Checklist Flashcards
1
Q
Into what does the popliteal A fork?
A
Ant tibial A & post tibial A
2
Q
What’s the med continuation of the pedal dorsal venous arch?
A
Great saphenous V
3
Q
What’s the lat branch of the sciatic N?
A
Common fibular N
4
Q
What’s the main arterial supply for the post femoral compartment?
A
Deep femoral A
5
Q
What AV accompany the deep fibular N?
A
Ant tibial AV
6
Q
What AV accompany the saphenous N?
A
Femoral AV
7
Q
From where does the 3rd doral Mt A branch?
A
Arcuate A
8
Q
The union of the ant & post tibial V form the
A
Popliteal V
9
Q
Into where does the small saphenous V drain?
A
Popliteal V
10
Q
Whats the medial branch of the tibial N?
A
Med plantar N
11
Q
What artery supplies tibialis ant?
A
Ant tibial A
12
Q
What vein drains fl digiti minimi [of the foot]
A
Lat plantar V
13
Q
Agonist
A
Mm that perform a major/ particular action.
Ex: Biceps brachii is agonist of elbow flexion
14
Q
Prime mover
A
The main agonists.
Ex: quads are prime movers for knee extension
15
Q
Synergists
A
Helper agonists that can also help stabilize.
Ex: brachialis is synergist to biceps brachii
16
Q
Antagonist
A
Mm that perform opposite action of agonist.
Ex: triceps during elbow flexion
17
Q
Fixators
A
Stabilize a region so a particular action can be done.
Ex: rotator cuff Mm in shoulder
18
Q
What are two synergist to the main actions of iliopsoas?
A
Rectus femoris and sartorius
19
Q
What are three antagonists to the main action of vastus lateralis?
A
Hamstirngs: Biceps femoris long head and short head, semitendinosis, semimembranosis
20
Q
What are two synergists to the common action of Tib anterior & Tib posterior?
A
Fl dig longus & Fl hallucis longus
21
Q
Fibrous jts
A
Rigid or relatively immovable joints
Ex: cranial sutures, inf tibiofibular jt
22
Q
Cartilaginous jts
A
bones joined by intervening cartilage; immovable to flexible.
Ex: hyaline cart of costae, epiphyseal plates, pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs
23
Q
Synovial jts
A
Highly movable, most common type, typically has articulating cartilages, synovial membrane, fluid, fibrous jt capsule, and ligg.
Ex: knee, elbow, etc
24
Q
What’s a dermatome?
A
An area of skin innervated by only one spinal nerve. All spinal Nn except C1 form dermatomes; they may overlap considerably
25
Palpation spot for dematome: L1
Just inf to inguinal lig
26
Palpation spot for dematome: L2
Ant most thigh at level of crotch base
27
Palpation spot for dematome: L3
Med femoral condyle
28
Palpation spot for dematome: L4
Medial malleolus
29
Palpation spot for dematome: L5
Dorsum of Mt III
30
Palpation spot for dematome: S1
Lateral pes
31
Palpation spot for dematome: S2
MEDIAL popiteal fossa
32
Palpation spot for dematome: S3
Ischial tuberosity
33
Palpation spot for dematome: S4-5
Perianal skin
34
Palpation spot for dematome: C5
Lat cubital fossa
35
Palpation spot for dematome: C6
Pollex
36
Palpation spot for dematome: C7
Digit III
37
Palpation spot for dematome: C8
Medial Manus
38
Palpation spot for dematome: T1
Medial cubital fossa
39
Handy dermatome marker: T10
Umbilicus
40
What two very large Mm are quite visable in the post view of the femoral region?
Biceps femoris & vastus lateralis
41
Name 4 pes evertors
fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, fibulari tertius and ext dig longus
42
Name 4 pes invertors
ant & post tibialis, fl dig longus, flex & ext hallucis longus
43
Fibularis tertius is actually part of...?
Extensor dig longus
44
What A runs with the deep fibular N?
Ant tibial A
45
What N runs with the post tibial A
Tibial N
46
What passes through the greater sciatic foramen?
