Child Health Flashcards

1
Q

Physical features of achondroplasia?

A

Trident hands
Short limbs
Lumbar lardosis
Midface hypoplasia

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2
Q

Causative organism for croup?

A

Parinfluenza virus

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3
Q

What is William’s syndrome?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorder caused by microdeletion on chromosome 7

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4
Q

Features of William’s?

A

Elfin like facies
Friendly and social
LD
Short stature
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis

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5
Q

If a girl has haemophilia what else do you think she has?

A

TURNER’S SYNDROME

Because it is X-linked recessive, if a girl is symptomatic that should raise alarm bells (Turner’s only have one X- chromosome)

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6
Q

7 features of DDH?

A

7 F’s
-First born
-Female
-Fat (macrosomia)
-Fair (caucasian)
-Feet (breech)
-F*ck all Fluid (oligohydraminos) (none)
-Family (Fam Hx)

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7
Q

What does this baby have?
-Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, encephalopathy

A

Shaken baby syndrome

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8
Q

If a child has dyskinetic cerebal palsay which area of the brain is affected?

A

Basal ganglia
Substantia nigra
(These areas are involved with regulating voluntary movement and posture)

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9
Q

Sausage shaped mass in abdomen?

A

Intussusception

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10
Q

What does gastroschisis refer to?

A

Defect lateral to umbilicus

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11
Q

What does omphalocele refer to?

A

Defect in umbilicus itself

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12
Q

Why is diabetes a risk factors for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Insulin (increased in diabetic mothers) inhibits surfactant production and maturation of fetal lungs

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13
Q

First MMR vaccine given when?

A

12-13 months
Then
3-4 as booster

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14
Q

Which genetic defect puts a child more at risk of developing acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

Down’s syndrome

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15
Q

What heart condition is associated iwth Turner’s

A

Bicuspid valve
(ejection systolic murmur)

However Aortic dissection is the most serious associated heart condition

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16
Q

Achondroplasia has what inheritance pattern?

A

AD

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17
Q

Supravalvular aortic stenosis makes you think what?

A

Williams syndrome

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18
Q

What age do they ask what and who Qs?

A

3 years

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19
Q

What age do they ask why when and how Qs?

A

4 years

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20
Q

CXR Findings in transient tachnypnoea of the newborn?

A

Hyperinflation and fluid in horizontal fissue

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21
Q

Drug for child nocturnal eneuresis?

A

Desmopresin

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22
Q

If a man has mitochondrial genetic disease what is the likelihood that his children will inherit it?

A

0%
Mitochondrial always passed down mother’s line

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23
Q

Parallel aorta and pulmonary trunk on echo is indicative of what?

A

Transposition of great arteries

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24
Q

What do you give in transposition of great arteries?

A

Prostaglandin E1 to maintain ductus arteriosus

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25
Q

Treatment of paediatric malrotation with volvulus?

A

Ladd’s procedure (division of Ladd bands and widening of base of mesentery)

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26
Q

A child aged <3 months with a fever >38 degrees should be assessed as what?

A

HIGH RISK : same day paeds assessment

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27
Q

Good pincer group time?

A

12 months

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28
Q

Causes of microcephaly?

A

Normal
Familial
Congenital infection
Perinatal brain injury
Fetal alcohol
Patau syndrome
Craniosynostosis

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29
Q

Cap BG of <1mmol/L is characterised as what in a neonate and what is needed to be done?

A

VERY LOW
Paeds team review
IV dextrose infusion

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30
Q

Newborn baby base line levels?

A

HR:100-160
RR: 30-60
Temp: 37 degrees

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31
Q

What is the organism causing threadworms?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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32
Q

Sit without support timeline for kids milestones?

A

6-8 months

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33
Q

Pavlik’s harness is for what?

A

DDH

NOT Perthes boyyyyyyyy

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34
Q

Child older than 6 with Perthes?

A

Surgical correction

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35
Q

Screening newborns for heraing problems test?

A

Otoacoustic emission test
»>
Impendance audiometry testing if this is failed

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36
Q

What is the best predictor or clinical severity and cyanosis in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Degree of pulmonary stenosis

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37
Q

Most common cause of ambiguous genetalia?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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38
Q

Genetic anticipation occurs in which disorders?

