Answer 47

evolution of the blastula

Question 48

In the moss life cycle, the ______ generation is dominant. A. haploid gametophyte B. diploid gametophyte C. diploid sporophyte D. diploid antheridium

Answer 48

haploid gametophyte

Question 49

Which life cycle phase is diploid in moss? A. sporophyte generation B. gametophyte generation C. gametes D. spores

Answer 49

sporophyte generation

Question 50

Haploid spores are produced in the ___ of a moss. A. antheridia B. archegonia C. sporangium D. anther

Answer 50

sporangium

Question 51

Which of the following is a nonvascular plant that has the longest evolutionary history on land? A. ferns B. bristlecone pine tree C. moss D. redwood tree

Answer 51

moss

Question 52

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a fern? A. Ferns are quite small since they lack vascular tissue B. Fern sporophyte is the dominant generation in the fern life cycle. C. Fern sporophyte leaves first appear in a curled-up form termed a fiddlehead. D. Fern sporophyte is vascular.

Answer 52

Ferns are quite small since they lack vascular tissue

Question 53

In the life cycle of a fern, the zygote A. becomes the sporophyte generation. B. becomes the gametophyte generation. C. undergoes meiosis. D. is haploid.

Answer 53

becomes the sporophyte generation.

Question 54

In the fern life cycle, the ______ generation is dominant. A. haploid gametophyte B. diploid gametophyte C. haploid sporophyte D. diploid sporophyte

Answer 54

diploid sporophyte

Question 55

Which statement is NOT true about ferns? A. The sporophyte stage lacks vascular tissue. B. Antheridia and archegonia develop on the prothallus of the gametophyte stage. C. Fertilization requires moisture for the sperm to swim to the egg within the archegonia. D. The sporophyte stage is the dominant generation.

Answer 55

The sporophyte stage lacks vascular tissue.

Question 56

The reproductive parts of an angiosperm are the A. petals and sepals. B. petals and stamen. C. sepals and stamen. D. sepals and carpel. E. carpel and stamen.

Answer 56

carpel and stamen.

Question 57

During pollination in angiosperms, pollen grains will stick to the enlarged knob in the center of the flower called the A. stigma. B. style. C. ovary. D. ovule. E. anther

Answer 57

stigma.

Question 58

Ovules are contained within the A. ovary. B. stigma. C. anther. D. filament. E. style.

Answer 58

ovary.

Question 59

The stigma, style, and ovary are located in a A. carpel. B. sepal. C. receptacle. D. petal. E. stamen.

Answer 59

carpel.

Question 60

Botanically, a seed is a structure developed from a(n) A. style. B. ovule. C. stigma. D. anther. E. sepal.

Answer 60

ovule.

Question 61

A plant that makes seeds but not flowers would be A. a pine tee. B. a grass. C. a moss. D. a fern.

Answer 61

a pine tee.

Question 62

Put these in the order in which they occurred over evolutionary time.

Answer 62

1. Evolution of the Embryo 2. Evolution of Vascular Tissue 3. Evolution of the Seed 4. Evolution of the Flower

Question 63

Animals that have no particular symmetry exhibit A. asymmetry. B. radial symmetry. C. bilateral symmetry. D. trilateral symmetry

Answer 63

asymmetry.

Question 64

Which type of animal symmetry produces mirror images of each other no matter how the animal is sliced longitudinally? A. radial symmetry B. asymmetrical symmetry C. bilateral symmetry D. asymmetrical symmetry and bilateral symmetry

Answer 64

radial symmetry

Question 65

The term deuterostome refers to A. having a spiny skin. B. having three germ layers. C. possessing a notochord. D. the second embryonic opening becoming the mouth.

Answer 65

the second embryonic opening becoming the mouth.

Question 66

Which difference distinguishes protostomes from deuterostomes? A. One has a nervous system, and one doesn't. B. Their embryonic development is different. C. One has cephalization and one doesn't. D. One has a notochord and one doesn't.

Answer 66

Their embryonic development is different

Question 67

Which of the following is NOT true about protostomes? A. They form a true coelom. B. The first opening during embryonic development becomes the anus. C. They will become mollusks, annelids, and arthropods. D. They are more advanced than acoelomates, but not as advanced as deuterostomes.

Answer 67

The first opening during embryonic development becomes the anus

Question 68

Which of the following statements about sponges is NOT correct? A. Sponges have no nerve fibers. B. Sponges have no fully developed muscle fibers. C. Amoeboid cells capture food particles from the water. D. Sponges may reproduce asexually by budding or by regeneration from a small piece.

Answer 68

Amoeboid cells capture food particles from the water.

Question 69

Why are real bath sponges so soft? A. The silica is washed away and the calcium carbonate remains. B. The spongin spicules are washed away and the silky silica remains. C. The harder silica or calcium spicules are absent and the softer spongin remains. D. The silica and spicules are washed away and the spongin treated with softening chemicals.

Answer 69

The harder silica or calcium spicules are absent and the softer spongin remains.

