Clin Path 1 Flashcards
(284 cards)
1
Q
What is an aerosol?
A
Airborne drops of liquid
Aerosols can include various substances, such as medications or pollutants.
2
Q
What are universal precautions?
A
Safety equipment and PPE, e.g., OSHA requirements
Universal precautions are designed to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases.
3
Q
What does HEPA stand for?
A
High-efficiency particulate air
HEPA filters are used to trap particles that are 0.3 microns or larger.
4
Q
What is negative pressure?
A
Less air pressure than exterior
Negative pressure environments are used in laboratories to prevent contamination.
5
Q
What is an autoclave?
A
An instrument that uses moist heat at greater than atmospheric pressure to sterilize equipment
Commonly used to sterilize surgical instruments.
6
Q
What does CHP stand for? (clin path safety)
A
Chemical Hygiene Plan
A CHP outlines procedures for safely handling chemicals in the laboratory.
7
Q
What are the points of equivalence in temperature?
A
Absolute zero K = −273° C = −459.4° F, −40° C = −40° F, 0° C = 32° F
These points are critical for understanding temperature scales.
8
Q
What is polycythemia?
A
An increase in the number of circulating red blood cells
This condition can lead to increased blood viscosity.
9
Q
What does OSHA stand for?
A
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
OSHA sets and enforces standards to ensure workplace safety.
10
Q
What is spectrophotometry?
A
Light of a specific wavelength is passed through the sample
Used to measure the concentration of solutes in a solution.
11
Q
Define accuracy in clinical pathology.
A
The ability of a test to approximate the actual value
Accuracy is crucial for ensuring reliable test results.
12
Q
Define precision in clinical pathology.
A
The reproducibility of a test result
Precision indicates the consistency of test outcomes.
13
Q
What is anemia?
A
A decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, usually due to decreased numbers of circulating RBCs
Anemia can result from various factors, including nutritional deficiencies.
14
Q
What does MCV stand for?
A
Mean corpuscular volume
MCV is used to classify anemias based on red blood cell size.
15
Q
What does PCV stand for?
A
Packed cell volume, also known as hematocrit
PCV measures the proportion of blood volume occupied by red blood cells.
16
Q
What is RDW?
A
Red cell distribution width
RDW indicates the variation in red blood cell size and is useful in diagnosing different types of anemia.
17
Q
What is an International Unit?
A
The amount of enzyme that will catalyze the conversion of 1 micromole of substrate per minute under specific assay conditions
It standardizes enzyme activity measurements.
18
Q
What are controls in clinical pathology?
A
Biological materials used in quality assurance programs and nonbiological materials used to calibrate equipment
Controls ensure the accuracy and reliability of laboratory tests.
19
Q
How is pH defined?
A
The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution
A lower pH indicates higher acidity, while a higher pH indicates alkalinity.
20
Q
What is the ideal airflow direction in laboratories?
A
Air should move from lower to higher risk areas.
21
Q
What is the recommended pressure condition for laboratories?
A
Laboratories should be under negative pressure and not recirculated.
22
Q
What personal protective equipment (PPE) is recommended for laboratory work?
A
Coats, masks, no contacts unless safety goggles.
23
Q
What solutions can be used for decontaminating surfaces?
A
- 70% ethanol
- 0.5% solution of sodium hypochlorite (dilute bleach)
24
Q
How long should surfaces be decontaminated?
A
Minimum of 10 minutes.
25
What should be done to equipment after use in the laboratory?
Wiped down with disinfectant.
26
What must be accessible to all employees in the clinical laboratory area?
Written laboratory safety policies.
27
What is a common procedure in clinical laboratories regarding staff education?
Most have a procedure for training and retraining.
28
What are the three main types of hazard controls?
* Engineering controls
* Administrative controls
* Procedural controls
29
What do engineering controls focus on?
Building/structural safety.
30
What do administrative controls involve?
Creation of specific protocols to minimize worker exposure to hazards.
31
What is the purpose of procedural controls?
Development of policies that modify worker behavior.
32
What are the four biosafety levels in clin path?
1, 2, 3, and 4 (I, II, III, IV)
## Footnote
Each level corresponds to the risk associated with the agents handled.
33
What characterizes biosafety level I in clin path?
Agents that ordinarily do not cause disease in humans.
## Footnote
This level includes microorganisms that are not known to cause disease in healthy adults.
34
What defines biosafety level II in clin path?
Agents that ordinarily do not cause disease in humans.
## Footnote
This level includes moderate-risk agents that may cause disease but are not transmitted via aerosols.
35
What are the risks associated with biosafety level III in clin path?
