Chemistry Exam 3 Flashcards

(269 cards)

1
Q

Primary concern with medical, legal consequences of exposure.
Major focus: generate evidence

A

Forensic toxicology

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2
Q

Main focus: relationship between xenobiotics and disease states
Diagnostic testing and therapeutic intervention
Consider specialty

A

Clinical toxicology

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3
Q

The evaluation of environmental chemical pollutants and their impacts on human health

A

Environmental toxicology

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4
Q

Describe environmental exposure to chemicals or drugs

A

biotics

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5
Q

Describe substances from an animal, plant, mineral, or gas (venom,…)

A

poisons

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6
Q

Endogenous substances biologically synthesized either in living cells or in microorganisms

A

toxins

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7
Q

Highest mortality rate, poisoning cases

A

suicide

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8
Q

Most frequently in kids. Also common in teens and adults with both therapeutic or illicit drugs

A

Accidental

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9
Q

Correlates a single, acute oral dose range with the probability of a lethal outcome in

A

An average 70kg (154lb) male

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10
Q

The predicted dose that would produce a toxic response in 50% of population

A

Toxic dose TD50

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11
Q

Predicted dose that would result in death for 50% of population

A

Lethal dose LD50

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12
Q

Predicted to have a therapeutic benefit or be effective in 50% population

A

Effective dose ED50

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13
Q

Fewer toxic/adverse effects when dose is in the T.R.

A

larger therapeutic index

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14
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Ratio of TD50 or LD50 to the ED50

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15
Q

Toxicity that single, short-term exposure to a substance in which the dose is sufficient to cause immediate toxic effects

A

Acute

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16
Q

Toxicity that associated with repeated and frequent exposure for extended time periods (months to years) at doses that are insufficient to cause an immediate acute response

A

Chronic

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17
Q

Chronic may affect different systems than acute

A

True

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18
Q

Toxic agents exhibit unique absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination

A

Toxicokinetic

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19
Q

“Trace element free” blood collection tubes

A

royal blue top

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20
Q

tube for specifically for lead testing

A

tan blue top tube

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21
Q

Most significant metabolism pathway for alcohols

A

Alcohol→(ADH)→Aldehyde→(ALDH)→Acid

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22
Q

Exposure common for alcohol
Excessive consumption—leading cause of economic, social, and medical problems in the world

A

ethanol

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23
Q

Legal limit for alcohols
Associated with decreased judgement and motor function

A

80 mg/dL

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24
Q

What causes severe metabolic acidosis—can lead to tissue injury and possible death
Common lab solvent
Responsible for optic neuropathy that can lead to blindness

