Chapter 6 - Immunogen and Immunoglobulin Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
Macromolecules capable of triggering an adaptive immune response by inducing the formation of antibodies or sensitized T cells in an immunocompetent host.
A
Immunogen
2
Q
A substance that reacts with antibody or sensitized T cells but may not be able to evoke an immune response in the first place.
A
Antigen
3
Q
Which of the following is true?
A. All immunogens are antigens.
B. All antigens are immunogens.
A
A. All immunogens are antigens
4
Q
Incomplete / partial antigen
A
Hapten
5
Q
In order for a hapten to induce an immune response, what must be added?
A
Carrier
6
Q
Which of the following is true?
A. Haptens are antigenic
B. Haptens are immunogenic
A
A. Haptens are antigenic
7
Q
Best immunogens
A
Proteins, polysaccharide
8
Q
Less immunogenic
A
Carbohydrates
9
Q
Not immunogenic
A
Nucleic acids, lipids
10
Q
Antigen derived from the same individual
A
Autoantigen
11
Q
Antigen derived from different species
A
Heteroantigen / xenogeneic antigen
12
Q
Antigen derived from different individual from same species
A
Alloantigen / homologous antigen
13
Q
Graft derived from same individual
A
Autograft
14
Q
Graft derived from different class but identical individual (identical twins)
A
Isograft / syngraft
15
Q
Graft from different individual but same species
A
Allograft
16
Q
Graft from different species
A
Heterograft / xanograft
17
Q
Found in unrelated plan and animals, cross react with other antibodies.
A
Heterophile antigens
18
Q
Old name for antibodies.
A
Gammaglobulins
19
Q
Which Ig is not found on the gamma region when subjected to electrophoresis?
A
IgA
20
Q
Products of antigenic stimulation
A
Antibodies / Immunoglobulins
21
Q
Functions of immunoglobulins
A
Cell cytotoxicity
Neutralization
Opsonization
22
Q
Determines Ig class
A
Heavy chain
23
Q
The antigen binding region
A. Fc
B. Fab
A
B. Fab
24
Q
What part makes the antibodies flexible?
A
Hinge
25
The amino group is found on ______.
A. Fc region
B. Fab region
B. Fab region
26
The carboxyl group is found on ______.
A. Fc region
B. Fab region
A. Fc region
27
Location of the hinge region.
Between CH1 and CH2
28
Which antibody part binds with complement, specifically C1q?
CH2
29
Which antibody part is responsible for cytotropic reaction involving macrophages?
CH3
30
The Fc receptor binding site
CH3
31
The hinge region is rich in which amino acid?
Proline
32
What connects the two heavy chains of antibodies together?
Disulfide bond
33
What connect the light chains and heavy chains of an antibody?
Disulfide bond
34
Heavy chain that determines Ig class.
Isotype
35
Variation in the variable region of both HC and LC
Isotype
36
Variation in the constant region of both HC and LC
Allotype
37
The first ____ or ____ amino acids are considered the variable region.
110 or 120
38
Which antibody isotype have an extra domain CH4?
IgM and IgE
39
How many domain does IgG have?
4
40
How many domains does IgE have?
5
41
How many domains does IgM have?
5
42
Sections or regions in an immunoglobulin molecule
Domains
43
Number of binding site in an antobody
Valence
44
Basic Ig structure
Monomer
45
Which antibody is a dimer?
IgA
46
IgA are found in _____.
Secretions
47
The 2 monomers of an IgA is linked by?
J chain
48
A polymeric antibody
IgM
49
Enumerate the antibody isotypes from most to least abundant.
IgG > IgA > IgM > IgD > IgE
50
A protein that contains light chain to light chain linkage (which is abnormal).
Bence-Jones protein
51
BJP is associated with the presence of _____ spike during electrophoresis.
Gamma
52
BJP precipitates at ____ to ____ degree Celsius.
40 to 60
53
Confirmatory test for BJP
Electrophoresis
54
BJP dissolves at ____ degree Celsius.
100
55
BJP is associated with what disease?
Multiple myeloma
56
Is BJP specific to multiple myeloma?
No
57
Massive proteinuria is associated with?
Nephrotic syndrome
58
What protein remains in circulation for patients with nephrotic syndrome? (This is also the largest protein)
Alpha-2-macroglobulin
59
Ig class with the hight molecular weight
IgM (900 000 daltons)
60
Next largest Ig class after IgM
IgE
61
Smallest Ig class
IgG
62
Sedimentation coefficient for IgG, IgA and IgD
7S
63
Sedimentation coefficient for IgM
19S
64
Sedimentation coefficient for IgE
8S
65
Ig class with the longest half life
IgG (23 days)
66
Ig class with the longest half life next to IgG
IgM (6 days)
67
How many domains does IgG have?
4
68
How many domains does IgE have?
5
69
How many domains does IgM have?