Piriformis, Sup and inf gluteal NAaVv, Sciatic N
47
What passes through the lesser sciatic foramen?
Obturator internus
48
What bounds the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?
Sacrotuberous lig and sacrospinous lig
49
What are the functions of these various regular dense connective tissue structures?
sup ext retinaculum; inf ex retinaculum; fl retinaculum; plantar fascia; plantar aponeurosis of plantar fascia
Prevent bowstringing, bound supportive cartilage & bone to other body structures
50
What is bowstringing?
If tendons were not held to the bone & were able to hang unprotected
51
Explain the architecture of ant vs. post lower extremity muscle masses - why are particular regions bigger?
Hip and knee extensors and ankle plantar flexors are larger to combat wlkaing against gravity (ie. Phat Stick Man)
52
What is the axis of the pes?
Digit II
53
What is the axis of the manus?
Digit III
54
Define Class I lever
fulcrum is in the middle, think SEESAW, made for speed & stability.
What's in the middle?
First = Fulcrum
55
Define Class II lever
weight is in the middle, think WHEELBARROW, made for power. Ex: chin muscle (temporomandibular jt)
What's in the middle?
tWo = Weight
56
Define Class III lever
pull is in the middle, think CATAPULT, made for speed. Ex: brachialis
What's in the middle?
most Popular = Pull
57
What's the most common lever type in the body? Why?
Class III, because it is for speed
58
Lower ext center of gravity plumbline runs where?
Just ant to lat malleolus
59
Femoral triangle boundaries?
Adductor longus, Inguinal lig, Sartorius,
boundArIeS
60
Popliteal fossa boundaries
biceps femoris, plantaris, gastrocnemius, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, fascia lata, popliteal surface of femur
61
Where does a femoral hernia occur?
medial compartment of the thigh, deep to inguinal lig
62
Why is a femoral hernia more common in females than males?
less common in males bc of inguinal canal into sacrum is present and weak
63
What is the name of the fascia in the femoral compartment?
Fascia lata
64
What is the name of the fascia in the crural compartment?
Fascia cruris
65
What's the clinical importance of knowing fascial compartments?
Keep body organized, contains injury/pathology, protects body
66
What are 3 major fxn of lower extremity deep fascia?
Holds you together, compartmentalizes & organizes, origin for muscles, elastic stocking for venous return
67
What's the most commonly injured ankle lig?
Ant talofibular lig
68
What is the function of the ACL?
Prevents hyperextension & prevents the tibia from displacing anteriorly. It also helps lock the knee,
69
What is the function of the PCL?
Prevents tibia from sliding backwards
70
What are the 4 functions of the knee menisci?
1. Pads the joint
2. Deepens the facets for stabilization
3. Moves to adapt tibial surfaces to changing femoral curvature
4. Assists in locking knee
71
Fx of patellar tendon?
Common insertion for all knee extensors, ext of quad tendon, provides more leverage
72
What are the fxs of synovial fluid?
Act as lubricant
Cushions jt
Contains Nutrients
73
What structure produces synovial fluid?
Synovial membrane (inner membrane of synovial jts)
74
The 3 major non-muscular locks for the knee
ACL, LCL & menisci
75
Explain how the knee locks upon extension & slight ext rotation
ACL & PCL lock in full extension
LCL twists & tightens
Meniscus jam in the back of the knee
76
Explain the clinical tests ant & post drawer signs
Lie on the table, grab tibial plateaus & have them bend knee to 60 degrees. If it comes forward a lot, the ACL is torn. If it comes backward a lot, the PCL is torn.
77
Which collateral lig is weaker?
Med collateral is weaker than lat collateral
78
Why is med collateral lig supposedly more likely to be sprained than lateral besides it being weaker?
You are more likely to receive impact on the lateral side, which will apply force to the MCL which is attached to medial meniscus.
79
Luxation
Dislocation
80
Subluxation
Partial dislocation
81
Bursitis
Inflammationof bursa
82
Avulsion
Tearing away
83
What is the jt type of the pubic symphasis?