Question 70

A recent study of the marine hawksbill turtle's stomach contents revealed that sponges constitute a major portion of their diet. Sponge beds are generally protected from predators by the sponge's calcium and silica crystals, but these were found in quantity in the turtles' digestive systems. These structures that protect the sponges from most predators, but not turtles, are A. amoebocytes. B. the osculum. C. spicules. D. spongin.

Answer 70

spicules.

Question 71

Which of the following organisms exhibit radial symmetry as adults? A. flatworms B. cnidarians C. roundworms D. clams

Answer 71

cnidarians

Question 72

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about cnidaria? A. The adult body is bilaterally symmetrical. B. There are two tissue layers: an outer epidermis and inner gastrodermis. C. Stinging cells contain a threadlike nematocyst released to capture prey. D. A jellylike mesoglea contains cells that form a nerve net throughout the body.

Answer 72

The adult body is bilaterally symmetrical.

Question 73

The stinging cells or nematocysts are characteristic of A. sponges. B. cnidarians. C. flatworms. D. roundworms.

Answer 73

cnidarians.

Question 74

The molluscs look so different, and yet we can tell they are related because they all A. are segmented. B. have an external skeleton. C. have a mantle, visceral mass, and a foot. D. have shells.

Answer 74

have a mantle, visceral mass, and a foot.

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of earthworms? A. segmentation B. hermaphroditic C. paired nephridia in each segment D. dorsal solid nerve cord

Answer 75

dorsal solid nerve cord

Question 76

Earthworms are A. annelids. B. molluscs. C. platyhelminthes. D. arthropods.

Answer 76

annelids.

Question 77

Which type of organism is characterized by having jointed appendages, ability to molt, and three sets of fused segments? A. molluscs B. arthropods C. annelids D. chordates

Answer 77

arthropods

Question 78

The largest animal group, both in number of species and number of individuals, is the A. annelids. B. crustacea. C. insects. D. reptiles.

Answer 78

insects.

Question 79

It is NOT correct to say that arthropods have A. a variety of respiratory organs. B. a well-developed nervous system. C. jointed appendages and a segmented body. D. a tough exoskeleton that grows by expansion.

Answer 79

a tough exoskeleton that grows by expansion.

Question 80

. A major characteristic of the arthropods is the presence of A. flame cells. B. radial symmetry. C. a soft exoskeleton. D. jointed appendages.

Answer 80

jointed appendages.

Question 81

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of echinoderms? A. locomotion by muscles B. endoskeleton of spiny, calcium-rich plates C. larva is bilaterally symmetrical D. both sexual and asexual reproduction

Answer 81

locomotion by muscles

Question 82

Which of the following apply to the sponge in the image? A. no true tissues B. animal C. skeleton with spicules or protein spongin D. asymmetrical E. cnidarian F. fungus G. radial symmetry H. cnidocytes

Answer 82

A. no true tissues B. animal C. skeleton with spicules or protein spongin D. asymmetrical

Question 83

Which of the following apply to the anemone in the image? A. medusa B. polyp C. arthropod D. bilateral symmetry E. cnidarian F. fungus G. radial symmetry H. cnidocytes

Answer 83

B. polyp E. cnidarian G. radial symmetry H. cnidocytes

Question 84

Which of the following apply to the slug and snail in the image? A. mantle B. gastropod C. arthropod D. bilateral symmetry E. cnidarian F. cnidocyte G. radial symmetry H. mollusc

Answer 84

A. mantle B. gastropod D. bilateral symmetry H. mollusc

Question 85

Which of the following apply to the squid in the image? A. cephalopod B. gastropod C. arthropod D. bilateral symmetry E. camera-type eye F. cnidarian G. radial symmetry H. mollusc

Answer 85

A. cephalopod D. bilateral symmetry E. camera-type eye H. mollusc

Question 86

Which of the following apply to the spider in the image? A. exoskeleton B. gastropod C. arthropod D. book lung E. insect F. trachae G. chelicera H. echinoderm

Answer 86

A. exoskeleton C. arthropod D. book lung G. chelicera

Question 87

Which of the following apply to the crab in the image? *A. exoskeleton B. gastropod *C. arthropod *D. molts to grow E. insect F. arachnid *G. crustacean H. echinoderm

Answer 87

A. exoskeleton C. arthropod D. molts to grow G. crustacean

Question 88

Which of the following apply to the sea stars in the image? A. deuterostome B. protostome C. echinoderm D. tube feet E. insect F. mollusc G. larva with bilateral symmetry H. larva with radial symmetry

Answer 88

A. deuterostome C. echinoderm D. tube feet G. larva with bilateral

Question 89

Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of all chordates at some time in their life history? A. a dorsal notochord B. a ventral hollow nerve cord C. pharyngeal pouches D. radial symmetry E. a postanal tail

Answer 89

radial symmetry

Question 90

Defining characteristics of chordates are A. segmentation, dorsal hollow nerve cord, gill arches or pharyngeal pouches. B. dorsal hollow nerve cord, notochord, bilateral symmetry, and postanal tail. C. bilateral symmetry, segmentation, and well-developed coelom. D. gill arches or pharyngeal pouches, dorsal tubular nerve cord, notochord, and postanal tail.

