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Flashcards in Chapter 35 Review Deck (122)
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1
Q

What is Biology?

A

the study of life

2
Q

All living organisms show some degree of order or organization. What is the smallest functional unit that exhibits all of the characteristics of life and order?

A

cell

3
Q

What are the products in the hydrolysis of ATP?

A

ADP, phosphate, and energy

4
Q

How many covalent bonds is a carbon atom able to form with other compounds or elements?

A

4

5
Q

Organic molecules that catalyze reactions in living systems are what?

A

enzymes

6
Q

the coumpound that is stored as glycogen in animals and starch in plants is what?

A

glucose

7
Q

Molecules with the same molecular formula but different structures are called what?

A

isomers

8
Q

Amino acids become linked together by peptide bonds during ___ reactions.

A

Condensation

9
Q

How many different types of monomers are found in proteins?

A

20

10
Q

What are the four major macromolecules of life?

A

carbohydrates; lipids; proteins; nucleic acids

11
Q

What is the monomer of a carbohydrate?

A

monosaccharide

12
Q

As a cell becomes smaller, its surface area ___ relative to its volume.

A

increases

13
Q

Which scientist was described cells as “many little boxes”?

A

Robert Hool

14
Q

What is the primary function of the mitochondria?

A

produce energy for cell activity

15
Q

What structures would be found in a prokaryote?

A

ribosome, cytoplasm, plasmid

16
Q

Which organelle performs the function of photosynthesis in a plant?

A

chloroplast

17
Q

What three types of molecules make up the cell membrane?

A

phospholipids, proteins, sterols

18
Q

What is one of the primary functions of the plasma membrane?

A

controls what moves into and out of the cell

19
Q

Which eukaryotic organelle is responsible for packaging and exporting proteins?

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

20
Q

What is the movement of water through a cell membrane called?

A

osmosis

21
Q

What are some types of passive transport?

A

osmosis, diffusion, facilitated diffusion

22
Q

Why is active transport considered to be an active rather than a passive process?

A

it requires energy

23
Q

During the G0 phase, cells do what?

A

exict the cell cycle

24
Q

During cell division, the DNA of a eukaryotic cell is tightly packed and coiled into structures called what?

A

chromosomes

25
Q

Most prokaryotic cells reproduce by a process called what?

A

binry fission

26
Q

two similar copies of each autosome that carry the same traits and are the same size and shape are what?

A

homologues

27
Q

What is the end result of mitosis?

A

Two identical diploid cells

28
Q

What is the purpose of synapsis and crossing-over in eukaryotic cells?

A

ensure genetic variability of offspring

29
Q

What happens when crossing-over occurs?

A

corresponding genes are exchanged between homologues

30
Q

If an organism has a diploid number of 28, what will its haploid number be?

A

14

31
Q

Bases complementary to adenine and guanine in DNA are respectively

A

Thymine and cytosine

32
Q

Base-pairing rules dicate that a strand of DNA with the base sequence of ATCGTCAATC will form an opposite bs sequence of

A

TAGCAGTTAG

33
Q

If the percentage of thymine on a DNA strand is 40%, what will the percentage of guanine be?

A

10%

34
Q

Amino acids are assembled based on instructions encoded in teh sequence of necleotides on the

A

mRNA

35
Q

translation takes place in/on the what?

A

ribosome

36
Q

During the synthesis of protein, new mRNA is made by what process?

A

transcription

37
Q

Base-pairing rules dictate in DNA replication that a strand of DNA with the base sequence of GTAATCATG will form an opposite base sequence of ___.

A

CATTAGTAC

38
Q

List three items found in a molecule of nucleic acid

A

deoxyribose, phosphate, cytosine

39
Q

the father of genetics

A

Gregor Mendel

40
Q

Describe Gregor Mendel

A

a monk; a statistician; a gardener; Austrian

41
Q

An organism having two different alleles for a trait

A

heterozygous

42
Q

a tRNA with the anticodon GCA will bond with the codon ___.