Substances that can cause serious and potentially lethal diseases.
## Footnote
This includes pathogens that are transmitted through aerosols and may cause severe illness.
36
What distinguishes biosafety level IV in clin path?
Agents pose a high risk of causing life-threatening diseases.
## Footnote
This level includes the most dangerous pathogens for which there are no treatments or vaccines.
37
What is Category A in shipping in clin path?
More dangerous
## Footnote
Category A refers to infectious substances that pose a significant risk to public health.
38
What is Category B in shipping in clin path?
Less dangerous
## Footnote
Category B includes substances that do not meet the criteria for Category A.
39
What does SI stand for in measurement in clin path?
International System of Units
## Footnote
SI units are used globally for scientific measurements.
metric system
40
How many types of measurements are designated in the SI units in clin path?
Seven
## Footnote
mass,
time
length
electric current,
temperature,
luminosity
amount of substance
41
What SI unit is used for mass in veterinary medicine?
Kilograms (KG)
## Footnote
Mass is a critical measurement in veterinary practices.
42
What SI unit is used for temperature in veterinary medicine?
Kelvin
## Footnote
Temperature measurement is essential for assessing animal health.
43
What SI unit is used for quantity in veterinary medicine?
Moles
## Footnote
This unit is used in various calculations involving substances in veterinary science.
44
What determines the total magnification of an object being viewed through a microscope?
The total magnification is determined by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens in use.
## Footnote
The ocular lens usually has a magnification of 10×.
45
What is the ocular lens in a microscope?
The lens you look into.
## Footnote
It is part of the microscope that provides the initial magnification.
46
What are the types of objective lenses typically found in a microscope?
* Scanning lens, normally 4× magnification
* Low-power lens, normally 10× magnification
* High-power lens, normally 40× magnification
* Oil immersion lens, normally 100× magnification
* (sometimes also a 50X low oil)
## Footnote
These lenses allow for varying levels of magnification to view samples.
47
What is the function of the stage in a microscope?
Holds the slide.
## Footnote
The stage supports the specimen being observed.
48
What does the substage condenser control do in a microscope?
It is used to raise and lower the stage to allow light to be focused through the sample.
## Footnote
This adjustment helps in achieving optimal illumination.
49
What is the purpose of the aperture diaphragm in a microscope?
Controls the amount of light illuminating the object.
## Footnote
Proper light adjustment is crucial for clear visualization of samples.
50
What are the two types of focus adjustments available on a microscope?
* Coarse focus
* Fine focus
## Footnote
These adjustments allow for precise focusing on the specimen.
51
What is a stage micrometer?
A microscope slide etched with a 2-mm line marked in 0.01-mm (10-µm) divisions.
## Footnote
It is used for calibrating the microscope.
52
What is the primary function of a centrifuge?
Separates solutions according to their densities.
## Footnote
This is typically used for urine samples in laboratory settings.
53
What are the two types of heads found in centrifuges?
* Fixed-angle head
* Swinging-arm (horizontal) head
## Footnote
Each type has different operational characteristics and efficiencies.
54
What are the disadvantages of a swinging-arm head in a centrifuge?
* Air friction causes heat buildup
* Some remixing of the sediment with the supernatant may occur when the specimen cups fall back to the vertical position
## Footnote
These factors can affect the accuracy of the separation process.
55
What are characteristic features of a fixed-angle head in a centrifuge?
It operates at higher speeds and usually accommodates just one tube size.
## Footnote
The angle is typically approximately 52 degrees.
56
What must be regularly checked for maintenance in a centrifuge?
* Brushes (small pieces of graphite)
* Speed tests
## Footnote
Regular maintenance ensures the centrifuge operates effectively and safely.
57
Fill in the blank: A centrifuge must be _______ to function properly.
balanced
58
What does a refractometer measure?
Total solids through refraction of light, specific gravity of urine samples, and total protein content of fluid samples
## Footnote
Includes cytology and serum samples.
59
What should be used to clean the glass prism area of a refractometer?
Lens tissue
## Footnote
Avoid using other materials to prevent damage.
60
How often should a refractometer be calibrated?
Weekly
## Footnote
Calibration can be verified with distilled water (zero reading).
61
What is the purpose of histograms in chemistry and hematology analyzers?
Provide a visual representation of the numbers and sizes of the cells present in a sample.
62
What principle do chemistry analyzers generally use?
Spectrophotometry
## Footnote
Based on Beer’s law.
63
What does Beer’s law state?
A direct linear relationship exists between the concentration of an analyte and light absorption.
64
What are the components of a spectrophotometer?