5
70
Ig isotype that is most efficient in complement fixation
IgM
71
Can IgG induce complement fixation?
Yes except IgG4
72
Known as the “coating antibody”
IgG
73
The first Ig to be produced after antigenic stimulation
IgM
74
Reaginic antibody
IgE
75
Major antibody on secretions
IgA
76
Antibody associated with anaphylaxis
IgA
77
Antibody that is sensitive to enzymatic degradation
IgD
78
This Ig’s main function is immunoregulation
IgD
79
The first antibody to appear in phylogeny and last to leave in senescence
IgM
80
Which Ig is the best complement fixer?
IgM
81
The only polymeric antibody
IgM
82
This antibody is postulated to be an anti-idiopathic antibody.
IgD
83
Which IgA subclass is found in secretions?
IgA2
84
True/False: IgM is always a pentamer in the body.
False. It is a monomer in B cell surface.
85
Agglutination is associated with which antibody?
IgM
86
Precipitation is associated with which antibody?
IgG
87
Ig found on the surface of B cells
IgD, IgM
88
Most heat labile Ig
IgE
89
When is a major basic protein secreted?
When an IgE attaches to an eosinophil
90
Which Ig provides immunity to newborns?
IgG
91
Which Ig can cross the placenta?
IgG
92
Which IgG subclass is the least effective in passing the placenta?
IgG2
93
Which Ig is associated with secondary immune response?
IgG
94
How are the subclasses of IgG differ?
They differ from their disulfide bonds
95
Which IgG subclass is the most abundant in circulation?
IgG1
96
Which Ig is high in allergy and in parasite infection?
IgE
97
The process of genetically pre-programming a lymphocyte to produce one type of Ig and that a particular cell capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate.
Clonal selection
98
This theory states that certain cells had specific receptors for antigen that were present before contact with antigen occurred.
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
99
IgA subclass found in serum
IgA1
100
The process of transforming a polymeric antibody into a monomer.
Reduction
101
2 substances used to reduce an antibody.
Dithiothreitol (DIT) and 2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME)
102
Papain cuts antibodies into how many parts?
3 parts
103
This Ig’s main function is immunoregulation
IgD
104
The first antibody to appear in phylogeny and last to leave in senescence
IgM
105
Which Ig is the best complement fixer?
IgM
106
The only polymeric antibody
IgM
107
This antibody is postulated to be an anti-idiopathic antibody.
IgD
108
Which IgA subclass is found in secretions?
IgA2
109
True/False: IgM is always a pentamer in the body.
False. It is a monomer in B cell surface.
110
Agglutination is associated with which antibody?
IgM
111
Precipitation is associated with which antibody?
IgG
112
Ig found on the surface of B cells
IgD, IgM
113
Most heat labile Ig
IgE
114
When is a major basic protein secreted?
When an IgE attaches to an eosinophil
115
Which Ig provides immunity to newborns?
IgG
116
Which Ig can cross the placenta?
IgG
117
Which IgG subclass is the least effective in passing the placenta?
IgG2
118
Which Ig is associated with secondary immune response?
IgG
119
How are the subclasses of IgG differ?
They differ from their disulfide bonds
120
Which IgG subclass is the most abundant in circulation?
IgG1
121
Which Ig is high in allergy and in parasite infection?
IgE
122
The process of genetically pre-programming a lymphocyte to produce one type of Ig and that a particular cell capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate.
Clonal selection
123
This theory states that certain cells had specific receptors for antigen that were present before contact with antigen occurred.
Ehrlich’s side chain theory
124
IgA subclass found in serum
IgA1
125
The process of transforming a polymeric antibody into a monomer.
Reduction
126
2 substances used to reduce an antibody.
Dithiothreitol (DIT) and 2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME)
127
Papain cuts an antibody into how many fragments?
3 parts
128
Which part of the antibody does papain cut?
It cuts the antibody directly in its hinge region.
129
Pepsin cuts an antibody into how many fragments?
2
130
Which part of the antibody does pepsin cut?
Below the hinge region
131
Which fragment of the antibody crystallizes at cold temperature?
Fc portion
132
This complex’s function is to bring out antigen into cell surface.
Major Histocompatibility Complex
133
The molecular basis of self from nonself
Major Histocompatibility Complex
134
MHC genes are located on the ____ (long/short) arm of chromosome _____.
Short arm of chromosome 6
135
Set of genes that controls tissue compatibility
MHC genes
136
What does MHC genes encode in humans?
Human Leukocyte Antigen Complex
137
Which cell has the most number of MHC?
Lymphocytes
138
MHC class associated with autoimmune diseases.
MHC II
139
Which MHC class process cytoplasmically derived antigens and presenta it to CD8 positive cells?
MHC I
140
Which MHC class process extracellularly derived antigens and presents it to CD4 positive cells?
