chapter 5,23, 24,25, 27 questions Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
Which is NOT a correct association?
A. S stage-DNA synthesis
B. M stage-mitosis and cytokinesis
C. interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle
D. G2 stage-metabolic preparation for mitosis
A
interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle
2
Q
Which of the following is the correct sequence for the cell cycle?
A. S-M-G1-G2
B. S-M-G2-G1
C. S-G1-G1-M
D. S-G2-M-G1
A
S-G2-M-G1
3
Q
During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?
A. prophase
B. interphase
C. telophase
D. mitosis
A
interphase
4
Q
Upon examination, a cell is found to have twice as much DNA as the normal diploid
state but is no longer in the process of replicating the DNA. All of the DNA is found
within a single nucleus. Which stage of the cell cycle is this cell in?
A. M phase
B. S phase
C. G1 phase
D. G2 phase
A
G2 phase
5
Q
Which of the following proteins would you expect to be a coded for by a protooncogene?
A. a growth factor receptor
B. a DNA repair protein
C. a protein involved with the G1 checkpoint
D. a caspase
A
a growth factor receptor
6
Q
Which type of genes, when abnormally activated so that protein is always present and
active, can result in cancer?
A. tumor suppressor genes
B. proto-oncogenes
C. DNA repair protein genes
D. executioner caspase genes
A
proto-oncogenes
7
Q
If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?
A. The DNA has not finished replicating.
B. There is DNA damage.
C. The cell is cancerous.
D. There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint
A
there is DNA damage
8
Q
Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the cell cycle?
A. cyclins
B. internal and external signals
C. growth factors
D. caspases
A
caspases
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the checkpoints in the cell cycle?
A. Mitosis stops if chromosomes are not properly aligned.
B. Mitosis will not occur if DNA is damaged or not replicated.
C. If DNA is damaged, apoptosis may occur.
D. The p53 protein causes the cell to divide even if the DNA is damaged.
A
The p53 protein causes the cell to divide even if the DNA is damaged.
10
Q
Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?
A. prophase, metaphase, interphase, telophase
B. anaphase, interphase, telophase, prophase
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D. interphase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase
A
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
11
Q
During what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the
chromosomes become distinct?
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
A
prophase
12
Q
. The nuclear membrane reappears in mitosis during
A. interphase.
B. prophase.
C. metaphase.
D. anaphase.
E. telophase.
A
telophase
13
Q
. In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?
A. interphase.
B. prophase.
C. metaphase.
D. anaphase.
E. telophase.
A
metaphase
14
Q
If the diploid chromosome number is 16, the chromosome number of each gamete
will be
A. 4.
B. 8.
C. 16.
D. 32.
A
8
15
Q
Meiosis results in a change in chromosome number indicated by
A. 2n to 2n.
B. 2n to n.
C. n to 2n.
D. 2n to 2n in diploid organisms, n to n in haploid.
A
2n to n
16
Q
During what stage do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?
A. prophase
B. anaphase I
C. anaphase II
D. metaphase I
E. metaphase II
A
anaphase I
17
Q
Synapsis occurs during what stage of meiosis?
A. anaphase I
B. telophase II
C. metaphase II
D. prophase I
E. anaphase II
A
prophase I
18
Q
During what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?
A. anaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. metaphase I
D. metaphase II
A
anaphase II
19
Q
During which phase will homologous chromosomes separate?
A. anaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. anaphase
D. metaphase I
A
anaphase I
20
Q
What lines up at the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis and
metaphase of mitosis?
A. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids at both
B. homologous chromosomes at both
C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each
chromosome composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis
D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome composed of two
sister chromatids for mitosis
E. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis,
homologous chromosomes for mitosis
A
each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids at both
21
Q
What lines up at the metaphase plate during both metaphase I of meiosis and
metaphase of mitosis?
A. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids at both
B. homologous chromosomes at both
C. each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each
chromosome is composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis
D. homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of
two sister chromatids for mitosis
E. each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis,
homologous chromosomes for mitosis
A
homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome is composed of
22
Q
Which of the following statements is NOT true about oogenesis in humans?