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorders
-Huntington’s
-Myotonic dystrophy
-Fragile X
-Friedreich’s ataxia
-Spinocerebellar ataxia
-Spinobulbar msucular atrophy
-Dentatorubral pallidouysian atrophy

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39
Q

Right atrial hypertrophy and septal and posterior leaflet of tricuspid valve attached to right ventricle? What is this?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

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40
Q

Huntington’s inheritance?

A

AD

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41
Q

What do all breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation require post natally and when exactly?

A

USS
For DDH screening
6 weeks

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42
Q

Investigation for intussusception?

A

Abdo US

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43
Q

Visible peristalsis makes you think what in a baby?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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44
Q

1st line investigation for DDH?

A

Child <4.5 months USS

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45
Q

Diagnosing DDH in a child >4.5 months?

A

X-ray

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46
Q

Cause of Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Lithium in pregnancy

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47
Q

When is hand preference a concerning sign in a child?

A

When they have it before 12 months: cerebral palsy possibly

48
Q

What genetic disorder has these features?

A

LD
Large low set ears
Macroorchidism
Hypotonia
Autism
Mitral valve prolapse

49
Q

Newborn resuscitation guidelines recommended compressions and ventilations at a rate of what?

A

3:1

50
Q

If a child has sus mycoplasma pneumonia what do you want to give?

A

Macrolide
Erythromycin

51
Q

Name the syndrome:
- Microcephalic, small eyes
-Cleft lip/palate
-Polydactyly
-Scalp lesions

A

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

52
Q

Name the syndrome:
-Micrognathia
-Low set ears
-Rocker bottom feet
-Overlapping of fingers

A

Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

53
Q

Micrognathia?

A

Lower jaw is smaller than normal

54
Q

Name the syndrome:
- LD
-Macrocephaly
-Long face
-Large ears
-Macro-orchidism

A

Fragile X

55
Q

Name the syndrome:
-Webbed neck
-Pectus excavatum
-Short stature
-Pulmonary stenosis

A

Noonan syndrome

56
Q

Name the syndrome:
-Hypotonia
-Hypogonadism
-Obesity

A

Prader Willi syndrome

57
Q

Name the syndrome:
-Short stature
-LD
-Friendly, extroverted
-Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
-Supravalvular aortic stenosis

A

William’s syndrome

58
Q

Name the syndrome:
-Characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems
-Feeding difficulties and poor weight gain
-LD
-Microcephaly
-Hypertelorism (eyes v far apart)

A

Cri du char syndrome

59
Q

When is heel prick test performed?

A

Between 5th and 9th day of life

60
Q

What does heel prick test screen for?

A

Sickle cell
CF
Congenital hypothyroidism
PKU
MCADD

61
Q

Forceful, projectile vomiting “like a fountain”? + what invgX?

A

Pyloric stenosis
Abdo USS

62
Q

When are bowlegs normal in kids?

A

3 and below
Should resolve by 4

63
Q

Management of intussesception?

A

Air insufflation

InVgX with US (target like mass)

64
Q

<5 years old child with asthma that is on SABA but not controlled yet?

A

Paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

65
Q

> 5 years old child with poorly controlled asthma on SABA, step up management?

A

Paediatric moderate dose ICS

66
Q

RFs for neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

Preterm birth
Maternal DM
IUGR
Hypothermia
Neonatal sepsis
Inborn errors of metabolism

67
Q

Chronic constipation in kids treatment?

A

Lifestyle/fluid advice
Movicol

68
Q

Investigation for reflux nephropathy?

A

Micturating cystography

69
Q

What are pyloric stenosis features?

A

Projectile, non-bile stained vomit at 4-6 weeks of life

70
Q

If a baby is premature how do you work out their adjusted milestones?

A

The corrected premmy baby age is
Age - number of weeks born early from 40 weeks

71
Q

Methylphenidate SE?

A

Stunted growth

72
Q

When does infantile colic usually resolve by?

A

6 months

73
Q

Management of SUFE?

A

Internal fixation

74
Q

What inheritance is prader willi an example of?

A

Imprinting
-Genotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father

-Prader Willi if gene deleted from father
-Angelman if gene deleted from mother

75
Q

Just in case meds for febrile seizures?

A

Buccal midazolam
Rectal Diazepam

76
Q

What makes an innocent murmur?