Cartilaginous
84
What's the fx of the iliofemoral lig & ischiofemoral lig?
Prevents hyperextension of coxal jt
85
What's the fx of the pubofemoral lig?
Prevents hyperextension and hyperabduction of coxal jt
86
Name the pelvic synovial membranes
coxal jt synovial sac, trochanteric bursa, ischial bursa
87
What’s the orientation of the femoral diaphysis & tibial diaphysis in relation to the sagittal plane?
The femoral diaphysis and tibial diaphysis are inclined creating the Q angle
88
Why is Q angle an important consideration in knee architecture?
It affects the varus and valgus which can put pressure on the knee joint.
89
What's the range of typical femoral inclination?
115-140 deg
90
It affects the varus and valgus which can put pressure on the knee joint.
Our hips widen
91
Is Semitendinosus or Semimembranosus the stronger int knee rotator? Why?
Semitendinosus is stronger int rotator bc the insertion is on the superior ant tibia and wraps medially for leverage.
92
What’s the special structure that two Mm use to stabilize the lat knee jt?
Iliotibial band or IT Band (TFL and gluteus maximus)
93
Why is the knee the most inured
1. Handles almost all the stress of the body
2. It is flat and not very stable
3. It is held together by ligaments
94
Some humans may pass out if they lock their knees for a prolonged period. Why?
blood flow to the brain becomes inadequate due to locking knees and lack of muscle contraction
95
What’s ant crural compartment syndrome?
When crural fascia tightens and causes more friction. The friction causes pain due to increase in size of muscles which increases pressure and connective tissue becomes tight and inflexible.
96
What are two causes of shin splints?
1. tearing of connective tissue from tibial crest
| 2. overuse and over supination/ overpronation of feet
97
Why is it clinically important to know about bursae?
Important to know locations and functions of bursae bc they may become inflammed or infected. They are located where there is a lot of friction so when inflammation happens it could impair movement.
98
The subtalar jt is a complex gliding jt. Note that it lies perpendicular to the line of weight transmission to the ground. WHY?
It lies perpendicular so that there is no sheer stress. The ST joint receives 100% of your BW so if it was not perpenducular it would create torque that could cause injury or tearing.
99
What’s the major supporter of the calcaneonavicular jt?
Spring Ligament
100
What jt type and movement occurs at the MTP jt
Type: Synovial; biaxial, ellipsoid jt
Movement: Flex/Ext, ABd/Add
101
What jt type and movement occurs at the IP jt
Type: Synovial, uniaxial, hinge jt
Movement: Flex/Ext
102
What bones compose the medial longitudinal arch?
Calcanus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms, Mt I-III, hallucal sesamoids
103
What are the main muscle supporters of the medial longitudinal arch?
Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, fibularis longus
104
What are the main lig supporters of the medial longitudinal arch?
Main: Spring ligament
Also: plantar aponeurosis, long & short plant ligg
105
What bones compose the lateral longitudinal arch?
Calcaneus, cuboid, Mt IV & V
106
What are the main muscle supporters the lateral longitudinal arch?
None
107
What are the main lig supporters the lateral longitudinal arch?
Main: Short & Long Planter Ligg
Also: spring lig and plantar aponeurosis
108
What bones compose the transverse arch?
Cuneiforms, cuboid Mt bases I-V
109
What are the main muscle supporters of the transverse arch?
Main: Fibularis longus
Also: fib brevis, adductor hallucis obliquus
110
What are the lig supporters of the transverse arch?
spring lig, long & short plantar lig
111
What are the fxns of each arch?
Main: weight bearing, shock absorption, and propulsion
Lateral longitudinal arch: also transfers weight from heal to balls of the foot
Medial arch: keeps balance (with hallical seasmoid) and is a major shock absorber
112
Fx of hallical sesamoids
Assist in weight bearing & elevates the metatarsal head off the ground
113
What are the 4 characteristics of any skeletal muscle?