A. It occurs in the ovary.
B. The egg will contain 23 chromosomes.
C. Four equal size daughter cells will form.
D. At least two nonfunctional polar bodies will form.
A
Four equal size daughter cells will form
23
Q
. In the human life cycle, fertilization results in
A. a zygote.
B. a gamete.
C. oogenesis.
D. a haploid cell.
A
a zygote
24
Q
In the human female life cycle, meiosis begins
A. in the fetus.
B. at birth.
C. at the onset of puberty.
D. at the onset of menopause.
A
in the fetus
25
Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same
location in homologous chromosomes are called
A. alleles.
B. phenotypes.
C. genotypes.
D. incomplete dominance
alleles
26
Which of the following represents the physical characteristics of the individual?
A. phenotype
B. genotype
C. alleles
D. dominance
phenotype
27
3. What are alleles?
A. genes for different traits, such as hair color and eye color
B. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
C. the locations of genes on a chromosome
D. recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes
alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
28
The _____ indicates the gene combination of an individual.
A. phenotype
B. loci
C. genotype
D. homozygous
genotype
29
Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the law of independent assortment?
A. It is based upon the process of meiosis.
B. Each pair of factors separates independently.
C. All possible combinations of factors can occur in the gametes.
D. It follows the observation that all maternal chromosomes end up in the egg.
It follows the observation that all maternal chromosomes end up in the egg.
30
Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation?
A. Each individual contains two alleles for each trait.
B. An individual can have either both dominant alleles, both recessive alleles, or
a dominant and recessive allele.
C. Alleles separate from each other during gamete formation.
D. Each gamete contains one copy of each allele.
E. Fertilization restores the presence of two alleles.
An individual can have either both dominant alleles, both recessive alleles, or
a dominant and recessive allele.
31
Mendel's law of segregation implies that the two members of an allele pair
A. are distributed to separate gametes.
B. are distributed to the same gamete.
C. are assorted dependently.
D. are segregated pairwise.
are distributed to separate gametes.
32
In a Mendelian monohybrid cross involving two homozygous genotypes, the ____
generation is always completely heterozygous.
A. F1
B. F2
C. P
D. P2
F1
33
What will the genotypic ratio be of a monohybrid cross of two individuals who are both
heterozygous for a trait? Use the link in the instructions to an online Punnet square
frame.
A. 100% homozygous dominant
B. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% homozygous recessive
C. 25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive
D. 50% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous
25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive
34
A pheasant breeder starts with two birds in the P generation, one of which is AA and
the other is aa. If he takes two of the birds from the F1 generation and breeds them
together, what can he expect in his F2 offspring?
A. AA and Aa.
B. Aa and aa.
C. AA, Aa, and aa.
D. Aa only.
AA, Aa, and aa.
35
A woman who can roll her tongue (presumably dominant) is married to a man who
cannot. Two of their four children can roll their tongues and two cannot. If A = roll tongue
and a = cannot roll tongue, then what is the genotype of the parents?
A. woman Aa; man Aa
B. woman AA; man aa
C. woman Aa; man AA
D. woman Aa; man aa
woman Aa; man aa
36
Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, due to a recessive trait. If we locate a pea
plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it, and harvest the seeds, what are
the likely phenotypes of the resulting offspring?
A. All will be green with chlorophyll since that is the dominant trait.
B. About one-half will be green and one-half white since that is the distribution of
the genes in the parents.
C. About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a
monohybrid cross.
D. About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white since it is similar to a
monohybrid cross.
About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green since it is similar to a
monohybrid cross.
37
38
. A cross is made between two parents with genotypes AaBB and aabb. If there are
32 offspring, how many of them would be expected to exhibit both dominant
characteristics?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 8
E. 0
16
39
. In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. A heterozygous
black, short-haired animal reproduces with a brown, long-haired animal. What is the
expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A. 1 black short hair, 1 black long hair, 1 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair
B. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair
C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair
D. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair
1 black short hair, 1 black long hair, 1 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair
40
In humans, aniridia, a type of blindness, is due to a dominant allele A. Migraine
headaches are due to another dominant allele M. If a man who suffers from both
conditions (AaMm) marries a woman who suffers from both (AaMm), what are the
chances of an offspring expressing both traits.