Light source, prism, wavelength selector, photodetector, readout device.
65
What type of chemistry analyzers are for evaluating ions in the blood.
analyzers that use ion-specific electrodes
66
What are the two methods chemistry assays may use?
End point or kinetic (enzymes) methods.
67
What are the three types of hematology analyzers?
Impedance analyzers, laser-based analyzers, buffy coat analyzers.
68
How do impedance analyzers classify cells?
By measuring the change in current as cells pass through an aperture.
69
What do laser-based analyzers classify cells based on?
Size and density of the cells.
70
What is the primary use of buffy coat analyzers?
Provide only an estimate of the cell count.
71
What is the constant temperature maintained by incubators?
37°C
## Footnote
Used for culture and sensitivity testing.
72
What is the purpose of a water bath or heat block?
To maintain a constant temperature of 37°C for tests and blood-banking procedures.
73
What are the types of pipettes mentioned?
TD pipettes, TC pipettes, transfer pipettes.
74
What do TD pipettes do?
Designed to deliver a specific volume.
75
What is the difference between TC pipettes and TD pipettes?
TC pipettes are designed to contain microliter volumes.
76
What is a critical aspect of quality assurance in veterinary laboratories?
Equipment maintenance must be included in quality-control programs.
77
What are the three standards for clinical pathology?
Accuracy, precision, reliability.
78
Define accuracy in the context of clinical pathology.
How closely results agree with the true quantitative value.
79
What does precision refer to in clinical pathology?
The magnitude of random errors and the reproducibility of measurements.
80
What does reliability indicate in a method?
The ability to be accurate and precise.
81
What are the three types of variables that can affect test results?
Preanalytic, analytic, postanalytic.
82
What are preanalytic variables?
Biologic and nonbiologic variables that affect sample collection and handling.
83
What can affect analytic variables?
The procedure itself
84
What are postanalytic factors primarily related to?
Data entry and record keeping.
85
What is the term for urination?
Micturition
## Footnote
Micturition refers specifically to the act of urination.
86
What does iatrogenic mean?
Human caused
## Footnote
An example includes RBCs in a urinal sample collected through cystocentesis.
87
What is volatilization?
Conversion of matter to the vapor state
88
What is photooxidation?
Oxidation by radiant energy
89
What does pollakiuria refer to?
Frequent urination
90
What is polyuria?
Excessive urination
91
What are keytones?
Acids in the body created when the body is using fat instead of glucose
92
What is ketonuria?
Presence of keytones in the urine
93
What does oliguria mean?
Too little urine output
94
What is anuria?
The absence of urine output
95
What does PU/PD stand for?
Polyuria and polydipsia
96
What is polydipsia?
Increased thirst
97
What is dysuria?
Painful urination
98
What does stranguria refer to?
Slow urination
99
What are urochromes?
Pigments that make urine yellow
100
What is glucosuria or glycosuria?
High sugar in urine
101
What is myoglobin?
Iron-containing muscle protein released from injured muscle cells
102
What is methemoglobin?
An abnormal type of hemoglobin present in conditions such as acetaminophen poisoning in cats
103
What is ketoacidosis?
The presence of ketones causes the blood pH to fall, leading to a toxic condition
104
What is occult blood?
Blood that’s hidden in urine and revealed through testing
105
What does hematuria mean?
RBCs in the urine
106
What are keytones produced from?
When your liver breaks down fats
107
What is albumin?
A water-soluble protein made in the liver that helps maintain blood volume and pressure
108
What are Bence Jones proteins?
Light chain proteins that occur with multiple myeloma and don’t show on reagent pads
109
What does isosthenuria indicate?
Urine specific gravity is equal to the glomerular filtration rate, often seen in advanced kidney disease
110
What does UA provide information on?
Urinary and endocrine systems, metabolic state, electrolyte and hydration statuses
## Footnote
UA stands for urinalysis
111
What are some clinical reasons for performing a urinalysis?
Diagnose, rule out, monitor diseases
## Footnote
Clinical reasons can include monitoring conditions like cystitis or diabetes.
112
Name specific diseases that may lead to urinalysis.
* Renal disease
* Diabetes mellitus
* Cystitis
* Neoplasia
## Footnote
These diseases can provide critical insights into a patient's health through urinalysis.
113
What is an indicator of overall health in a patient besides blood work
Urinalysis
## Footnote
It serves as a minimum database for assessing any sick patient.
114
When should urinalysis be performed?
On any sick patient, geriatric patients, and pre-anesthesia assessments
## Footnote
This helps in evaluating the health status before procedures.
115
List signs that can lead to urinalysis.
