Chapter 8 Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

The central nervous system is composed of the:
a) spinal nerves and ganglia.
b) brain and spinal cord.
c) brain and cranial nerves.
d) spinal cord and spinal nerves.

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following are components of the central nervous system?
a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Spinal cord and twelve pairs of cranial nerves
c) Brain and twelve pairs of cranial nerves
d) Brain

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following are components of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Spinal cord
b) Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves
c) Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves and Autonomic nerves
d) Spinal cord and autonomic nerves

A

Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves and Automatic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following supplies the striated skeletal muscles?
a) Meningeal cranial nerve
b) Hypoglossal cranial nerve
c) Autonomic nervous system
d) Somatic nervous system

A

Somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue are controlled by the:
a. olfactory cranial nerve.
b. vagus cranial nerve.
c. autonomic nervous system.
d. somatic nervous system.

A

Autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
a) neuron.
b) glioma.
c) meningi.
d) corpus callosum.

A

Neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the myelin sheath?
a) The basic unit of the nervous system
b) The innermost layer of the protective covering of the CNS
c) A fatty insulation covering of the axon
d) A long, threadlike extension of the nerve cell

A

A fatty insulation covering of the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of:
a) meningitis.
b) neoplasm.
c) osteomyelitis.
d) multiple sclerosis.

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The largest part of the brain is the:
a) cerebellum
b) cerebrum
c) medulla
d) pons

A

Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the spinal cord?
a) Brainstem
b) Cerebellum
c) Basal ganglia
d) Diencephalon

A

Brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the basal ganglia?
a) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the spinal cord
b) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain
c) Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum
d) Islands of white matter deep within the gray matter of the cerebellum

A

Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following are parts of the basal ganglia? a) Globus pallidus
b) Caudate nuclei
c) Putamen
d) Globus pallidus, caudate nuclei, and putamen

A

Globus pallidus, caudate nuclei, and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The midbrain consists of the:
a) pons and medulla.
b) brain and spinal cord.
c) cerebrum and corpus callosum.
d) thalamus and hypothalamus.

A

Pons and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the midbrain?
a) Brainstem
b) Diencephalon
c) Corpus callosum
d) Choroid plexus

A

Diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?
a) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary devices
b) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance
c) To control position and automatic movements
d) A relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the cerebral cortex

A

A relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?
a) To control position and automatic
movements
b) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary drives
c) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance
d) Center of control for nonvital functions, such as coughing, sneezing, hiccupping, etc.

A

Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the:
a) dura mater
b) arachnoid membrane
c) pia mater
d) myelin sheath

A

Dura mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is an extension of the dura mater that projects downward into the longitudinal fissure to separate the cerebral hemispheres?
a. Tentorium cerebelli
b. Tentorium cerebri
c. Falx cerebelli
d. Falx cerebri

A

Falx cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the tentorium cerebelli?
a) Separate the cerebral hemispheres.
b) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
c) Separate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum.
d) Separate the cerebellum from the temporal lobes of the cerebrum.

A

Separate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ventricles of the brain are filled with:
a) air.
b) cerebrospinal fluid.
c) blood.
d) lymph.

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formed?
a) In the meninges
b) In the diploë of the skull
c) In the corpus callosum
d) In the choroid plexus

A

In the choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF are known as:
a) choroid plexuses.
b) meninges.
c) diploë.
d) falx cerebri.

A

Choroid plexuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid villi?
a) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
b) Protect the CNS.
c) Absorption of CSF into venous blood.
d) Secrete CSF

A

Absorption of CSF into venous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is called:
a) encephalitis.
b) meningitis.
c) subdural empyema.
d) supradural empyema.