A

Methanol Formic acid

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25
Alcohol responsible for optic neuropathy that can lead to blindness
methanol
26
Rubbing alcohol Metabolized by hepatic ADH to acetone (end product)
isopropanol
27
Common component of hydraulic fluid and antifreeze Sweet taste Results in severe metabolic acidosis Rapid formation and deposition of calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules May result in renal tubular damage
ethylene glycol
28
How many time does affinity of Hgb to CO higher than O2
200-225 times
29
Half life of CO
60-90 min
30
Any exposure to strong acids or bases associated with injury Aspiration and ingestion—greatest hazards Aspiration associated with pulmonary edema and shock
caustic agents
31
Used in electroplating and galvanizing Pigments in paint and plastics Itai-itai disease Toxics to kidneys Half life 30 years
cadmium
32
Half life of lead in bones and soft tissue
20 years and 120 days
33
TUMOR MARKERS If cancer move to other parts of the body it is called
metastasis
34
Biomarker found in the blood or tissue and when elevated is linked to cancer
tumor marker
35
protein produced during fetal development and elevated in individuals with cancer
oncofetal antigens
36
Found on the surface of all nucleated cells Used as a non-specific marker of the high cell turnover common in tumors
beta macroglobulin
37
Valuable in diagnosing neuroblastomas, pituitary and adrenal adenomas
endocrine tumor marker
38
Monoclonal defined antigens identified from human tumor extracts and cell lines
Carbohydrate and Cancer Antigen Tumor Markers
39
“non-serological” markers Helps to choose between endocrine and cytotoxic therapies
receptor tumor markers
40
Tumor specific Absent in healthy individuals Readily detectable in body fluids
Ideal tumor marker
41
Study of the movement of drugs in the body
pharmacokinetic
42
the major transporter of drug
albumin
43
the phenomenon in which a drug is metabolized an results in a reduced concentration of the drug before reaching the circulatory system
1st pass effect
44
The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of actions:
pharmacodynamics
45
This tumor marker often is measured in both the total and free form:
PSA
46
The concentration range of a drug within which the drug produces the desired effect:
therapeutic range
47
This tumor marker is primarily used as a marker for ovarian cancer: May be elevated in patients with endometriosis, 1st tri of pregnancy, or during menstruation
ca 125
48
This is found as a contaminant of homemade liquors and can cause optic neuropathy
methanol
49
This is a significant environmental pollutant and is easily taken up by crops – especially tobacco
cadmium
50
This is a cardioactive drug that is used to treat arrythmias and CHF. Biotin is known to interfere with this test:
digoxin
51
The most direct and effective route of administration of a drug
IV
52
This is a common malignant tumor in kids associated with high levels of plasma, epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine
neuroblastoma
53
This test is used along with hCG to classify nonseminomatous tumor Often elevated in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and germ cell tumors
AFP
54
13) This is a kind of testing method that can be performed on solid tissue tumor markers
Immunohistochemistry
55
The predicted dose that would produce a toxic response in 50% of the population
TD50
56
This may occur when analyte concentrations exceed the analytical range excessively
hook effect
57
This drug is the hepatic metabolite of procainamide
NAPA`
58
This drug commonly is tested for both the total and free forms
phenytoin (dilantin)
59
Endogenous substances biologically synthesized either in living cells or in microorganisms
toxins
60
This method of analysis of toxic agent has good sensitivity but lacks specificity:
screening
61
These types of tumor markers are valuable in diagnosing neuroblastomas, pituitary and adrenal adenomas
endocrine tumor markers
62
This tumor marker is the prototypical oncofetal antigen and is used for monitoring colorectal cancer: Increased in heavy smokers and some patients following radiation treatments
CEA
63
Uses the results from animal experiments to predict what level of exposure will cause harm to humans:
Descriptive Toxicology
64
This is a metal with 3 forms, one of which is liquid at room temp
MERCURY
65
This is a useful system to compare relative toxicities of substances as the predicted endpoint is death:
Dose-Response Relationship
66
B-macroglobulin and immunoglobulins are part of this group of tumor markers:
Serum Protein Tumor Markers
67
Chemicals and drugs that are not normally found in or produced by the body:
Xenobiotics
68
This is an example of something that can have significant interference in immunoassays by cross-linking with the capture/label antibody:
HAMAs
69
This drug is ototoxic enough that it is recommended that baseline audiology testing is performed:
Tobramycin
70
Largely a result of the high metabolic demand of these proliferative cells Tend to correlate to tumor burden
enzyme tumor marker
71
Unique characteristics and concentrations of T.M.--2 major consideration
lack of standardization and wide range
72
Used to help diagnose carcinoid tumors, pheochromocytoma, & neuroblastoma
Catecholamines & metabolites
73
Rare tumor associated with hypertension Elevated plasma metanephrines, urine vanillylmandelic acid, free catecholamines
Pheochromocytoma
74
Elevated levels correlate with cancer stage of CA125
50% stage 1 90% stage 2 >90% stage 3 or 4
75
Dimeric hormone secreted by trophoblasts Elevated in trophoblastic tumors, mainly choriocarcinoma and germ cell tumors of ovary and testes Prognostic for ovarian cancer Diagnostic for classification of testicular cancer
HCG
76
produced in the epithelial cells of the acini and ducts of the prostate gland
glycoprotein
77
Mucin 1 (MUC1), Normally expressed in glandular or luminal epithelial cells Best application is serial testing for breast cancer patients
CA 15-3
78
Best validated biomarker for pancreatic cancer Modified Lewis (Le a ) blood group antigen
CA 19-9
79
Primarily used for ovarian cancer Improved specificity over CA-125—which can be elevated in non-malignant conditions like endometriosis
HE4
80
Auxiliary test for neuroendocrine tumors
NSE
81
drug absorption of weak acids
in stomach
82
drug absorption of weak bases
in intestine
83
the movement of a drug between blood circulation and tissues and organs and the relative proportion of the drug in the tissues
drug distribution
84
interact with site of action & result in biological response
free/unbound drugs
85
The biochemical pathway responsible for a large portion of drug metabolism
MFO - Hepatic mixed-function oxidase
86
number doses typically needed before steady-state oscillation is achieved
5-7
87
The science of studying variations and developing drug therapies to compensate for the genetic differences impacting therapy regimens
pharmacogenomic
88
Prominent gene affecting drug metabolism
CYP450
89
Natural product extracted from bark to treat arrythmias
quinidine
90
Treat gram neg and some gram pos infections Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
aminoglycosides
91
Treats GNR—life threatening
gentamicin
92
Treat severe blood infections Can be administered orally to reduce intestinal flora
amikacin
93
“redman syndrome”—extremity flushing Against GPC and GPR Poor GI absorption
vancomycin
94
Used to treat and suppress seizures Only effective while drug metabolites are in the body goal: get therapeutic benefit with little to no adverse effects
Antiepileptic Drugs (AEDs)
95
Grand mal seizures—when resistance to other AEDs
primidone
96
Severe adverse events—only use if no response to other AEDs
carbamazepine
97
Mood altering used to treat: Bipolar disorder, recurrent depression, aggressive or self-mutilating behavior Also preventative for cluster headaches or migraines
lithium
98
Used to treat depression, insomnia, extreme apathy, loss of libido Ex: imipramine, amitriptyline, doxepin
TCA
99
Used to treat refractory schizophrenia Absorption rapid and complete
clozapine
100
Treats schizophrenia, acute manic episodes, recurrence of bipolar disorders Can be IM but usually oral
olanzapine
101
Cyclic polypeptide--suppress graft vs host rejection of heterotopic transplanted organs
cyclosporine
102
Antifungal agent used to prevent graft rejection in kidney transplants
sirolimus
103
Derived form sirolimus Short half life—more rapid achievement of steady state pharmacokinetics
everolimus
104
prodrug that is rapidly converted in the liver to its active form, MPA (Mycophenolic Acid)
Mycophenolate mofetil
105
Assessment of therapeutic benefit not aided by TDM because pharmacodynamics are hard to establish EX drug: methotrexate
Antineoplastics
106
Used to treat respiratory disorders For patients who can’t use an inhaler or have nocturnal symptoms
theophylline
107
Describes the changes in health effects of a defined population based on the exposure to the xenobiotic
quantal dose-relationship
108
Toxic agents exhibit unique absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination
toxicokinetics
109
Methods used for analysis of toxic agents
Immunoassays-common for most drug screens Gas chromatography (GC) with mass spectrometry (MS) Reference method for most organic compounds Liquid chromatograph with tandem mass spectrometer (LC-MS) Emerged as an important analytical technique Inorganic compounds Use inductively coupled plasma mass spec (ICP-MS) or atomic absorption (AA) methods Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy has potential applications
110
Most significant metabolism pathway of alcohol
Alcohol→(ADH)→Aldehyde→(ALDH)→Acid
111
reactive intermediate, most converted to acetate but some is released in the free state
Acetaldehyde
112