A. 9/16
B. 3/16
C. 1/2
D. 1/16
9/16
41
In which kind of cross could you expect to find ratios of 1:1:1:1 among the offspring?
A. monohybrid cross
B. dihybrid cross
C. one-trait test cross
D. two-trait test cross
two-trait test cross
42
In guinea pigs, B = black, b = brown, S = short hair, s = long hair. Two heterozygous
individuals reproduce. The expected results are
A. 9 black long hair, 3 black short hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 brown short hair.
B. 9 black short hair, 6 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.
C. 9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair.
D. 9 brown short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown long hair, 1 black short hair.
9 black short hair, 3 black long hair, 3 brown short hair, 1 brown long hair.
43
What genetic disorder is associated with the lack of an enzyme necessary for the
normal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine?
A. phenylketonuria (PKU)
B. Huntington disease
C. sickle cell disease
D. cystic fibrosis (CF)
phenylketonuria (PKU)
44
Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?
A. sickle cell disease
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Huntington disease
D. cystic fibrosis (CF)
sickle cell disease
45
What are the chances that two individuals with wavy hair (an incomplete trait) will
have a curly-haired child? Curly hair and straight hair exhibit incomplete dominance.
A. none
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
25%
46
The four o'clock flower is an example of incomplete dominance: R = red, r = white,
and Rr = pink. If two hybrids are crossed, what are the chances that an offspring will
have pink flowers?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
50%
47
48
Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and
height in humans, are the result of what form of inheritance?
A. polygenic
B. incomplete dominance
C. simple Mendelian inheritance
D. codominance
polygenic
48
Which of the following is an example of the blending of phenotypes?
A. codominance
B. polygenic inheritance
C. simple Mendelian inheritance
D. incomplete dominance
incomplete dominance
49
You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white
flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with pink flowers. What
condition does this demonstrate?
A. codominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. environmental effects
D. polygenetic inheritance
incomplete dominance
50
When two or more genes with multiple alleles affect the same trait in an additive
fashion, it is termed
A. a double-trait cross.
B. codominant.
C. incomplete dominance.
D. polygenic inheritance.
polygenic inheritance
51
You have two true-breeding rose bushes, one with red flowers and one with white
flowers. A cross between these two roses yields a bush with white flowers that have red
splotches. What condition does this demonstrate?
A. codominance
B. incomplete dominance
C. environmental effects
D. polygenetic inheritance
E. monohybrid inheritance
codominance
52
Cold weather can change the ______ of a Himalayan rabbit.
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. alleles
D. sex
phenotype
53
Hydrangeas are a flowering plant with large showy blooms. When a plant is grown in
aluminum-rich soil it has blue flowers. If the same plant is transplanted into soil that is
lacking aluminum, the flowers produced will be pink. This is an example of
A. codominance.
B. incomplete dominance.
C. environmental effects.
D. polygenetic inheritance.
environmental effects
54
In peas, yellow is dominant over green in seeds. With which of these is it best to
cross a yellow-seeded pea plant to determine whether it is homozygous or
heterozygous?
A. a green-seeded plant
B. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant
C. a pure yellow-seeded plant
D. a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant or a pure yellow-seeded plant
a green-seeded plant
55
In a testcross, an organism with a dominant phenotype, but unknown genotype is
crossed with which of the following to establish its genotype?
A. homozygous dominant
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous recessive
D. heterozygous dominan
homozygous recessive
56
Common fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster, have been used as model organisms to
study inheritance in animals for many years. Flies with the yellow body phenotype make
no melanin. Look at the image above to see diagrams representing the "wild-type" and
"yellow body" flies. In an experiment, Karen crossed a true-breeding line of wild-type
flies with yellow body flies. All the offspring of those crosses were wild-type. Then Karen
crossed the offspring with each other. She got 328 yellow body flies and 1014 wild-type
flies. What is the probably inheritance pattern for the yellow body allele?
A. Yellow body is recessive to wild-type.
B. Wild-type is recessive to yellow body.
C. Wild-type and yellow body are incompletely dominant.
D. Wild-type and yellow body are codominant
Yellow body is recessive to wild-type.
57
A man with AB blood type can have a child with type O.
A. True
B. False
false
58
DNA does NOT have which of the following characteristics?