* Polyuria
* Unable to hold urine
* Painful urine
* Inappropriate urine
* Frequent urine
* Color/odor change
* Licking at vulva/penis
## Footnote
These signs indicate potential urinary issues that need investigation.
116
What sensation does inflammation create that leads to frequent urination?
Urgency
## Footnote
Inflammation can also be associated with dysuria (painful urination) and stranguria (slow urination).
117
When are regularly scheduled urinalysis typically done (when not part of routine exam) ?
To monitor disease such as cystitis, renal disease, and diabetes
## Footnote
It is also done for potentially geriatric patients.
118
What are the four basic urine collection methods?
* Free-catch
* Manually expressing the bladder
* Catheterization
* Cystocentesis
## Footnote
Each method has its own indications and techniques for urine collection.
119
What is the free-catch method of urine collection?
Collecting a specimen as the animal urinates
## Footnote
This is a non-invasive method suitable for many situations.
120
Describe the manual expression method for urine collection.
Manually compressing the bladder using gentle, steady pressure applied through the abdominal wall until urine is released
## Footnote
This method requires some skill to avoid injury to the bladder.
121
What is catheterization in urine collection?
Threading a urinary catheter up the urethra until it enters the bladder
## Footnote
This method is useful for obtaining sterile samples.
122
What is cystocentesis?
Inserting a needle into the bladder through the ventral abdominal wall and aspirating urine into a syringe
## Footnote
This is the most sterile method of urine collection and is often used for specific diagnostic purposes.
123
What is the primary disadvantage of void urine collection?
Not good for culture
## Footnote
Contamination is common, making it unsuitable for accurate culture results.
124
What should you try to do for void urine collection?
Get a Midstream sample
## Footnote
This helps minimize contamination from the urethral opening.
125
Why is it best to collect a midstream urine sample first thing in the morning?
It is the most concentrated
## Footnote
The animal should not have eaten or drank for 6 to 8 hours.
126
What preparation can be done for large animals before free-flow urine collection?
Washing the prepuce and perineum
## Footnote
This reduces contamination and may stimulate urination.
127
What is a key advantage of void urine collection?
Easy to do, no risk of damage
## Footnote
It is a non-invasive method.
128
What is a major disadvantage of void urine collection?
Contamination common, must wait for pets
## Footnote
This makes it less reliable for diagnostic purposes.
129
What is cystocentesis?
Needle goes through the abdominal wall
## Footnote
It is a method used to collect urine directly from the bladder.
130
What must be ensured during the cystocentesis procedure?
Must be aseptic
## Footnote
This is crucial to prevent infection and contamination.
131
In which species is cystocentesis commonly performed?
Dogs and cats
## Footnote
It can also be done in sheep and goats but is less common.
132
Why is cystocentesis not performed in horses, cattle, camelids, and swine?
Can't localize and stabilize bladder
## Footnote
The risk of puncturing the bowel is significant.
133
What equipment is typically used for cystocentesis?
Needle, syringe, urinary catheter, gloves
## Footnote
These tools are essential for the procedure.
134
What position is the animal placed in for cystocentesis?
Dorsal or lateral recumbent position
## Footnote
The upper leg is abducted to expose the inguinal area.
135
What is the appropriate site for cystocentesis?
Ventral abdomen just cranial to the pubis
## Footnote
This area allows access to the full bladder.
136
What should be done to the skin at the cystocentesis site before the procedure?
Wiped with alcohol and allowed to dry
## Footnote
This helps maintain aseptic conditions.
137
What is a common finding with cystocentesis?
Some red blood cells (RBCs)
## Footnote
This may occur due to slight trauma from the procedure.
138
What is a major advantage of cystocentesis?
Best for culture
## Footnote
It provides a sterile sample suitable for diagnostic testing.
139
What are some disadvantages of cystocentesis?
Requires technical skill, blood contamination, risk of bleeding or bladder rupture
## Footnote
These risks necessitate careful execution of the procedure.
140
What species are suitable for manual bladder expression?
Only used in dogs and cats
## Footnote
Manual bladder expression is not applicable to other species.
141
What do you want when doing manual bladder expression for culture?
Catch a Midstream sample
## Footnote
Midstream samples reduce contamination.
142
What condition must the bladder be in for successful manual bladder expression?
The bladder must be full enough to palpate and hold in position
## Footnote
A full bladder is essential for effective expression.
143
What is a potential finding during manual bladder expression?
It isn’t unusual to find some red blood cells (RBCs)
## Footnote
This may occur due to slight trauma from the procedure.
144
What should never be attempted during manual bladder expression?