osmolality ratio of osmo to serum ethanol
Serum osmo increases 10 mOsm/kg per 60 mg/dL increase in serum ethanol
113
Super-toxic substance Used in industrial processes, insecticides, rodenticides Binds to heme iron High lactic levels commonly found
cyanide
114
Less harmful organic forms with foods Clams, oysters, scallops, mussels, crustaceans, bottom feeding fish
arsenic
115
Potent inhibitor of many enzymes Noteworthy effects on Vit D metabolism and heme synthesis
lead
116
Intentionally added to environment to harm or kill something Insecticides, herbicides, fungicides, rodenticides Found in occupational and home settings
pesticides
117
Reye’s syndrome with viral infections in kids
salicylates common drug: Acetylsalicylic acid—aspirin
118
Overdose associated with severe hepatotoxicity Alcoholics more susceptible
Tylenol
119
Confirmation testing for drug abuse
immunoassays -more common
120
Typical screening panel
Amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepenes, cocaine, opioids, THC, tricyclic antidepressants
121
Originally sleep inducers Most commonly abused Used as “downer” after cocaine or amphetamine “high”
barbiturate
122
Depressants of CNS Among drugs most commonly prescribed because of: Efficacy, safety, low addiction potential, minimal side effects, high public demand for sedative and anti-anxiety
Benzodiazepines Diazepam (Valium), chlordiazepovide (Librium), lorazepam (Ativan) alprazolam (Xanax)
123
Psychoactive compounds found in marijuana
Cannabinoids: Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
124
Effective local anesthetic, few adverse effects at therapeutic concentrations Alkaloid salt
cocaine
125
Used to treat depression and mood disorders Imipramine metabolizes to desipramine Amitriptyline metabolizes to nortriptyline Doxepin metabolizes to nordoxepin
Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
126
Amphetamine derivative “ecstasy”
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)
127
“angel dust” Illicit drug with stimulant, depressant, anesthetic, and hallucinogenic properties
Phencyclidine (PCP)
128
Used to increase muscle mass to improve athletic performance Can cause enlargement of the heart
Anabolic Steroids
129
A drug's most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action is:
Intravenous administration
130
Which of the following is not true regarding the absorption of drugs? Drug absorption rates may change with age Morphine may slow the gastrointestinal motility of a drug Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications Crohn's disease may alter the absorption of some drugs
Liquid medications are often absorbed slower than capsule medications
130
T/F Drugs are susceptible to hepatic metabolism, and this increases the concentration of the drug before it reaches the circulatory system.
false
131
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug elimination? One drug half-life is the time needed for the drug concentration to increase by half Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration Most medications are administered as a single dose versus a scheduled basis Aminoglycoside antibiotics are reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Five to seven drug doses are required to reach a steady state of drug concentration
132
The relationship between a drug's concentration at its target sites and its physiological responses is known as:
Pharmacodynamics
133
Which of the following is not true concerning therapeutic drug monitoring? It ensures correct drug doses for the expected therapeutic range It helps to identify non-compliance of the patient It identifies drug-drug interactions if multiple drugs are taken simultaneously It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients
It establishes a one-fit dosing model for all patients
134
A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:
One hour after an orally administered dose
135
CYP450 is a gene that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual. T/F
True
136
Which of the following is not true concerning aminoglycosides?
Ototoxic effects of the drug are reversible
137
Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
138
Only bound fractions of drugs can interact with the site of action and result in a biological response.
False
139
Tolerance to drugs could be explained as:
Constant exposure of receptors to drugs that leads to a reduced response
140
This drug is used to treat arrhythmias and CHF.
Digoxin
141
This drug may have the adverse effect of "redman syndrome"
Vancomycin
142
This antiepileptic drug requires hepatic markers to be check frequently due to risk of hepatic dysfunction.
Valproic acid
143
Immunosuppressive drugs typically are collected as serum samples. true/false
false
144
Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin. t/f
true
145
Which specimen type is preferred for analytes demonstrating variation in urinary elimination patterns?