A. has a double helix
B. bases held together by hydrogen bonds
C. has a deoxyribose sugar
D. contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
59
Which base is unique to DNA?
A. guanine
B. adenine
C. thymine
D. uracil
thymine
60
The individual(s) credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA is (are)
A. James Watson and Francis Crick.
B. Erwin Chargaff.
C. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.
D. Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.
James Watson and Francis Crick
61
In semiconservative DNA replication, each new double helix formed will have
A. two new strands and two old strands.
B. one new and one old strand in each helix.
C. two new and one old strand in one helix and two old and one new strand in
second helix.
D. two new strands in one helix and two old strands in the other helix.
one new and one old strand in each helix
62
Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter
molecule, the replication process is called
A. proofreading.
B. semi-conservative.
C. freeing of DNA.
D. mutation positive.
semi-conservative
63
The enzyme that reads the template strand and makes a complementary strand of
DNA is
A. DNA polymerase.
B. RNA polymerase.
C. helicase.
D. ribozyme.
DNA polymerase
64
The _____ enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double-helix structure of DNA
during replication.
A. helicase
B. polymerase
C. extendase
D. windase
helicase
65
Which does NOT describe a function of the DNA polymerase molecule?
A. recognize the free nucleotide that pairs with the base on the old strand of DNA
B. read the strand of old DNA and recognize the base there
C. proofread to ensure that the proper base has been incorporated
D. synthesize the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the old
strand
synthesize the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the old
strand
66
Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information from the
nucleus as it is needed for the construction of a protein?
A. ribosomal RNA
B. transfer RNA
C. messenger RNA
D. nuclear RNA
messenger RNA
67
The function of transfer RNA is to
A. carry amino acids to ribosomes.
B. transmit coded information to the cytoplasm.
C. turn DNA on and off.
D. act as the site for protein synthesis
carry amino acids to ribosomes
68
. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added to the
growing polypeptide chain?
A. ribosomal RNA
B. transfer RNA
C. messenger RNA
D. ribozyme
transfer RNA
69
The ______ contain(s) the information for the structure of the protein.
A. introns
B. exons
C. promoter
D. ribosomes
exons
70
. An intervening sequence of DNA that is NOT expressed is called a(n)
A. exon.
B. intron.
C. replicon.
D. gene
intron
71
During the process of transcription, the information in
A. a protein is converted into RNA information.
B. RNA is converted into protein information.
C. RNA is converted into DNA information.
D. DNA is converted into RNA information.
E. DNA is converted into protein information.
DNA is converted into RNA information.
72
Which is the process that synthesizes mRNA?
A. translation
B. transcription
C. transformation
D. translocation
transcription
73
The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is
A. initiation - termination - elongation.
B. elongation - termination - initiation.
C. elongation - initiation - termination.
D. initiation - elongation - termination
initiation - elongation - termination
74
Which is the process by which a protein is constructed in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic
cells?
A. translation
B. transcription
C. transformation
D. translocation
translation
75
. If the normal nucleotide sequence was TACGGCATG, what type of gene mutation is
present if the resulting sequence becomes TAGGCATG?
A. germinal mutation
B. addition mutation
C. deletion mutation
D. substitution mutation
deletion mutation
76
. Which of the following is NOT a frameshift mutation of the nucleotide sequence
CATUAUCCC?
A. ATUAUCCC
B. CTUAUCCC
C. CATUAUCGC
D. CCATUAUCCC
CATUAUCGC
77
The anticodon
A. is found on the DNA coding strand.
B. can be found on the chart of the genetic code.
C. is found on transfer RNA.
D. is found on ribosomal RNA
is found on transfer RNA.
78
The part of a transfer RNA molecule that binds to the codon is the
A. active site.
B. anticodon.
C. codon.
D. rRNA.
E. amino acid.
anticodon
79
Mutations in DNA
A. occur at random sites.
B. are placed in DNA as needed by the cells.
C. arise due to natural selection.
D. never have an effect on mRNA sequences.
occur at random sites
80
The location of a gene on a chromosome is called
A. a locus.
B. a linkage map.
C. a linkage group.
D. an allele.
a locus
81
Considering that males can have Klinefelter (XXY) syndrome, XYY, and normal XY
chromosomal combinations, and females can have Turner (XO) syndrome, poly-X (XXX,
XXXX), and normal XX combinations, it is obvious that
A. maleness results from the presence of only one X chromosome.
B. maleness results from the absence of two or more X chromosomes.
C. maleness results from the minimal presence of one Y chromosome.
D. femaleness results from the presence of two or more X chromosomes.
maleness results from the minimal presence of one Y chromosome.