Elastic: rubbery & snaps into place
Excitable: produce action potential
Extensible: extended w/o damage
Contractile: can shorten & thicken
114
5 functions of skeletal muscle system
1. produce Movement
2. Protect & support soft tissue
3. Tense to maintain body posture & position
4. produce heat to maintain body Temp
5. Control entrances & exits
Mneumonic: Most People Tense To Control
115
What are the three muscle tissue types?
Skeletal, cardiac and smooth
116
What are the defining characteristics of skeletal muscle?
```
Shape: Cylindrical
Nuceli: multiple nuclei
Voluntary/Involuntary: Voluntary
Striation: Highly striated
Special features: Neurogenic - have NMJ
```
117
What are the defining characteristics of cardiac muscle?
```
Shape: Y-shaped (bifurcated)
Nuceli: single nuceli (can have up to 5)
Voluntary/Involuntary: involuntary
Striation: Striated (not as much as skeletal)
Special features:
- intercalated discs
- rhythmic w/ self generating AP
```
118
What are the defining characteristics of smooth muscle?
```
Shape: spindle shaped
Nuceli:one central nuceli
Voluntary/Involuntary: involuntary
Striation: not striated
Special features: AP produced by nerves, hormones, or chemical changes
```
119
Being neurogenic is a unique characteristic of type of muscle?
Skeletal muscle
120
In the digestive tract what muscle type under go peristalsis?
Smooth muscle
121
What muscle type has intercalated disc (cell membranes connected by special junctions); AP passes directly from cell to cell and has increased mitochodrial density?
Cardiac muscle
122
Myofibrils
Composed of myofilament proteins (myosin & actin) arranged into sarcomeres
123
Sarcomere
Make up myofibrils; one sarcomere = myosin & actin
124
Myosin
Thick protein; has heads that attach to actin sites during muscle contraction
125
Actin
Thin protein; has binding sites covered by tropomyosin that are uncovered for myosin crossbridge
126
Sarcolemma
Membrane enclosing striated muscle fiber; AP propogates down sarcolemma to initiate contraction
127
Sarcoplasm
Muscle cell cytoplasm
128
T-tubules
Tunnel extensions of sarcolemma; propogates AP which then stimulates Ca++ release from SR
129
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
Tubular network around myofirbrils that stores & supplies Ca++ to sarcomeres to initiate contraction (crossbridge formation)
130
A Band
Thin and thick proteins; DOES NOT shorten during contraction
131
I Band
No thick proteins; DOES shorten during contraction
132
What’s the maximal contractual length of a skeletal myofiber?
70% shorter than resting length (ex: starts at 3 cm and contracts to 1 cm)
133
What’s optimal muscle fiber overlap?
Skeletal Mm produce maximum tension over a narrow range of sarcomere lengths. If stretched too much, the muscle loses power because of little overlap of the myosin heads & actin binding sites. Too much overlap reduces tension because of disruption of normal bonding relationships (too crowded). Other Mm, bones, & ligg limit the degree of stretching & compression of any one muscle. Tension produced by a contraction varies with the resting (initial) sarcomere length, as well as neurogenic input (Ach release from the nerve).
The force of contraction in a muscle is dependent on the number of muscle fibers stimulated & frequency of stimulation. The force is also dependent on belly shape, orientation of the fibers to the applied force, and maximal cross-sectional area of the fibers.
134
Which 3 structures form a tendon?
Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium
135
What are the 4 functions of the plantar aponeurosis?
1. Extends line of pull for calcaneal tendon to pes digits
2. Provides leverage in plantarflexion
3. Supports/ maintains arch of foot
4. Protects bottom of pes
136
What is the skeletal M morphological hierarchy from large to small?
belly wrapped in EPIMYSIUM — fascicles wrapped in PERIMYSIUM — muscle fibers wrapped in ENDOMYSIUM — myofibrils — sarcomeres — A & I bands (dArk & lIght)
137
Describe the Sliding Filament Theory
As skeletal M contracts, I band shortens & A band stays the same as overlap occurs. As AP travels down T-tubules, Ca++ is released from SR and binds to troponin which moves the tropomyosin off the actin. Then the myosin head binds to the open site forming a crossbridge and a power stroke occurs (shortening). Maximal overlap occurs at ⅓ of its original length.