Answer 90

gill arches or pharyngeal pouches, dorsal tubular nerve cord, notochord, and postanal tail.

Question 91

Which of the following sequences correctly represents vertebrate evolution? A. jawless fish - lobe-finned fish - amphibians - reptiles - mammals B. jawless fish - amphibians - reptiles - lobe-finned fish - mammals C. lobe-finned fish - mammals - reptiles - jawless fish - amphibians D. lobe-finned fish - reptiles - mammals - jawless fish - amphibians

Answer 91

jawless fish - lobe-finned fish - amphibians - reptiles - mammals

Question 92

. In vertebrates, the _______ is/are usually replaced by ________. A. pharyngeal pouches; gill arches B. dorsal hollow nerve cord; a ventral solid nerve cord C. gill arches; pharyngeal pouches D. notochord; a dorsal hollow nerve cord E. notochord; a vertebral column

Answer 92

notochord; a vertebral column

Question 93

Which represents the correct order of evolution of chordate features? A. amnion - limbs - lungs - jaws - vertebrae B. limbs - lungs - jaws - vertebrae - amnion C. lungs - jaws - vertebrae - amnion - limbs D. vertebrae - jaws - lungs - limbs - amnion

Answer 93

vertebrae - jaws - lungs - limbs - amnion

Question 94

What is the correct evolutionary pathway for the key features of chordates? A. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands B. vertebrae - notochord- jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands C. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - amniotic egg - 4 limbs - mammary glands D. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - mammary glands - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg

Answer 94

notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands

Question 95

Jaws are believed to have evolved from the A. cranium. B. first ribs. C. first pair of gill arches. D. suckers of lampreys

Answer 95

first pair of gill arches.

Question 96

The lancelets are found A. as parasites inside the tracts of fish. B. very rarely in mountain streams, where they are almost extinct. C. commonly in the sandy bottoms of shallow coastal waters around the world. D. on the bottom of the ocean

Answer 96

commonly in the sandy bottoms of shallow coastal waters around the world.

Question 97

. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a shark? A. ability to sense electric currents in the water B. skeleton of cartilage C. a sucker used to attach to prey D. ability to sense pressure of other swimming objects E. ability to detect blood in minute amounts

Answer 97

a sucker used to attach to prey

Question 98

Sharks A. have bone skeletons. B. lack jaws. C. have a keen sense of smell. D. lack the lateral line system of bony fishes.

Answer 98

have a keen sense of smell.

Question 99

of the following, the most recent ancestor of amphibians would be A. hagfish. B. coelacanth. C. skate. D. ray-finned fish.

Answer 99

coelacanth.

Question 100

Which of these characteristics is NOT found in the amphibians but is developed in reptiles? A. thin, moist skin B. internal fertilization C. aquatic larvae D. eggs with gelatinous covering

Answer 100

internal fertilization

Question 101

Which of these characteristics first developed in reptiles? A. amniotic egg B. scales on skin C. four-legged body D. animals with lungs

Answer 101

amniotic egg

Question 102

Which of the following features was NOT necessary for adaptation by reptiles to life on land? A. hard, horny scales B. internal fertilization by means of a penis C. shelled egg D. being cold-blooded E. well-developed lungs

Answer 102

being cold-blooded

Question 103

Mammals are different from birds in all these characteristics EXCEPT A. having hair. B. having mammary glands. C. maintaining a constant body temperature. D. having young born alive.

Answer 103

maintaining a constant body temperature

Question 104

Which of the following features is NOT a characteristic used to distinguish birds? A. feathers B. air sacs C. body temperature that varies with environment D. hard-shelled egg E. four-chambered heart

Answer 104

body temperature that varies with environment

Question 105

An animal that is characterized by vertebrae, dorsal hollow nerve cord, hair, and mammary glands must be a(n) A. fish. B. amphibian. C. reptile. D. bird. E. mammal.

Answer 105

mammal.

Question 106

The chief distinguishing characteristic of all mammals is the presence of A. constant internal temperature. B. four limbs. C. a four-chambered heart. D. hair and mammary glands.

Answer 106

hair and mammary glands.

Question 107

All mammals have an embryo that develops with a placenta. A. True B. False

Answer 107

False

Question 109

Tiktaalik roseae is considered to be a transitional form between A. lobe-finned fish and amphibians. B. amphibians and reptiles. C. jawless fish and cartilaginous fish. D. monotremes and placental mammals

Answer 109

lobe-finned fish and amphibians.

Question 110

The juvenile amphibian generally hatches from an egg and develops A. in water. B. on land. C. in a nest in a tree.

Answer 110

in water.

Question 111

Primates have characteristics like opposable thumbs and toes, arms that can reach in almost any direction, and stereoscopic vision with eyes at the front of the face rather than sides of the head. This characteristics are thought to be well adapted to life A. in trees. B. in swamps. C. in rivers. D. on prairies

Answer 111

in trees.