82
Genes on the ___ chromosome determine if the sex of a child will be male or female.
A. X
B. Y
C. 21st
D. 5th
y
83
. A normal male marries a color-blind woman. What percent of their female children will
be color-blind?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
0%
84
Color-blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. A male who is color-blind
marries a heterozygous woman. What percent of their total children will be color-blind?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
50%
85
A color-blind (recessive trait) woman will pass the allele to
A. her sons only.
B. all her children.
C. her daughters only.
D. none of her children.
E. her husband.
all her children
86
If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband has normal
vision, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?
A. None, because the father is normal.
B. 50%, since the mother is only a carrier.
C. 100% because the mother has the gene.
D. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.
E. None since the son will also be just a carrier
50%, since the mother is only a carrier
87
Which of the following sex-linked diseases is characterized by the absence of a
clotting factor?
A. hemophilia
B. color-blindness
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. None of the answer choices is true.
hemophilia
88
Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?
A. inversion
B. translocation
C. deletion
D. monosomy
monosomy
89
A person who has an extra copy of a chromosome is said to have
A. monosomy.
B. trisomy.
C. nondisjunction.
D. duplication.
trisomy
90
Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in
oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _____ resulted in
nondisjunction in ____.
A. XXY; oogenesis
B. XYY; spermatogenesis
C. XXX; oogenesis
D. XXY; spermatogenesis
XYY; spermatogenesis
91
When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed
A. linked genes.
B. nondisjunction.
C. crossover.
D. monosomy.
nondisjunction
92
An individual who has an XXY combination of sex chromosomes is said to have
_____ syndrome.
A. Klinefelter
B. Turner
C. Down
D. cri du chat
Klinefelter
93
A person with an XO genotype is classified as having
A. Down syndrome.
B. Turner syndrome.
C. Klinefelter syndrome.
D. a poly-X state.
Turner syndrome.
94
Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?
A. inversion
B. translocation
C. deletion
D. duplication
deletion
95
Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another
nonhomologous chromosome?
A. inversion
B. translocation
C. deletion
D. duplication
translocation
96
If a chromosomal segment appears more than once in the same chromosome, it is
termed a(n)
A. translocation.
B. duplication.
C. deletion.
D. inversion.
duplication
97
Which refers to the addition of a repeat segment of a chromosome?
A. inversion
B. translocation
C. deletion
D. duplication
duplication
98
If a chromosomal segment is turned around 180°, the chromosomal mutation is
termed a(n)
A. translocation.
B. duplication.
C. deletion.
D. inversion.
inversion
99
Fruit flies of the species Drosophila melanogaster are an important model organism for
eukaryotic genetics. The genes for olive body color and purple eye color are on the
same chromosome. Consider an organism with the chromosomes in the diagram above.
What process is capable of producing a gamete with the alleles "pO"?
A. Crossing Over
B. Mitosis
C. Independent Assortment
D. Nondisjunction
crossing over
100
All cases of Down syndrome are caused by trisomy of chromosome 21.
A. True
B. False
false
101
According to Lamarck, which variable would have the greatest influence on the
evolution of an organism?
A. the environment
B. the genetics of the individual
C. Both the environment and genetics are equally responsible for the evolution of
an organism.
D. Neither the environment nor the genetics of an organism play a role in its
evolution.
the environment
102
Lamarck's proposal of the inheritance of acquired characteristics included the idea
that
A. the continual stretching of giraffe's necks to reach leaves led to longer necks
in offspring.
B. local catastrophes cause mass extinctions of species.
C. species are fixed and unchanging over time.
D. organisms are acted on by the environment.
the continual stretching of giraffe's necks to reach leaves led to longer necks
in offspring
103
When he arrived at the Galápagos Islands, Darwin did not observe the amazing toolusing "woodpecker finch" that can modify twigs to pry out grubs. Because there are no
true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows this finch to exploit an
untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior,
which is probably learned from watching other finches. Therefore, which of the following
is NOT true?