A

CGU

43
Q

In prokaryotic cells, DNA replication takes place in/on the ___.

A

Nucleoid

44
Q

What is a mutation?

A

a gene sequence that is different than the parent gene

45
Q

bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics by doing what?

A

acquiring an R-plasmid for resistance

46
Q

Which prokaryote would you most likely find in hot acidic water?

A

thermoacidophile

47
Q

Which of the following bacteria would you most likely find in the human intestine?

A

enteric

48
Q

Photoautotrophic bacteria obtain energy

A

from the sun

49
Q

Which type(s) of bacteria will be destroyed by the presence of oxygen?

A

obligate anaerobes

50
Q

Many bacteria have pili that are used to what?

A

adhere to surfaces and join bacteria cells for conjugation

51
Q

Which of the following bacteria are thought to be responsible for establishing the Earth’s oxygen-rich atmosphere?

A

cyanobacteria

52
Q

A bacteria that is nitrogen fixing does what

A

converts atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate

53
Q

How does the antibiotic tetracycline attack bacteria?

A

by blocking protein synthesis

54
Q

the small circular replicting loops of DNA that carry the genes to help make bacteria antibiotic resistant are called what?

A

plasmids

55
Q

Most foodborne illness is transmitted by ___.

A

undercooked or raw meat

56
Q

Name the 3 primary bacterial shapes.

A

bacillus, coccus, spirillum

57
Q

Name some structures you would find in a bacteria cell.

A

ribosome, plasmid, DNA

58
Q

A Gram-negative bacteria stains ___ because it has a ___ amount of peptidoglycan in its cell wall?

A

pink; small

59
Q

The purpose of the endospore inside bacterium is to do what?

A

allow it to regenerate if it is destroyed

60
Q

Once inside a cell, what enzyme allows a retrovirus to produce thousands of new viruses?

A

reverse transcriptase

61
Q

How is the viral lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle?

A

The lytic cycle begins viral replication immediately on access to a cell.

62
Q

A viral disease that occurs in childhood and may reappear in adulthood in different form is ___.

A

chickenpox

63
Q

Viral hepatitis most commonly affects which organ?

A

liver

64
Q

Protists are thought to have evolved over time from a larger prokaryote engulfing a smaller one until they were unique and separate organisms. This characteristic is termed ____.

A

endosymbiosis

65
Q

The internal flowing of an organism’s cytoplasm is called what?

A

cytoplasmic streaming

66
Q

Which phylum of protist has no means of locomotion in adult form?

A

apicomplexa

67
Q

pigments that trap light in green algae are called what?

A

chlorophyll

68
Q

Diatoms are unicellular protists from which phylum?

A

bacillariophyta

69
Q

protists from the phylum Myxomycota are also known as what?

A

plasmodial slime molds

70
Q

Why are the plantlike protists classified as protists and not plants?

A

they have no roots, stems, or leaves

71
Q

In a plant, the movement of sugar from its place of production to its place of storage is ___.

A

translocation

72
Q

The opening and closing of stomata are regulated by the presence of which mineral?

A

potassium

73
Q

What are the three basic organs of a plant?

A

roots, stems, and leaves

74
Q

The plant structure found on the end of a stem or root where cells continuously divide is ___.

A

apical meristem

75
Q

Sceondary growth in plants occurs from which structure?

A

lateral meristem

76
Q

In a stem cross section, an annual ring represents an abrupt change between what?

A

summerwood and springwood

77
Q

The driving force for transpiration is provided by what?

A

evaporation of water from the leaves

78
Q

Water movement from the plant roots up to the stem relies on which two properties?

A

cohesion and adhesion

79
Q

the process by which a plant moves and the loses water is called ___.

A

transpiration

80
Q

Funguslike protists will generally form fruiting bodies when ___.