MHC class II
141
MHC class 1 is present in all _____.
Nucleated cells
142
MHC class II is present in ______.
Immunocompetent cells (macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells, APCs)
143
MHC class I presents antigens to which cell?
Cytotoxic T cell
144
MHC class II presents antigens to ______.
T-helper cells
145
Enumerate the genetic loci of MHC Class I.
HLA-A,B,C
146
Enumerate the genetic loci of MHC Class II.
HLA-DP, DQ, DR
147
Which MHC Class has alpha and beta chain structure?
MHC Class II
148
Which MHC Class has alpha and B2 microglobulin chain structure?
MHC class I
149
Which MHC involves complement components C2, C4 and Factor B?
MHC Class III
150
What do you call the HLA on RBC?
Bennet-Goodspeed
151
Bennet-Goodspeed is of what MHC class?
MHC Class II
152
HLA genotyping test.
PCR-based amplification
153
The test for the phenotypic or genotypic ID of the HLA antigens or genes in a transplant candidate or donor.
HLA phenotyping
154
Limitations of HLA phenotyping.
Requires viable lymphocytes, requires separation of lymphocytes
155
Interpret the following HLA phenotyping grades:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
5. 8
6. 0
1. Negative
2. Doubtful negative
3. Weak positive
4. Positive
5. Strong positive
6. Unreadable
156
Which HLA phenotyping grade has the most percentage of cell death?
8
157
Importance of HLA typing
Tissue / organ transplant, paternity testing, studies of racial ancestry & migration, for diagnostic & genetic counseling, disease association
158
Substance that can enhance immune response.
Adjuvants
159
Adjuvants came from the word “adjuvare”, which means?
To aid
160
Which lymphocyte contains both MHC class I and class II molecules?
B cells
161
T cells contain:
A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. Both
D. Neither
A. MHC class I
162
What is used to separate B from T cells?
Nylon wool
163
HLA-B27 is associated with what disease?
Ankylosing spondylitis
164
HLA-DR3 is associated with what disease?
Multiple sclerosis
165
HLA DR2 and DR3 are associated with what disease?
SLE
166
HLA-DR4 is associated with what disease?
RA
167
HLA DR3 and DR4 is associated with what disease?
Type I DM
168
This classification of drug prevents transplant rejection by weakening the patient’s immune system.
Immunosuppressive agents
169
What immunosuppressive drug blocks the production and secretion of cytokines, inflammatory mediators, chemoattractant and adhesion molecules?
Corticosteroids
170
Which immunosuppressive agent interferes with the maturation of lymphocytes and kill proliferating cells?
Antimetabolites
171
Which immunosuppressive agent blocks signal transduction in T lymphocytes? (ex: cyclosporine)
Calcineurin inhibitors
172
Which immunosuppressive agent interferes in T cell activation?
Monoclonal antibodies
173
Which immunosuppressive agent depletes lymphocyte from the circulation? (Thymoglobulin)
Polyclonal antibodies
174
Basiliximab and daclizumab binds CD____ receptor.
25
175
Alemtuzumab binds CD_____.
52
176
Which type of graft rejection occurs after days of transplantation, preformed antibodies to ABO, HLA and certain endothelial bind to donor vascular endothelium, activating complement and clotting factors?
Accelerated
177
Which type of graft rejection occurs minutes to hours after transplantation, and is caused by preformed antibodies to ABO, HLA and certain endothelial bind to donor vascular endothelium, activating complement and clotting factors?
Hyperacute
178
Which type of graft rejection happens 100 days or more wherein the T cells in HSC, lung, or liver transplants reacts against foreign HLA proteins in the recipient’s cells, causing massive cytokine release, inflammation, and tissue destruction in various locations throughout the body.
GVHD (Graft Versus Host Disease)
179
Which type of graft rejection occurs days to months wherein there is a cell-mediated response to foreign MHC-expressing cells and CD4+ T cells produce cytokines and induce delayed type hypersensitivity?
Acute
180
Which type of graft rejection occurs 1 year or more with the presence of delayed type hypersensitivity response and possibly antibodies to foreign HLA antigens on graft?
Chronic
181
This test uses mitomycin C-treated or irradiated donor lymphocytes and live recipient lymphocytes.
Mixed lymphocyte reaction
182
Rh antibodies are of which Ig class and subclass?
IgG4
183
True/False: Rh antibodies can induce complement fixation.
False. It cannot.
184
Where do we get cyclosporine?
Fungi
185
Where do we get bacitracin?
Bacillus
186
The most commonly donated organs.
Kidney
187
The safest organ to transplant.
Cornea
188
Why is cornea the safest organ to transplant?
It is avascular, it has decreased MHC class I molecules and it has no MHC class II molecules
189
A part of IgA that prevents it from enzymatic degradation and facilitates in the transport of secretory IgA.
Secretory piece