A. Young isolated at hatching will not know how to do this.
B. It is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.
C. There must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned
behavior to be repeated by most descendants each generation.
D. This "learned" behavior will not lead to evolutionary change in the
woodpecker population.
This "learned" behavior will not lead to evolutionary change in the
woodpecker population.
104
Which piece of evidence did Darwin observe during his 5-year journey aboard the
HMS Beagle?
A. A South American species of finch is most likely the ancestor of the
Galápagos Island finches.
B. Species do not change over time.
C. All species share the same basic genetic and molecular makeup.
D. The earth is approximately 4.6 billion years old.
A South American species of finch is most likely the ancestor of the
Galápagos Island finches.
105
What evidence would NOT be studied by a biogeographer?
A. continental drift or the movement of tectonic plates over time
B. ocean currents and wind patterns
C. ranges of animals and ability to migrate
D. the genetic makeup of organisms that evolved in separate but similar
conditions
the genetic makeup of organisms that evolved in separate but similar
conditions
106
Which evidence for evolution uses impressions of plants and animals pressed into
sedimentary rock?
A. fossil record
B. biogeography
C. comparative embryology
D. comparative biochemistry
fossil record
107
Anatomical features that are fully developed and functional in one group of organisms
but reduced and functionless in a similar group are termed
A. vestigial.
B. homologous.
C. analogous.
D. sympatric.
vestigial
108
Which of these conditions is NOT among the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?
A. no net mutations
B. no net migration of alleles into or out of the population
C. small population with genetic drift
D. no selection of one genotype over another
small population with genetic drift
109
If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect?
A. evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging
environment
B. evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment
C. very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation
D. no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
110
Which statement is NOT true about the founder effect?
A. It is a form of genetic drift.
B. It produces a high frequency of some rare alleles in a small isolated
population.
C. Founding members contain a tiny fraction of the alleles found in the original
population.
D. The founder effect occurs when a population is subjected to near extinction
and then recovers, so that only a few alleles are left in survivors.
The founder effect occurs when a population is subjected to near extinction
and then recovers, so that only a few alleles are left in survivors.
111
When only a few individuals survive unfavorable times, thereby losing the majority of
genotypes in the next generation, it is called
A. natural selection.
B. a bottleneck effect.
C. a founder effect.
D. industrial mechanism.
a bottleneck effect.
112
Which of the following is true about genetic drift?
A. It may lead to an allele becoming fixed in a population when its alternative
allele is lost from the population.
B. It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population.
C. It increases the level of rare alleles in a population.
D. It reduces the chances of mutation in a population.
It may lead to an allele becoming fixed in a population when its alternative
allele is lost from the population
113
A random alteration in the sequence of DNA nucleotides that provides a new variant
of the gene is
A. gene mutation.
B. gene frequency.
C. disruption.
D. allele frequency.
gene mutation
114
Movement of alleles between populations such as by the migration of breeding
individuals is called
A. genetic drift.
B. gene flow.
C. nonrandom mating.
D. natural selection.
gene flow
115
Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to evolution?
A. mutations
B. gene flow
C. genetic drift
D. unchanging environmental conditions
unchanging environmental conditions
116
Inbreeding within a population is an example of
A. genetic drift.
B. gene flow.
C. nonrandom mating.
D. natural selection.
nonrandom mating
117
Disruptive selection is described in the text with the case of British land snails. In the
grassy fields, the light-banded snails escape bird predators. In the darker forest, the dark
snails survive and the light-banded snails are eaten. As long as the snails continue to
cruise across the British landscape mating at the same season and having access to
each other, why doesn't this "disruptive selection" eventually lead to two separate
species?
A. There is no reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow.
B. They are already two separate species and the intermediate forms are
hybrids.
C. The color forms are probably not genetically determined.
D. There must be some unknown factor producing an equal stabilizing selection
"to hold the species together."
E. This will result in the formation of two species if given long enough time.
There is no reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow.