24-hour collection
146
Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?
Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
147
All of the following statements are true regarding blood alcohol measurements except: During venipuncture, the skin must be disinfected with iodine or chlorohexidine gluconate Plasma and serum are acceptable specimen types for analysis When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity Specimens should remain capped to avoid evaporation
When testing will be delayed, sodium chloride can be used as a preservative to maintain specimen integrity
148
The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is 20-25 times greater than oxygen t/f
false
149
Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with
Hepatotoxicity
150
Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?
Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
151
Which type of toxicology uses the results from animal experiments to predict what level of exposure will cause harm to humans?
Descriptive
152
Which is not a common route of exposure to toxic substances. Ingestion Intravenous Inhalation Transdermal absorption
IV
153
What phrase best describes what ED50 stands for?
A drug is predicted to have a therapeutic benefit for 50% of the population.
154
Chronic exposure to a toxin always has the same effect as acute exposures. t/f
false
155
Which is not a common specimen type for analysis of toxic agents? urine blood oral fluid
all are common
156
An alternative test that may be performed in order to estimate ethanol in serum is the osmolality. t/f
true
157
This toxic substance can be found in its organic form in clams and oysters.
arsenic
158
This environmental pollutant has been linked to Itai-itai disease.
cadmium
159
Which of the following enzymes is increased in patients with cancer involving bone?
Alkaline phosphatase
160
Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?
HVA
161
The utilization of tumor markers is most important for:
Monitoring the effectiveness of treatment
162
Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results t/f
false
163
To accurately monitor tumor marker levels of the patient, it is important to use the same methodology each time of testing. t/f
true
164
If tumor cells are found in both the original tumor and also in the regional lymph nodes, this would be classified as stage:
3
165
All tumor markers can be used to screen asymptomatic populations. t/f
false
166
Which is not something that is a consideration when considering using immunoassay method for tumor markers. Hook effect Requires more specialized skill and experience Assay linearity HAMAs
Requires more specialized skill and experience
167
Serotonin secreting tumors from small intestine
carcinoid
168
Which is not an example of an enzyme tumor marker. ALP AST PSA LDH
AST
169
Which tumor marker is used primarily with hepatocelluar carcinoma and testicular cancer. AFP CA-125 CEA hCG
AFP
170
Elevations in this tumor marker in CSF may indicate Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
NSE
171
A patient has a synovial fluid removed from their knee joint. The test results included a cell count with differential. The WBC count was 65,000 with 93% neutrophils. What is the most likely cause?
septic
172
A patient has CSF chemistries and microbiology samples performed. Chemistries yield a very low glucose value but no growth is reported in micro cultures. What is a possible pathology to explain these results? It is to be noted that the CSF had a clear, colorless appearance.
brain tumor
173
Which is not a common test to perform on a CSF sample? glucose uric acid protein lactate
uric acid
174
Increased CSF glucose levels can indicate acute bacterial meningitis. T/F
false
175
Which would typically not be a cause of an exudative pleural effusion? Pulmonary abscess Lymphoma Bacterial pneumonia Hepatic cirrhosis
Hepatic cirrhosis
176
The unique structure of hemoglobin allows it to act as both an acid-base buffer and O2 buffer. T/F
true
177
Breakdown of glycogen to glucose for use as energy
Glycogenolysis
178
Conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage
Glycogenesis
179
Formation of glucose of-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources
Gluconeogenesis
180
Metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy
Glycolysis
181
Which parameter on a blood gas analysis is calculated instead of being directly measured.
HCO3
182
The best collection tube to use for glucose tolerance testing is: Gold top/serum Grey top/NaF Green top/lithium heparin Lavender top/EDTA Grey top/NaF
Grey top/NaF
183
What is the incremental fraction of oxygen at sea level?
21%
184
In external respiration, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar membrane is __________, while the partial pressure of oxygen in the venous blood is _________.
100 mmHg, 40 mmHg
185
A decrease in H+ ions, an increase in pH, and a decrease in pCO2 results in what acid-base disorder?