A

Soft
Systolic
Short
Symptomless
Standing/sitting (vary with position)

77
Q

What is starbismus?

A

Squint

78
Q

Atopic eczema distribution in a 10 month old?

A

Face and trunk

Areas most exposed to environmental allergens and irritants

79
Q

Criteria for immediate paediatric head CT?

A

-Loss of consciousness more than 5 minutes
-Amnesia
-Abnormal drowsiness
-3 or more discrete episodes of vomiting
-Clinical sus of NAI
-GCS 14> or baby under 1 GCS <15
-Sus of open or depressed skull injury
-Basal skull fracture signs
-Focal neurological deficit
-If under 1 year presence of bruising, swelling or lac of more than 5cm on head
-Dangerous mechanism of injury

80
Q

Name the congenital heart defect based on murmur:

Pansystolic murmur in lower left sternal border?

A

Ventricular septal defect

81
Q

Name the congenital heart defect based on murmur:
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur in upper left sternal border?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

82
Q

Name the congenital heart defect based on murmur:

Diastolic machinery murmur in upper left sternal border

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

83
Q

Name the congenital heart defect based on murmur:

Ejection systolic murmur in the upper left sternal border

A

Pulmonary stenosis

84
Q

Kawasaki disease MgX?

A

High dose aspirin
Single dose IV immunoglobulins

85
Q

Which family history disease would be expected sometimes with Hirschsprungs?

A

MEN 2A/B

86
Q

Common lesion associated with Duchenne MD?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

87
Q

A loud S2 + prominent RV impulse palpable on examination?

A

Transposition of great arteries

88
Q

Surgery for paediatric intestinal malrotation with volvulus?

A

Ladd’s procedure

89
Q

What is elevated in biliary atresia?

A

Conjugated bilirubin

90
Q

ABG of pyloric stenosis?

A

Elevated bicarb
Hypocholraemia
Hypokalaemia

91
Q

InvgX for sus Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Technetium scan

91
Q

VSD common risk of developing what?

A

Endocarditis

92
Q

When is MenB vaccine given?

A

2, 4 and 12-13 months

93
Q

When is hypospadias surgery typically performed?

A

12 months of age

94
Q

Nec Enterocolitis invgX?

A

Abdo X-ray

95
Q

Fragile X is associated with which cardio complication?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

96
Q

Clicky hip in newborn screening Investigation and differential?

A

USS (newborns bones are soft, and USS is less radiation)
DDH

97
Q

What is their loss of in SCFE?

A

Loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion

98
Q

Constipation in children management?

A

Osmotic laxative
»»»»»>
Stimulant laxative but only once stools are soft

99
Q

What is in the 6 in 1 vaccination?

A

Diphtheria
Tetanus
Pertussis
Polio
HiB
Hep B

100
Q

When would a child start playing alongside other kids?

A

2 years

101
Q

Acyanotic congenital heart diseases?

A

VSD
ASD
Patent ductus arteriosus
Coarctation of the aorta
Aortic valve stenosis

102
Q

Cyanotic congenital heart diseases?

A

Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of the great arteries
Tricuspid atresia

103
Q

Which bony prominence is Osgood Schlatter at?

A

Tibial tuberosity

104
Q

Poor-feeding, grunting, lethargy. What should you consider?

A

Neonatal sepsis

105
Q

Causes of neonatal hypotonia?

A

Neonatal sepsis
Werdnig Hoffman disease
Hypothyroidism
Prader-willi

106
Q

What is NICE guideline on vomtiing and CT post head injury in kids?

A

3 or more vomits, CT within an hour

107
Q

What age do febrile seizures cease?

A

5 years old

108
Q

What cyst does this describe?

Multioculated
Heterogenous
Located above hyoid

A

Dermoid

109
Q

Soft, trans-illuminating cyst in posterior triangle?

A

Cystic hygroma

110
Q

Name that cyst:
Lateral cyst, ancehoic appearance on US?

A

Branchial cyst

111
Q

InvgX for SUFE?

A

Hip x-ray

112
Q

Sus Perthe’s disease in 5 y/o boi investigation?

A

MRI scan

113
Q

Webbed neck + pectus excavatum + short _ Pulmsten?

A

Noonan syndrome

114
Q

Men B is given when?

A

2, 4, and 12 months

115
Q
A