118
Which type of natural selection occurs when an intermediate phenotype is favored?
A. disruptive selection
B. directional selection
C. stabilizing selection
D. genetic drift selection
E. adaptive radiation
stabilizing selection
119
Which type of natural selection increases the frequency of one extreme phenotype?
A. directional
B. stabilizing
C. disruptive
D. nonrandom
directional
120
The model of speciation that requires some time with geographic barriers between
two populations, allowing evolution of reproductive isolation, is
A. allopatric speciation.
B. phyletic gradualism.
C. sympatric speciation.
D. punctuated equilibrium.
E. prezygotic isolation.
allopatric speciation.
121
During sympatric speciation
A. evolution ceases for a time.
B. wide phenotype differences disappear between subpopulations.
C. reproductive isolation between certain subpopulations occurs.
D. a geographic separation occurs between certain subpopulations.
E. mutations begin to appear, making the subpopulations distinctly different.
reproductive isolation between certain subpopulations occurs.
122
During allopatric speciation
A. gene flow continues between subpopulations.
B. reproduction between all subpopulations is impossible.
C. a geographic separation occurs between subpopulations.
D. wide phenotype differences appear between subpopulations.
E. subpopulations are still able to interbreed.
a geographic separation occurs between subpopulations.
123
The fin of a tuna and the flipper of a dolphin are
A. analogous structures.
B. homologous structures.
C. homogeneous structures.
D. reciprocal structures.
analogous structures.
124
Lizards on a small island are more likely to have to mate with close relatives. The
form of microevolution is
A. the founder effect.
B. mutation.
C. gene flow.
D. natural selection.
the founder effect
125
Cheetahs are very genetically similar, meaning there is not a lot of genetic diversity
in their gene pool. It appears that at least 2 times in the last 10,000 years cheetah
populations crashed to very low numbers. The present day low genetic diversity is due
to _____________.
A. the bottleneck effect.
B. the founder effect.
C. natural selection.
D. non-disjunction.
the bottleneck effect.
126
A population of mice live in a grassy area near a stream. Some individuals have
alleles that give them white fir while others have alleles for brown fur. A family of hawks
move in and nest nearby. The hawks catch the white mice at a higher rate because
those mice do not blend in to the surroundings so well. This changes the genetic
makeup of the population and a higher percentage of the next generation of mice have
brown fur. This is an example of _______.
A. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
C. Mutation
D. Gene Flow
Natural Selection
127
A population of mice live in a grassy area near a stream. Some individuals have
alleles that give them white fir while other have alleles for brown fur. One day the stream
floods killing a higher percentage of mice wtih the brown alleles basically at random.
This changes the genetic makeup of the population and a higher percentage of the next
generation of mice have white fur. This is an example of
A. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
C. Mutation
D. Gene Flow
Genetic Drift
128
A population of mice live in a grassy area near a stream. Some individuals have
alleles that give them white fir while others have alleles for brown fur. One day a mouse
is born in which an allele for brown fur has change and causes the mouse to be tan. This
is an example of
A. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
C. Mutation
D. Gene Flow
Mutation
129
In Arkansas, the gray tree frog breeds in March, while the closely related species
Harpers frog breeds at the end of May. This is an example of a ___________________
isolating mechanism.
A. habitat
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. mechanical
E. post zygotic
temporal
130
Two species of peas are visited by the same species of bee. Each species of pea
has its stamens positioned to place pollen on different parts of the bee's body. Upon
visiting other flowers, the pollen from the bee can only get on the female parts of the
same species. This is an example of a ___________________ isolating mechanism.
A. habitat
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. mechanical
E. post zygotic
mechanical
131
In peacock spiders, a male displays before a female. If the male is of the wrong
species then the female will reject him because he does not do the correct courtship
display or have the correct color patterns. This is an example of a
___________________ isolating mechanism.
A. habitat
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. mechanical
E. post zygotic
behavioral
132
Red-legged frogs and Bullfrogs can interbreed in the lab. However, Red-legged frogs
only breed in fast-moving streams and Bullfrogs only breed in ponds. This is an example
of a _______________ isolating mechanism.
A. habitat
B. temporal
C. behavioral
D. mechanical
E. post zygotic
habitat