Respiratory alkalosis
186
A patient with an HA1C of 12% would be most likely to have an estimated average glucose of:
298 mg/dL
187
A patient with a fasting glucose of 122 mg/dL would be considered to have a:
Impaired fasting glucose
188
This type of diabetes is noted to have insulin resistance with an insulin secretory defect due to progressive loss of adequate beta cell insulin secretion.
Type 2
189
As a CSF is collected, it is placed in a series of tubes for analysis. The correct order of testing should be:
Chemistry, Microbiology, Hematology
189
An increase in H+ ions, a decrease in pH, and an increase in pCO2 results in what acid-base disorder?
Respiratory acidosis
190
Which is not stimulated by epinephrine? Insulin Glucagon Glycogenolysis Gluconeogenesis
insulin
191
Match the type of pancreatic cell with what it produces. Cell: Alpha cell, beta cell, delta cell Product: glucagon, insulin, somatostatin
alpha - glucagon beta - insulin delta - somatostatin
192
Diabetic condition formed when a person's own immune system destroys the islet cells of the pancreas, resulting in impaired production of insulin.
type 1
193
It is recommended that all adults have a lipid profile performed every _____.
5 years
194
Women, on average, have higher HDL levels and lower total cholesterol and triglyceride levels than men. T/F
True
195
HDL has a major role in this type of lipid pathway
Reverse cholesterol pathway
196
Which is the type of lipoprotein that contains the apolipoprotein Apo B48?
Chylomicrons
197
Amphipathic lipid molecules contain both hydrophobic fatty acid chains and hydrophobic head groups. T/F
False
198
Calculate the LDL from the following test results. Total cholesterol: 223 mg/dL HDL: 65 mg/dL Triglycerides: 290 mg/dL
100
199
The function of the major lipid components of the very-low density lipoproteins is to transport:
Endogenous triglycerides
200
Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:
Chylomicrons
201
Electrolytes that reabsorbed under influence of PTH
calcium
202
electrolytes that recovered from glomerular filtrate
bicarbonate
203
electrolytes that reabsorbed by passive transport in proximal tubule
chloride
204
Reabsorption occurs in Henle's loop
Magnesium
205
A rare disease of water and salt imbalance.
Diabetes insipidus
206
Of the total serum osmolality; sodium, chloride, and bicarb normally contribute what percent?
92
207
What is the type of lipoprotein that is known to contribute to plaque formation.
LDL
208
A patient presents to the ER with flushed skin, severe agitation, low-grade fever, and complaints of being extremely thirsty. Given these symptoms, what pathology would you consider?
Hypernatremia
209
Which of the following is not associated with an increase in anion gap when it occurs in a single patient? Renal failure Ketoacidosis Glycol poisoning Instrument error
Instrument error
210
Causes of increased levels of protein in CSF include all but: Decreased dialysis of proteins from the plasma Lysis of contaminant blood from traumatic tap Increased permeability of the epithelial membrane Obstruction
Decreased dialysis of proteins from the plasma
211
In order to maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with what electrolyte?
Chloride
212
Of total serum calcium, free ionized calcium normally represents approximately what percent?
45
213
The presence of only slightly visible hemolysis will significantly increase the serum level of which of the following analytes?
Potassium
214
What is the major intracellular cation?
potassium
215
What is the major extracellular cation?
Sodium
216
Unsaturated triglycerides are typically solid at room temperature. T/F
false
217
The cation is the fourth most abundant cation in the body and second most abundant intracellularly. Hint: Consumption of processed foods can lead to inadequate intake and subsequent deficiency.
Magnesium
218
Water makes up what percentage of body weight?
40-75%
219
Which phrase does not describe phospholipids. Hydrophobic head group Synthesized in all organs Amphipathic Unsaturated steroid alcohol
Unsaturated steroid alcohol
220
Electrolyte essential for myocardial contraction and important to maintain normal levels for critically ill patients.
calcium
221
Type of CK isoenzyme with its specificity CK: cardiac, muscle, brain Specificity: CK-MB, CK-BB, CK-MM
Cardiac=CK-MB Muscle=CK-MM Brain=CK-BB
222
Amylase is more specific to pancreatitis than lipase. T/F
false
223
This test has greater specificity to liver damage.
ALT
224
In many reactions, we are looking at the reaction of the cofactor NADH to NAD to determine the value of the enzyme. T/F
true
225
This enzyme has a short half-life and is found in the heart, liver, skeletal muscle, and kidney.
AST
226
The hook effect refers to high concentrations of analyte producing a lower signal than expected. T/F
true
227
These type of inhibitor associate with enzymes at places other than the active site.