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A brain abscess is usually the result of a: a) trauma. b) osteomyelitis. c) herpes simplex virus. d) chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (i.e., pneumonia).
chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (i.e., pneumonia).
26
What is the most common cause of a subdural empyema? a) Spread of infection from frontal or ethmoid sinuses b) Osteomyelitis c) Herpes simplex virus d) Scalp infection
Spread of infection from frontal or ethmoid sinuses
27
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor? a) Dendroma b) Glioma c) Acoustic neuroma d) Meningioma
Glioma
28
Which of the following types of gliomas are slow growing and tend to calcify? a) Astrocytomas b) Glioblastomas c) Medulloblastomas d) Oligodendrocytomas
Oligodendrocytomas
29
Which of the following is the most common type of glioma? a) Oligodendrocytoma b) Glioblastoma multiforme c) Astrocytoma d) Ependymoma
Astrocytoma
30
Which of the following is a slow-growingm benign tumor that occurs on the eigth cranial nerve? a) Acoustic neuroma b) Pineal tumor c) Glioblastoma d) Oligodendrocytoma
Acoustic neuroma
31
What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain? a) Liver and lung b) Prostate and breast c) Pancreas and kidneys d) Lung and breast
Lung and breast
32
Which of the following is the primary imaging modality used to examine head injuries (trauma)? a. Radiography b. CT c. MRI d. Ultrasound
CT
33
Which of the following is caused by arterial bleeding in the cranium? a) Epidural hematoma b) Subdural hematoma c) Intraventricular hemorrhage d) Subcerebellar hemorrhage
Epidural hematoma
34
Which of the following is caused by venous bleeding in the cranium? a) Intracerebral hematoma b) Medullocerebellar hematoma c) Subdural hematoma d) Epidural hematoma
Subdural hematoma
35
What is the most common facial bone fracture? a) Maxillae b) Nasal bones c) Zygoma d) Mandible
Nasal bones
36
Which fracture separates the zygoma from the other facial bones? a) Le Fort b) Blow-out c) Depressed d) Tripod
Tripod
37
Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit? a) Stellate fracture b) Le Fort fracture c) Blow-out fracture d) Tripod fracture
Blow-out fracture
38
Which projection is useful in demonstrating fractures of the zygomatic arches? a) SMV b) Parietoacanthial (Waters’) c) AP d) Lateral
SMV
39
Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae? a) Stellate fracture b) Le Fort fracture c) Blow-out fracture d) Tripod fracture
Le Fort fracture
40
What term is used to denote the sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit? a. Stroke b. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) c. Hematoma d. Aneurysm
Stroke
41
Paralysis on one side of the body is termed: a) paraplegia. b) quadriplegia. c) hemiplegia. d) dysplegia.
Hemiplegia
42
A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a: a) stroke. b) AVM. c) aneurysm. d) transient ischemic attack (TIA).
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
43
Which of the following is used to initially screen patients suspected of a transient ischemic attack? a) CT b) Computed tomography angiography (CTA) c) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) d) Color-flow Doppler ultrasound
Color-flow Doppler ultrasound
44
A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of: a) Huntington’s disease. b) Alzheimer’s. c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage. d) TIA.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
45
What is the most common cause of nontraumatic intraparenchymal hemorrhage in persons under age 20? a. AVM b. TIA c. Stroke d. Aneurysm rupture
AVM
46
A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is: a. Huntington’s disease. b. Epilepsy. c. Parkinson’s disease. d. Multiple sclerosis.
Epilepsy
47
Which of the following CNS degenerative disorders has the CT pathologic hallmark of atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen, causing focal dilatation of the frontal horns? a) Huntington's disease b) Parkinson's disease c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig) d) Alzheimer's
Huntington's disease
48
Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Normal aging c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig) d. Alzheimer’s
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig)
49
Viral inflammation of the brain is termed: a) Encephalitis. b) Meningitis. c) Brain abscess. d) Subdural empyema.
Encephalitis
50
Which type of primary brain tumor usually arises in the walls of the fourth ventricle in children and in the lateral ventricles in adults? a. Glioblastoma b. Astrocytoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
Epedymoma
51
Which benign CNS tumor arises from arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura? a) Oligodendrocytoma b) Meningioma c) Ependymoma d) Astrocytoma
Meningioma
52
Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture? a) Diastatic b) Le Fort c) Stellate d) Depressed
Diastatic
53
Where is the most common site for traumatic arteriovenous fistulas to arise in the CNS? a. The superior ophthalmic artery and cavernous sinus b. The superior ophthalmic artery and internal carotid artery c. The internal and external carotid arteries d. The internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus
The internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus
54
What position is recommended to obtain facial bone radiographic images to evaluate facial trauma? a. Supine b. Upright c. Prone d. Recumbent lateral
Upright
55
What position is recommended to obtain trauma images of the facial bones when the patient cannot be positioned upright? a. Dorsal decubitus b. Recumbent lateral c. Supine d. Prone
Dorsal decubitus
56
(T/F) The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain
False
57
(T/F) The middle meningeal layer is the arachnoid membrane
True
58
(T/F) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed in the arachnoid villi
False
59
(T/F) Encephalitis is most commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus
True
60
(T/F) Sinus infections can spread to the brain and cause an empyema or abscess
True
61
(T/F) MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors
True
62
(T/F) The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma
True
63
(T/F) The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones.
True
64
(T/F) Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury
False
65
(T/F) Bilateral fractures are common in the mandible
True