NEVER attempt on obstructed bladder
## Footnote
Attempting this can cause severe complications.
145
What is an advantage of manual bladder expression?
Not many advantages. Can be taught to owners of paralyzed pets
## Footnote
The method has no significant advantages.
146
What are some disadvantages of manual bladder expression?
Risk bladder injury, Risk - urine reflux into kidneys or prostate for males, difficult to do in awake pet
## Footnote
These risks make the procedure less favorable.
147
In what species and sex can urinary catheterization be performed?
Male and female dogs, cats and horses; female cattle, sheep, goats, llamas, alpacas
## Footnote
Urinary catheterization is species and sex specific.
148
What species can only females have bladder catheterization?
Cattle, sheep, goats, llamas, and alpacas
## Footnote
Urethral catheterization can be done in these species.
149
Is urinary catheterization commonly performed in swine?
Generally not done in swine, but is possible in females
## Footnote
Female swine may be exceptions for catheterization.
150
What is the procedure for urinary catheterization?
Urinary catheter passed into the urethra and then advanced into the bladder
## Footnote
The catheterization process requires careful technique.
151
What is important to maintain during urinary catheterization?
Aseptic technique to avoid introducing infection
## Footnote.
A sterile field is crucial to prevent urinary tract infections.
152
What equipment is necessary for urinary catheterization?
Sterile collection equipment - needle, syringe, urinary catheter
## Footnote
Use of sterile equipment is key to the procedure's success.
153
What happens to debris at the urethral opening during urinary catheterization?
Debris can enter the catheter as the tip is advanced through the opening
## Footnote
This is why the first fraction of urine is discarded.
154
Can urinary catheterization be used for culture?
Can be used for culture
## Footnote
This allows for diagnostic testing of urinary conditions.
155
What is an advantage of urinary catheterization?
Low risk of injury, less contamination (cysto better)
## Footnote
Compared to manual expression, catheterization has lower risks.
156
What are some disadvantages of urinary catheterization?
Requires technical skill, some pets may need sedation, may be challenging in obstructed pet
## Footnote
The procedure can be complex and requires experience.
157
What types of specimens are suitable for urine culture?
Only specimens collected by cystocentesis or catheterization are suitable for urine culture.
## Footnote
Cystocentesis and catheterization can also relieve bladder distention in obstructed animals.
158
What is the significance of the urinary bladder's distensibility in obstructed animals?
The urinary bladder is very distensible and fills cranially, feeling like an abdominal mass in obstructed animals.
## Footnote
Compressing the bladder of an obstructed animal could lead to rupture and chemical peritonitis.
159
What happens to urine specimens as soon as they are voided?
The physical, chemical, and microscopic characteristics of a urine specimen begin to change.
## Footnote
Immediate analysis is ideal to ensure accuracy.
160
What is the recommended temperature for refrigerating urine specimens?
4° C (39.2° F)
## Footnote
Refrigeration delays bacterial growth for up to 24 hours.
161
What effect does refrigeration have on urine specimens?
Refrigeration induces precipitation of amorphous or crystalline deposits that can interfere with microscopic examination.
## Footnote
The specimen must be brought to room temperature before testing.
162
What is the impact of adding formalin to urine samples?
Formalin acts as an antimicrobial agent and cannot be used for culture.
## Footnote
It must be added after chemical tests because it interferes with chemical analysis, especially glucose testing.
163
What changes occur in urine specimens left at room temperature for longer than one hour? (Name one)
pH increases because urea is broken down to ammonia by urease-producing bacteria.
## Footnote
Other changes include decreases in glucose and ketones, and an increase in turbidity.
164
What happens to glucose levels in urine specimens left at room temperature?
Glucose decreases because of metabolic breakdown by cells and microbes.
## Footnote
This can affect the accuracy of glucose testing.
165
What causes turbidity to increase in urine specimens left at room temperature?
Turbidity increases due to bacterial growth and precipitation of crystals, mucus, fat, cells, and casts.
## Footnote
Cells and casts may disintegrate, especially in dilute alkaline urine.
166
What is the effect of photooxidation on bilirubin in urine specimens?
Bilirubin decreases due to photooxidation on exposure to light.
## Footnote
This can lead to misleading test results.
167
Fill in the blank: If analysis can’t be done immediately, urine specimens should be refrigerated at _______.
4° C (39.2° F)
## Footnote
This helps preserve specimen integrity for up to 24 hours.
168
What are the main parts of a urinalysis?
Physical properties, chemical properties, and microscope inspection
## Footnote
These components are essential for a comprehensive urinalysis.
169
What is included in the physical properties of urinalysis?
