Cholinergics/Anticholinergics Flashcards
(17 cards)
A patient receives bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist, after surgery. Which of the following effects would the nurse expect?
A. Decreased bowel sounds
B. Urinary retention
C. Increased salivation
D. Dilated pupils
C. Increased salivation
A patient is prescribed atropine before surgery. Which effect should the nurse monitor for?
A. Bradycardia
B. Diarrhea
C. Dry mouth
D. Increased salivation
C. Dry mouth
A patient using a cholinergic eye drop for glaucoma may experience which of the following?
A. Pupil dilation
B. Blurred near vision
C. Pupil constriction
D. Dry eyes
C. Pupil constriction
Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a patient taking a cholinergic agonist?
A. Excessive sweating
B. Heart rate of 58 bpm
C. Wheezing and shortness of breath
D. Increased bowel movements
C. Wheezing and shortness of breath
A patient with glaucoma is prescribed scopolamine for motion sickness. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Educate on preventing dry mouth
B. Tell the patient to avoid alcohol
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Teach the patient how to apply the patch
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Anticholinergics increase intraocular pressure and are contraindicated in glaucoma!
A patient taking a cholinergic agonist reports changes in vision. Which effect is expected?
A. Blurred vision due to pupil dilation
B. Night blindness due to lens thickening
C. Pupil constriction, improving drainage in the eye
D. Increased intraocular pressure
C. Pupil constriction, improving drainage in the eye
An anticholinergic medication is likely to cause which eye-related side effect?
A. Excessive tearing
B. Constricted pupils
C. Blurred vision and photosensitivity
D. Eye twitching
C. Blurred vision and photosensitivity
Anticholinergics cause mydriasis (pupil dilation), leading to blurred vision and light sensitivity.
Which cardiovascular effect is most likely to occur with a cholinergic agonist?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Tachycardia
D. Palpitations
B. Bradycardia
A patient receiving atropine for bradycardia should be monitored for:
A. Further slowing of heart rate
B. Ventricular dysrhythmias
C. Increased heart rate
D. Hypertensive crisis
C. Increased heart rate
Which patient is at highest risk when prescribed a cholinergic agonist?
A. A patient with constipation
B. A patient with glaucoma
C. A patient with asthma
D. A patient with hypertension
C. A patient with asthma
The nurse knows an anticholinergic bronchodilator like ipratropium is working when:
A. The patient reports increased coughing
B. Lung sounds reveal wheezing
C. Respiratory rate increases
D. Breath sounds are clear and easier
D. Breath sounds are clear and easier
What GI effect would be expected from cholinergic agonist therapy?
A. Constipation and dry mouth
B. Decreased peristalsis
C. Increased salivation and diarrhea
D. Reduced gastric secretions
C. Increased salivation and diarrhea
The nurse should teach a patient starting scopolamine to expect which side effect?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Drooling
B. Constipation
A patient taking bethanechol (a cholinergenic agonist) for urinary retention should be monitored for:
A. Bladder distension
B. Incontinence or urgency
C. Signs of kidney stones
D. Low urine specific gravity
B. Incontinence or urgency
The nurse is educating a patient on an anticholinergic medication. Which urinary effect should they be told to expect?
A. Frequent urination
B. No change in urinary pattern
C. Increased urine output
D. Difficulty urinating or urinary retention
D. Difficulty urinating or urinary retention
What is a likely side effect of cholinergic stimulation on glands?
A. Dry mouth
B. Increased sweating and salivation
C. Rash from dehydration
D. No glandular effect
B. Increased sweating and salivation
Which finding suggests a problem in a patient taking atropine?
A. Moist skin
B. Sweating and drooling
C. Dry, flushed skin
D. Normal bowel sounds
C. Dry, flushed skin