A

they get hungry and thirsty, they run out of food and water, or the weather turns cold

81
Q

What occurs immediately following fertilization?

A

cleavage

82
Q

A fluid-filled cavity that forms following gastrulation is called a ___.

A

coelom

83
Q

The deep cavity that becomes the gut during embryonic development is the ___.

A

archenteron

84
Q

Animals that have no body cavity and have a solid interior are called ___.

A

acoelomates

85
Q

The process of coelom formation in protostomes is called ___.

A

schizocoely

86
Q

Which phylum is a jellyfish in?

A

cnidaria

87
Q

Which phylum is a flatworm in?

A

platyhelminthes

88
Q

Which phylum is a sea star in?

A

echinodermata

89
Q

Which phylum is a segmented worm in?

A

annelida

90
Q

Which phylum is a roundworm in?

A

nematoda

91
Q

Which phylum is a sponge in?

A

porifera

92
Q

Most vertebrate embryos that are hatched or born undergo which type of development?

A

direct

93
Q

The fate of the blastopore in a protostome is to become the ___.

A

mouth

94
Q

When the fate of a cell is fixed late in its development, the cleavage is said to be ___.

A

indeterminate

95
Q

Which phylum is an octopus in?

A

mollusca

96
Q

Which phylum is a rotifer in?

A

rotifera

97
Q

Which phylum is a lobster in?

A

arthropoda

98
Q

Bell-shaped cnidarians specialized for swimming occur in this form.

A

medusa

99
Q

cells that crawl around the body of a sponge and pick up and deliver nutrients are ___.

A

amoebocytes

100
Q

The long coiled filament organelle specialized for paralyzing and capturing prey is ___.

A

nematocyst

101
Q

The sea anemone and coral belong to which class of cnidarians?

A

anthozoa

102
Q

flatworms have no need for circulatory or respiratory systems because ___.

A

the flattened body shape allows for diffusion of gasses into cells

103
Q

The primary hosts of Taenia saginatus are ___.

A

humans

104
Q

Most trematodes enter their human host by ___.

A

boring through the skin and into the blood vessels

105
Q

Each mature tapeworm prolgottid ___.

A

contains both male and female reproductive organs; contains fertilized eggs that develop into larvae; is eliminated in feces

106
Q

Mollusk bodies are divide into what two main regions?

A

visceral mass and head-foot

107
Q

Which mollusk structure produces the hard valves or shells?

A

mantle

108
Q

The process that occurs in gastropods to produce a head that can be retracted is called

A

torsion

109
Q

the largest and most diverse class of mollusks

A

gastropods

110
Q

Give some examples of gastropods.

A

snails, conchs, and abalones

111
Q

The mantel cavity of a clam is sealed except for two fleshy tubes called ___.

A

siphons

112
Q

Clams reproduce ___.

A

sexually only

113
Q

Name three facts about cephalopods and their nervous system.

A

They have the largest brain of any invertebrate. They are capable of learning. Their tentacles have numerous sensory neurons.

114
Q

the common characteristic that suggests mollusks and annelids are related is ___.

A

trochophore stage of development

115
Q

The most commonly known oligochaete is the ___.

A

earthworm

116
Q

contraction of which muscle in the earthworm causes the initial increase in pressure of the coelomic fluid initiating locomotion?

A

circular

117
Q

Name two circulatory structures in the earthworm that are responsible for pumping blood.

A

dorsal blood vessel; aortic arches

118
Q

An annelid is equipped with excretory tubules to eliminate excess water. These tubules are called what?

A

nephridia

119
Q

The clitellum is responsible for ___.

A

secreting mucous that aids in the reproductive process of the annelid

120
Q

The jellylike substance between the two cell layers of the cnidarian is the ___.

A

mesoglea

121
Q

Which system helps planarians deal with osmotic water?

A

excretory

122
Q

What development feature indicates that echinoderms are more closely related to vertebrates?

A

They are both deuterostomes.