Visual or gross exam, obtaining complete patient history, lab sheet preparation, urine preparation, volume check, color assessment, transparency, odor, and specific gravity
## Footnote
Each of these factors provides critical information about the urine sample.
170
What should be noted in the patient history for a urinalysis?
How much urine is produced, frequency, food, treats, etc.
## Footnote
Accurate patient history helps in understanding the urine output and potential abnormalities.
171
What information is included on the lab sheet for urinalysis?
Patient info, date, date of collection, method of collection
## Footnote
This information is crucial for tracking the sample and ensuring accurate results.
172
What is the recommended method for preparing urine for urinalysis?
Warm refrigerated urine to room temperature and gently invert it
## Footnote
Shaking the urine can cause artifacts that may interfere with test results.
173
How much urine should dogs and cats produce per kg per hour?
1 to 2 mls
## Footnote
Monitoring urine output is important for assessing hydration status and kidney function.
174
What is the normal color range for urine in dogs and cats?
Light yellow to amber; puppies and kittens usually have clear urine
## Footnote
Color can indicate hydration status and possible health issues.
175
What does brown-green urine suggest?
Presence of bile pigment and bilirubin
## Footnote
This could indicate liver issues or hemolysis.
176
What does red-brown urine indicate?
Hematuria or hemoglobin presence
## Footnote
This suggests possible bleeding within the urinary tract.
177
What can cause cloudy urine?
Cells, casts, crystals, mucus, sperm, bacteria, and fat droplets
## Footnote
Cloudy urine may indicate underlying health issues.
178
What is the significance of the odor in urine analysis?
Varies between species; abnormal smells can indicate issues
## Footnote
For example, ammonia smell can indicate bacterial growth.
179
What does a sweet or fruity smell in urine indicate?
Presence of ketones (ketonuria)
## Footnote
This can occur in diabetes mellitus or excessive fat metabolism.
180
How is specific gravity (SG) defined?
The ratio of the mass of a solution compared with the mass of an equal volume of water
## Footnote
SG provides insight into kidney concentrating ability.
181
What does a high specific gravity indicate?
Concentrated urine; oliguria
## Footnote
High SG can suggest dehydration or renal concentrating ability.
182
What factors can cause false low specific gravity values?
Highly alkaline urine (> 7)
## Footnote
It’s important to consider urine pH when interpreting SG.
183
What is isosthenuria?
SGs in the range of 1.008 to 1.012
## Footnote
This condition often occurs in animals with advanced primary renal disease.
184
What is the maximum urine concentration for dogs?
1.060
## Footnote
Normal range for dogs is 1.001 to 1.065.
185
What is the maximum urine concentration for cats?
1.080
## Footnote
Normal range for cats is 1.001 to 1.080.
186
Fill in the blank: Urine that is highly _____ can cause false low specific gravity values.
alkaline
## Footnote
Understanding urine pH is essential for accurate analysis.
187
True or False: Cloudy urine is considered normal in all species.
False
## Footnote
Cloudy urine is not normal except in rabbits and horses.
188
What is the purpose of measuring chemical properties of urine?
To assess health and diagnose potential diseases.
189
What is the recommended care for urine dipsticks?
* Keep container sealed
* Remove strip prior to use
* Don’t touch reagent pads
* Keep away from temperature extremes and humidity
190
What are the most common elements tested for in urine?
* pH
* Protein
* Glucose
* Keytones
* Blood
* Bilirubin
191
What is the normal pH range for herbivores urine?
7 – 8.5
192
What factors can decrease urine pH?
* Fever
* Starvation
* High-protein diet
* Acidosis
* Excessive muscular activity
* Certain drugs
193
What causes increased urine pH?
* Alkalosis
* High-fiber diets
* UTI with urease bacteria
* Certain drugs
* Urine retention
194
What should protein levels in urine be evaluated alongside?
Specific gravity
195
What does a low USG with trace protein indicate?
Protein loss from kidney into urine
196
What are some follow-up urine tests for proteinuria?
* Sulfosalicylic Acid Turbidity
* Tests for Bence Jones proteins
* Microalbumin
* Urine Protein/Creatinine Ratio
197
What does a urine protein/creatinine ratio greater than 1 indicate?
Definitely abnormal protein loss
198
What does the presence of glucose in urine signify?
Blood glucose is greater than the renal threshold
199
What is the renal threshold for blood glucose in dogs?
180 – 220 mg/dl
200
What can cause elevated glucose levels in urine?
* Diabetes mellitus
* Hyperthyroidism
* Cushing's disease
* Chronic liver disease
* Stress in cats
201
What are ketones and when do they appear in urine?