138
What is muscle tension determined by?
Tension in a muscle belly is determined by frequency of stimulation and the number of muscle fibers stimulated.
139
How strong are the epimysium/perimysium/endomysium ends (aka tendon framework), & periosteum that encapsulate the musculoskeletal system?
Very strong. It is a woven into lattice work so the tendon can bull the bone off of the muscle. More common for a tendon to pull off the bone than for the tendon to rupture.
140
What forms hypodermis?
Adipose tissue!!!
- thick & extensive fatty layer deep to skin.
- Made of: loose connective tissue, adipose tissue, areolar tissue
141
What part articulates in the glenoid fossa?
Head of humerus
142
Where does the semilunar notch articulate?
articulates w/ trochlea of humerus (trochlear notch of ulna)
143
The four rotator cuff Mm?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Major, Subscapularis
144
What's Shoulder bursitis?
Inflammation of bursae in shoulder joint
145
Why don't the humeral head & glenoid fossa form a deep ball& socket?
It sacrifices stability for mobility. ABduction & flexion of the arm involve not only the shoulder jt, but also the clavicle & scapula. Motion at the glenohumeral joint accounts for only 10 out of every 15 degrees of movement.
146
What are the 8 functions of the skeletal system?
1. Moveable framework
2. Protects organs
3. Red marrow
4. Detoxification
5. Maintains acid/base balance
6. Tranduces sound
7. Yellow marrow
8. Stores salts
Mnemonic: My Poor Red Dog May Turn Yellow Soon
147
How is membranous bone formed?
- Direct ossification within soft connective tissue (no cartilaginous precursor)
- Bone usually deposited in sheet like fashion
- Two main types: Dermal & Sesamoids
Ex: patella, sesamoids, nasal, frontal, paritels, temporalis, occiptal, mandible
148
How is endochondral bone formed?
- Elements preformed in hyaline cartilage is then dissolved and bone deposited into that space
Ex: long bones, phalanges, tarsals, carpals, scapulae, hyoid, ribcage, vertebrae, coxa, & "inner" cranial bones
- IMPORTANT: Collagen & hydroxyapatite crystals are deposited
149
What are the two main components of bone tissue
collagen lattice + calcium phosphate salt crystals
150
Osteoprogenitor cells
Mesenchymal cells that differentiate into osteoblasts
151
Osteoblasts
BUILD bone; make the organic lattice & promote deposition of calcium salts around themselves
152
Osteocyte
An osteoblast that gets trapped in its own collagen & calcium phosphate salt (bone) matrix; it can no longer move (topographic name change)
153
Canaliculi
cell extensions )"little canals") of the osteocytes that interconnect w/ other osteocytes & interstitial fluid next to blood & lymph capillaries
154
Lacuna (“little lake”)
The space enclosed by bone that an osteocyte sits within.
155
Resorption
Dissolution of bone by osteoclasts; the opposite, the laying down of bone matrix by osteoblasts & osteocytes, is Deposition.
156
Lamellae
Layer of bone deposition, layers tend to be planar or concentric
157
Haversian Canal (for AvVvL)
Central canal of an osteo that hosues AaVv, lymph vessels & Nn; usually run parallel (w/ its osteon) to the long axis of the bone
158
Osteon
Concentric “bullseye” of lamellae that have a central haversian canal; cylindrical shape
159
Spongy bone characteristics
“Little beams”; beams of bone that form spongy bone; NO haversian canals
160
9 Steps of building a long bone
1. Formed in cartilage
2. Grows and ossifies gradually
3. periosteum forms around diaphysis and contains osteoblasts
4. Endosteum forms on inside of medullary cavity
5. Primary ossification from center of diaphysis moving outward and hollows center
6. Secondary ossification at epiphyses & in large tuberosities
7. Cartilaginous epiphyseal plate forms
8. periosteum and endosteum remodel to maintain bones shape with growth
9. Max height is reached; epiphyseal plate is ossified into epiphyseal line.
161
9 functions of integumentary system
1. Holds together in flexible wrapper
2. prevents rapid Dessication
3. Protects body from external harm (Radiological, biological or chemical)
4. contains Receptors (pain. pressure, sensation, etc)
5. finishes making vitamin-D
6. produces eccrine Sweat to cool body
7. excretes Waste
8. communicates Genetic and health info
9. Emotional expressions
Mneumonic: How DO People Remember Dancing Silly With Grandpa Ed
162
What are the main protein and tissue types of the dermis?
