Chapter 4 Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

The bone is covered on the outer surfaces by a fibrous membraned called:

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The hollow, tubelike structure within the diaphysis is the:

A

medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone is:

A

cancellous bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The secondary ossification center in a long bone is the:

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Growth of outer bone diameter is dependent upon:

A

osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called:

A

Intramembranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of cell is associated with bone formation and resorption?

A

Osteoclastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called:

A

A transitional vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar or cervical region is known as a:

A

meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage is:

A

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures is:

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The most common form of dwarfism, caused by decreased enchondral bone formation, is:

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should:

A

decrease the exposure factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The disease process that begins as an inflammation of the synovial membrane causing synovial proliferation is called:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common form of degenerative arthritis that has osteophyte development is:

A

osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following results when a pyogenic organism enters the joint through the blood, direct extension, or trauma?

A

Infectious arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The fluid-filled sacs located near joints may become inflamed, which results in:

A

bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To best demonstrate early changes in osteomyelitis, the modality of choice is:

A

nuclear medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A disorder that begins as a bone abscess that travels through the medullary cavity and outward to lift the periosteum is known as:

A

osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteomyelitis is correctly characterized as:
A) the result of bacteria
B) pyogenic
C) a postoperative complication
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in:

A

osteoporosis

22
Q

To assess bone material content from a qualitative approach, the best imaging is:

A

dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

23
Q

Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing, as a loss of bone density, is:

A

osteomalacia

24
Q

Body weight on weight-bearing loss may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of:

A

osteomalacia

25
Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is:
gout
26
To demonstrate degenerative knee joint narrowing most accurately requires the image to be:
weight-bearing standing AP and lateral
27
In Paget's disease, the beginning phase involves bone:
destruction
28
The most common initial site of Paget's disease is the:
pelvis
29
Proliferation of fibrous tissue within the medullary cavity is:
fibrous dysplasia
30
A pattern of lytic and sclerotic new bone growth, with a flattening of the femoral head, associated with periosteal new bone is suggestive of:
ischemic necrosis
31
A true osteochondroma grows laterally from the epiphysis and:
must exhibit a cortex and medullary portion
32
Lobulated borders from endosteal scalloping, containing focal areas of high signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images, are suggestive of an:
enchondroma
33
The bone lesion typically seen as a small (<1cm) round area with a lucent center (nidus) is a(n):
osteoid osteoma
34
An expansile lucent lesion demonstrating a sharp demarcation from normal adjacent bone having a thin sclerotic rim is an:
unicameral cyst
35
A cyst-like lesion causing ballooning and possibly having internal septations is a(n):
aneurysmal bone cyst
36
Malignant bone lesions cause soft-tissue swelling and:
Cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin
37
A classic sunburst pattern of bony spicules that extend in a radiating fashion is a characteristic radiographic appearance of:
osteogenic sarcomas
38
Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow of long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of:
Ewing's sarcoma
39
The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of:
multiple myeloma
40
For detecting asymptomatic bone metastases, the modality of choice is:
radionuclide bone scan
41
Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a(n):
Complete fracture
42
A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture?
Pathologic
43
The healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is:
malunion
44
Suspected nonaccidental trauma is another name for:
battered-child syndrome
45
A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a:
Colles' fracture
46
A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a:
Hangman's fracture
47
Forward displacement of one vertebra on the other resulting in back pain caused by cleft in the pars interarticularis is:
Spondylolisthesis
48
Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate rotator cuff tears?
MRI
49
Which imaging modality is used to demonstrate tears in the menisci of the knees?
MRI
50
A tumor grows parallel to the bone and points away from the adjacent joint. What common benign bone tumor is it?
Osteochondroma