Products of fatty acid catabolism that appear before detectable levels in blood
202
What disorders are commonly associated with ketonuria?
* Diabetes mellitus
* Starvation
* Impaired liver function
* High-fat diets
203
What does the presence of bilirubin in urine indicate?
Conditions like bile duct obstruction, hemolytic anemia, and liver disease
204
What is the significance of urobilinogen in urine?
Some presence is expected; excessive amounts may indicate liver issues
205
What causes hematuria?
Trauma, renal and urinary tract diseases
206
What distinguishes hemoglobinuria from myoglobinuria?
Hemoglobinuria is due to intravascular hemolysis, while myoglobinuria indicates muscle injury
207
What are some causes of myoglobinuria?
* Severe muscle injury
* Downer cows
* Exertional rhabdomyolysis in horses
208
What is a common false positive for blood in urine?
Presence of peroxidase-producing microbes or high levels of vitamin C
209
What is the function of the sulfosalicylic acid turbidity test?
Determines urine protein levels via acid precipitation
210
What is the normal range for urine protein/creatinine ratio?
Less than 0.5 is normal
211
What is the significance of a positive blood test in urine?
Indicates potential hematuria, hemoglobinuria, or myoglobinuria
212
What can cause false-positive results for glucose in urine?
* Ascorbic acid
* Morphine
* Salicylates
* Cephalosporins
* Penicillin
213
What is the primary test for protein in urine?
Albumin test
214
What is the expected result for keytones in a healthy animal's urine?
Negative
215
What is the expected urine output in chronic renal disease?
Excessive with low specific gravity
216
What does the presence of blood in urine typically indicate?
Urinary tract diseases or trauma
217
What is the purpose of a microscopic exam of UA?
To check for sediment and formed elements in urine
## Footnote
Formed elements include cells, mucus, casts, and crystals.
218
What are the steps to perform a microscopic exam of UA?
1. Record chemical/physical exam results
2. Label tube
3. Place 5 to 10 mls in tube
4. Centrifuge for 3-5 minutes at 1000 to 2000 rpm
5. Note sediment visibility
6. Remove supernatant
7. Resuspend sediment
8. Prepare slide (unstained or stained)
## Footnote
The stained drop should not be used for counting elements.
219
What elements are typically examined in a urine microscopic exam?
Cells, casts, crystals, microorganisms, sperm, and parasite ova
## Footnote
A good sample will have about 0.5ml of sediment.
220
What do red blood cells (RBC) in urine indicate?
Bleeding in the urinary tract
## Footnote
RBCs should be fewer than 2-3 per high power field (HPF).
221
What do white blood cells (WBC) in urine indicate?
Infection in the urinary tract
## Footnote
More than 5-8 WBCs per HPF suggests inflammation caused by bacteria.
222
What are squamous epithelial cells and where are they found?
Largest epithelial cells found in the vagina, vulva, prepuce, and distal urethra
## Footnote
They appear thin and cornflake-like with a nucleus.
223
What do transitional epithelial cells indicate when found in urine?
Can indicate irritation or disease, especially if in large numbers
## Footnote
Sheets in a void sample may suggest transitional cell carcinoma.
224
What are renal epithelial cells and what do they suggest?
Smallest epithelial cells that may suggest tubular degeneration
## Footnote
They line the renal tubules.
225
What are casts and where do they form?
Protein material forming in the lumen of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting tubules
## Footnote
Casts are cylindrical and can have various shapes.
226
What conditions are necessary for casts to be observed?
Must be seen in fresh urine, rarely seen in alkaline urine, and should not be shaken
## Footnote
Casts can break easily and should be examined carefully.
227
What are the types of casts found in urine?
* Hyaline
* Cellular (epithelial, leukocyte, erythrocyte)
* Granular
* Waxy
* Fatty
## Footnote
All casts start as hyaline.
228
What does the presence of crystals in urine indicate?
Crystalluria, which may or may not be clinically significant
## Footnote
Types of crystals depend on urine pH and solutes.
229
What is the most common type of crystal associated with canine urolithiasis?
Struvite crystals
## Footnote
Cats may also get struvites or urethral plugs.
230
What are calcium oxalate crystals and when are they more likely to occur?
More likely in acidic urine, can indicate antifreeze consumption
## Footnote
Dihydrate and monohydrate forms are present.
231
What are the characteristics of ammonium biurate crystals?
Associated with severe liver disease
## Footnote
They can be indicative of underlying health issues.
232
What are uroliths?
Calculi (stones) composed of various minerals
## Footnote
They can cause urinary obstruction and other complications.