Collagen; irregular dense connective tissue
163
What are the main protein and tissue types of the epidermis?
Keratin; stratified squamous epithelium
164
Functions of the dermis?
Supplied w/ blood vessels, lymph vessels, Nn, & sensory endings
165
Functions of the epidermis?
Has no vesssels & is nourished through diffusion from underlying tissue
166
Functions of the hypodermis?
To tie the skin to the body but leave slack for skin to ride over underlying structures to prevent damage when stretched; adds thermoregulatory control.
167
Functions of keratinocytes
Cells that make keratin
168
Functions of keratin
Tough, waterproof protein in epidermis & its outgrowths (hair & nails)
169
Epithelium is avascular, so how does the epidermis obtain nutrients/get rid of most wastes?
Epidermis is noursished through diffusion from underlying tissue, as in all epithelium.
170
What are the major difference between the CNS and PNS systems?
CNS:
- brain and spinal cord
- rapid acting
- electrochemical signals
PNS:
- nerves and ganglia
- more "leisurely"
- hormones released into the blood that acts on tisues
171
What comprises the CNS?
Brain and spinal cord
172
What comprises the PNS
12 pairs cranial Nn, 31 pairs of spinal Nn, 1 pair of sympathetic trunks
173
What is the break down of the 31 Spinal Nerves?
- 8 pairs cervical spinal Nn --but note that there are 7 cervical vertebrae in mammals.
- 12 pairs thoracic spinal Nn
- 5 pairs lumbar
- 5 pairs sacral
- 1 pair coccygeal Nn (usually)
Total = 31 pairs of spinal Nn
174
What is CSF & what are its functions?
```
CSF = Cerebrospinal fluid
Functions:
- support CNS
- chemically protects CNS
- physically protects CNS
- shock absorber
- nourishes the CNS inside & out
- median of exchange for nutrients and waste
```
175
What are neuroglia and their functions?
Nerve glue that supports and maintains cells
Functions:
- Separates and protects neurons
- Provides supportive framework for neural tissue
- Acts as a phagocyte
- Helps regulate the composition of interstitial fluid
176
What's the difference between gray & white matter?
Grey matter:
- includes neural somas (interneuron somas and motore neuron somas) and is processed and transmitted by it
- contains cell bodies
- unmylinated
White matter:
- myelinated
- contains axons
- only transmits impulses
177
Why are neurons myelinated?
Myelination speeds up nerve impulses
178
Except for receptor soma, all other neuron cell bodies are located in what two places?
1. The brain
| 2. Gray matter of the spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia of PNS
179
Soma
cell body with nucleus
180
Dendrites
Root like processess; conduct impulse toward axon end
181
Axon
Conducts impulse away
182
Axon terminals
Transfer impulse to another cell
183
Myelination
Expanded plasmalemma (electrical insulation)
184
Schwann cell
Surround all PNS axons, some axons are myelinated
185
Satellite cells
Surround neuron cell bodies in peripheral ganglia
186
Nodes of Ranvier
Gaps between schwann cells - speed up nerve impulse by "jumping"
187
Myelin sheath
Inner layers of "Extra" cell membrane
188
Synapse
Gap between presynaptic & postsynaptic neurons
189
Neurotransmitter
Stored vesicles until needed. Can stimulate or inhibit.
190
Ach (acetylcholine)
Type of neurotransmitter; stimulates skeletal muscle contraction
191
Are unmyelinated PNS nerves supported by schwann cells? If so, what is the anatomical difference between un- & myelinated axons
Yes, they are supported. Unmyelinated axons do not grow, they have extra plasmalemma layers
192
What are the function classifications of afferent sensory neurons?