non-competitive
228
These type of inhibitor share structural features found in the substrate.
competitive
229
These type of inhibitor bind only to the ES complex.
uncompetitive
230
In this state, not all enzyme sites are saturated with substrate and substrate concentration is the rate-limiting step.
1st order
231
An inactive, secreted form of the enzyme
zymogen
232
The following statement could be used to describe zero-order kinetics: T/F Substrate is present in excess, rate of reaction is constant with time and dependent only on the concentration of enzyme in the system.
true
233
When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating at 50 C lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how would the results be affected?
Lower than expected
234
What does an increase in serum enzyme levels indicate?
Tissue damage and necrosis
235
Pathological condition in which the proximal tubules in the kidneys do not reabsorb glucose, amino acids, uric acids, and bicarbonates resulting in their loss to the urine concentrate.
Fanconi Syndrome
236
This test can be used to monitor alcoholics with liver toxicity
GGT
237
Which of the following serves as the glomerular filtration rate for clinicians?
creatinine
238
Plasma creatinine levels are determined by all of the following except: Relative muscle mass Rate of creatine turnover Renal function Dietary intake of protein
Dietary intake of protein
239
A 56 year old male with gout is given allopurinol then returns to the ER a week later with a uric acid level of 8.6 mg/dL (2.4-7.0 mg/dL). What statement best describes the reason for the uric acid level? The patient did not take prescribed medication The patient overdosed on allopurinol Allopurinol returned uric acid levels to normal
The patient did not take prescribed medication
240
What is an energy source utilized by muscles?
Creatine phosphate
241
This non-protein nitrogen compound is found in the highest concentration in the blood.
Urea nitrogen
242
Which is not a clinical application of measurement of urea. Assess hydration status Evaluate liver function Verify adequacy of dialysis Determine nitrogen balance
Evaluate liver function
243
Match the BUN:Creatinine ratio with the correct location of azotemia. 23 11 8 postrenal intrarenal prerenal
23 - pre 11 - post 8 - intrarenal
244
Which is not a likely cause of decreased BUN. High protein dietary intake Liver disease Severe vomiting Increased protein synthesis
high protein dietary intake
245
The most frequently used analytic method for creatinine testing is the:
Jaffe reaction
246
Which test has the most strict collection requirements that include transporting the specimen on ice and testing immediately.
Ammonia
247
disease associate with severe protein deficiency
Kwashiokor
248
disease associate with severe protein and calorie deficiency
Marasmus
249
Which is a negative acute phase reactant?
Transferrin
250
This protein is known for being a nephrotoxin.
Myoglobin
251
This test may be used to assess nutritional status.
Prealbumin
252
Proteins with 10-40% carbohydrates attached are
Glycoproteins
253
Proteins consist of the elements: Carbon Oxygen Nitrogen All of these None of these
all
254
In the stomach ______ breaks down proteins into peptides.
pepsin
255
When a protein is disturbed and loses its functional and chemical characteristics, it is called:
Denaturation
256
Essential amino acids: Must be obtained through diet Are synthesized by the body
Must be obtained through diet
257
In cerebral spinal fluid, ______% of protein comes from plasma, while ______% comes from the brain.
95%, 5%
258
When proteins have a more positive charge they are more easily dissolved. T/F
True
259
Which is not true of amino acid analysis? Collect sample in a heparin tube Blood samples should be drawn after a 2-3 hour fast Analysis should be performed immediately or sample frozen Plasma should be removed carefully to avoid platelets and white blood cells
Blood samples should be drawn after a 2-3 hour fast
260
This type of analytical method measures the amount of light that can pass through a sample at a 180O angle from the incident light.
Turbidimetry
261
Stray light refers to any wavelengths outside the band transmitted by the monochromator. T/F
true
262
Dynodes are a series of anodes with successively higher voltages. T/F
true
263
An advantage of a photocell over a phototube is that a photocell has an external power source and is more sensitive with lower amounts of light. T/F
false
264
Calculate % transmittance through a tube containing 5 layers of solution with an absorbance of 20%.
33%
265
This type of lamp is used in visible and infrared regions and is the most common type:
tungsten
266
Visible light falls between the color ______ at 400 nm and _____ at 700 nm.
violet, red
267
Which is the order that you would expect to see in LD isoenzymes in a patient who has had a heart attack.
LD1>LD2>LD3>LD4>LD5