233
What does the presence of microorganisms in urine indicate?
Possible infection when collected by cysto or catheterization
## Footnote
Minimum of 100,000 organisms is needed to be significant.
234
What should be looked for in urine to confirm contamination?
WBCs without bacteria
## Footnote
Gram stain is the best way to identify microorganisms.
235
What is normal regarding sperm in urine?
Presence of sperm is normal for intact males
## Footnote
It does not indicate any pathology.
236
What are the two types of Pearsonema found in urine?
* Pearsonema plica (dog)
* Pearsonema feliscati (cat)
## Footnote
These are bladder worms and are generally harmless.
237
What is Dioctophyma renale?
Giant Kidney Worm found in dogs
## Footnote
It can cause significant renal issues.
238
Are heartworms found in urine?
Occasional evidence can be found
## Footnote
It indicates potential heartworm infection.
239
What is Pyuria?
WBC in urine
240
What is Nephritis?
Inflammation of the kidneys
241
Where in the body are the kidneys located in most animals?
Dorsal aspect of the abdomen, cranial to the lumbar vertebra
242
Which part of the kidney has various components including the renal corpuscle, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, and a collecting tubule?
Nephron
243
What activates the contraction of the smooth muscles in the bladder wall when it enlarges?
Stretch receptors
244
Which structure releases the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Posterior pituitary gland
245
Which structure releases the hormone aldosterone?
Adrenal cortex
246
An insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland can result in which condition?
Polyuria
247
In a free catch sample, what type of cells most likely will contaminate the sample?
White blood cells
248
Which method is used to stimulate urination in horses?
Rubbing a warm, wet cloth on the ventral abdomen
249
Which urine collection method should be avoided for an animal that has had multiple cystotomies for bladder stones?
Bladder expression
250
Why should the first portion of the sample collected by catheterization be discarded?
Prevent possible bacterial contamination from the catheterization process
251
In which direction should the needle be inserted in the caudal abdomen for a cystocentesis?
Dorsocaudally
252
What is the urine collection method of choice if culture and sensitivity testing are desired?
Bladder expression
253
What may occur if a urine sample is kept at room temperature for an extended length of time?
Decreased glucose concentrations and Decreased pH
254
What must be done to a refrigerated urine sample before analyzing it?
Warm gently before analysis
255
What is considered a normal urine output for adult dogs and cats?
20 to 40 mL/kg body weight
256
What would be the expected outcome from a dog placed on furosemide?
Polyuria
257
What condition might be expected in a cat that has been locked in a storage shed for two days?
Oliguria
258
An animal that has a specific gravity of 1.005 may have which condition?
Diabetes insipidus
259
Which condition may cause a urine pH to decrease?
Fever
260
Which condition may cause urine pH to increase?
Urinary tract infection with urease bacteria
261
Which structure resorbs the plasma proteins in healthy animals?
Renal tubules
262
A reagent strip test can detect urine protein levels greater than which value?
30 mg/dL
263
What finding could be expected in a urine sample collected from a feral and fractious cat?
Proteinuria
264
What would you expect to find in a urine sample from a dog showing signs of liver failure?
Ketones
265
What condition could happen in a dog with impaired liver function?
Ketosis
266
What is the limitation of using reagent test strips when testing for ketosis?
Inability to detect ketones in the early stage of ketosis
267
What condition may occur in cattle if they drink a large amount of water after the pond thaws?
Hemoglobinuria
268
What is frequently seen in horses with exertional rhabdomyolysis?
Myoglobinuria
269
In which species is the leukocyte reagent test not valid due to false-positive results?
Feline
270
What is an acceptable number of red blood cells (RBCs) in normal urine sediment?
2 to 3 RBCs per hpf
271
How many white blood cells can be present in a normal urine sample?
0 to 1 per hpf
272
Which type of cell is usually round, granular with a small nucleus, and indicative of cystitis or pyelonephritis if found in large numbers?
Transitional epithelial
273
What’s the most common type of cast found in animal urine?
Granular
274
Which type of crystal is often described as looking like a coffin lid?
Struvite
275
Which type of crystal is common in an animal with severe liver disease?
Calcium oxalate
276
What is the only way to correctly identify the composition of a urolith?
Send it to a reference laboratory
277
Found in urine. Both images the same thing
Red Blood Cell in urine
278
Found in urine
White blood cell
279
Found in urine
Transitional Epithelia Cell
280
Found in urine
Bilirubin
281
Found in urine (happens to be equine)
Calcium Carbonate crystal
282
Found in urine
Hyaline cast
283
Found in urine
Struvite
284
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