Carry nerve impulses from receptors to the CNS
193
What are the function classifications of efferent sensory neurons?
Carry nerve impulses away from CNS to effectors
194
Interneurons
Connects neurons to neurons & are only found in CNS. Responsible for distribution of sensory info & coordination of motor activity
195
What are sensation examples for external environment special senses?
sense of smell (cranial N I), taste (cranial N VII, IX, X), sight (cranial N II), hearing (VIII)
196
What are sensation examples for external environment nonspecial senses?
Touch, pressure, temperature, etc.
197
What are sensation examples for internal environment proprioception?
Keeping track of your body in space: equilibrium, tendons, jts & Mm
198
What are sensation examples for internal environment visceroception?
Sensing the viscera
199
What are the peripheral nervous system functional divisions?
Somatic (voluntary):
- Afferent Sensory: sensory info from the skin, etc
- Efferent Motor: excites muscles
Visceral (involuntary) --vertebrates are 2 in 1 animals in several ways!
Autonomic
- Afferent Sensory Division: sensory info from organs
- Efferent Motor Divisions:
*Sympathetic Division: fight, fright, flight motor innervation.
*Parasympathetic Division: digest, rest, repose motor innervation.
200
What passes through the vertebral canal?
The spinal cord?
201
What passes through the intervertebral foramina?
The spinal nerve
202
What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the cervical plexus?
C1-C5; phrenic N
203
What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the brachial plexus?
C5-C8, T1; Median, ulnar, axillary, etc.
204
What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the lumbar plexus?
T12, L1-L4; Obturator N, Femoral N, etc.
205
What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the sacral plexus?
L4-S4; sup/inf gluteal, sciatic, tibial, common fibula Nn, etc.
206
What are the plexus locations and the ventral rami that define the coccygeal plexus?
S4-Co1
207
What plexus does the femoral N branch from
Lumbar plexus
208
What plexus does the obturator N branch from
Lumbar plexus
209
What plexus does the sciatic N branch from
Sacral plexus
210
The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?
L1/L2
211
Parasympathetic fibers innervate what?
Vagus N X - GI & viscera
212
What carries the PNS sympathetic innervation?
The sympathetic trunk
213
Are sympathetic Nn motor, sensory or both?
Both
214
What is the plexus nerve hierarchy?
Roots, trunks, divisions, cord, & branches
Mneumonic: Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer
215
Reflex
Automatic, fast nervous system responses to stimuli
216
Spinal Arc Reflex
Automatic response system that consists of a receptor, afferent neuron, synapse, efferent neuron & effector (such as a muscle of gland). Arcs may include more than one synapse.
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Stretch Reflex Arc
Automatic response in which a muscle stretch receptor runs to spinal cord, synapses with a motor neuron that twitches a muscle (Ex: knee jerk when the doctor hits your patellar tendon with his hammer.
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Flexor Reflex Arc
Automatic response that contracts flexor Mm to pull the body part away from the stimulus.
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Crossed Extensor Reflex Arc
At the same time as the flexor reflex, the automatic response of the extensor reflex happens on the opposite side of the body; extensors contract to ward off the stimulus; for example, you place your left manus on the stove burner, and without conscious thought, your left arm flexes to pull the searing manus away from the heat (flexor reflex), and at the same time your right arm extends to ward off & protect yourself from the maniacal stove.
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Tendon Reflex Arc
Inhibits muscular action to reduce tendon tension to prevent damage.
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List the pathway of a simple reflex arc (with an interneuron)
Afferent sensory neuron of ventral ramus → spinal N → dorsal root & its ganglion → interneuron in gray matter of spinal cord → efferent motor neuron in gray matter → ventral root → spinal N → ventral ramus of spinal N → efferent motor neuron transmits signal to effector muscle.
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What Mm bound the anatomical snuffbox?
Ext pollicis longus & brevis
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What cranial N supplies smell?
Olfactory N I
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What cranial N innervates...
skeletal motor: mastication Mm (masseter, temporalis, etc.)
sensory innervation: face, mouth & 2/3 of tongue?
Trigeminal N V
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What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: Mm of pharynx & larynx
sensory innervation: pharynx, larynx, thoracic & abdominal viscera
parasympathetic motor innervation: heart, lung & abdominal viscera
Vagus N X
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What cranial N supplies sight?
Optic N II
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What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: ALL fascial Mm, including platysma
parasympathetic motor innervation: glands: submandibular & sublingual salivary, lacrimal
Fascial N VII
228
What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: med, inf, & sup rectus Mm; inf oblique; & levator palebra
parasympathetic motor innervation: involuntary Mm if ciliary body & iris
Oculomotor N III
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What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: stylopharyngeus M
Sensory innervtion: 1/3 of tounge, pharynx, middle ear
parasympathetic motor innervtion: parotid salivary gland
Glossopharyngeal N IX
230
What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: sternocleidomastoid & trapezius Mm
Spinal Accessory N XI
231
What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: tounge Mm
Hypoglossal N XII
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What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: sup oblique of eye
Trochlear N IV
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What cranial N innervates..
skeletal motor: lateral rectus of eye
Abducens N VI
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What cranial N supplies equillibrium and hearing?
Auditory N VIII
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Which 4 cranial Nn are mixed?
Trigeminal N V, Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X
(5,7,9,10)
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Which 3 cranial N supply taste?
Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X
| 7,9,10
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Which 5 cranial N supply a special sense
Olfactory N I, Optic N II, Fascial N VII, Glossopharyngeal N IX, Vagus N X
(1,2,7,9,10)
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What three cranial Nn innervate skelatal Mm and what Mm do they innervate?
- Trigemingal Nerve V (sub 3): Masseter and Temporalis
- Fascial N VII: The face and platysma
- Accessory Nerve XI: Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid
239
What's respiratory surfactant?
Molecules reduce water’s surface tension, preventing the alveoli from collapsing when the lungs contract.
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What is the ventilatory pathway?
conchae of nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → primary bronchus → secondary bronchus → tertiary bronchus → bronchioles → alveolar duct & alveolus.
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Which lung has a middle lobe?
RIght lung
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What controls passive inspiration?
Diaphram 75% of work, ext intercostals & scalenes
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What controls passive expiration?
virtually no cost, relax muscels used for passive inspiration, rebound ribcage, elastic lung tissue & water film of alveoli
244
What is the difference between diaphragm action and function?
Action = increase thoracic volume
Function = aid in inhalation and exhalation & contracts to laugh, sneeze, cough, sigh, & spasms to hic up
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What are the functions of the circulatory system?
1. transportation of O2, nutrients, water, hormones & metabolic wastes (including CO2)
2. regulation of pH & electrolyte composition of interstitial fluids
3. defense against toxins & pathogens
4. tissue repair/ restriction of fluid loss
5. provides the major control on the transportation of blood
Mneumonic: TO regulate toxins Try blood
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What are the functions of the respiratory system?
1. Ventilate lungs to uptake O2
2. Waste removal: ventilate lungs to excrete CO2
3. filter, heat, & humidify air for lungs
4. moves air through the larynx for phonation / resonates sound for speech
5. brings airborne molecules to olfactory epithelium for olfaction & pheromones to vomeronasal organ
Mneumonic: Venting Will Filter More Molecules
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How do lungs filter?
Cilia filters foreign objects out of air breathed into the nasal tract
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What Mm are used during active INspiration?
Ext intercostals, Pectoralis major & minor, Scalenes (ant, middle & post), Sternocleidomastoid, & Levator costae. Also the Erector spinae contract to extend the back, decreasing the thoracic curvature to increase the thoracic volume
249
What Mm are used during active EXspiration?
Internal intercostals, Transversus thoracis, 4 Ab Mm (External oblique, Internal oblique, Transversus abdominis, Rectus abdominis) Latissimus dorsi, Quadratus lumborum, Serratus posterior inferior.
