clin path 1st quiz Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 3 pre-analytical factors that may influence test results?
A
Fixed animal factors
transient animal factors - pregnancy, fear
clinician related - techniques.
2
Q
What is an analytical factor that can influence results?
A
type of equipment, quality control
3
Q
What are some post analytical factors that may influence results?
A
incorrect transcription
wrong reference ranges
interpretation errors
4
Q
Which anticoagulant is the best to use for hematology such as morphology and CBC? What color is the tube?
A
EDTA
Purple
5
Q
What anticoagulant should be used for clinical biochemistry? Color of tube?
A
Lithium Heparin
Green
6
Q
What color tube has no anticoagulant?
A
red
7
Q
What anticoagulant is used for coagulation tests? What color is the tube?
A
Na-Citrate
Blue
8
Q
What anticoagulant is preferred for glucose estimation? Color of tube?
A
Fl-Oxalate
Grey
9
Q
What gauge needle should be used for large animals? What time should the sample be collected?
A
18-20
in the morning
10
Q
What vein should be used for big dogs and what gauge?
A
Cephalic
21-22
11
Q
What vein should be used for small dogs and what gauge needle?
A
jugular
19-20
12
Q
What gauge needle should be used in a cat?
A
21-24
13
Q
What vein and what gauge needle should be used for pigs?
A
Anterior vena cava
18-19
14
Q
How long are blood and fluids stable at room temperature? What about at 4C in a fridge?
A
RT- 24 hours
Fridge - 2-3 days
15
Q
What must be done before blood samples are stored for biochemistry later on?
A
plasma must be seperated
16
Q
What kind of blood samples must be processed within 30 minutes?
A
ammonia, acid-base (bilirubin)
and if lithium heparin was used to anticoag
17
Q
What can in vitro hemolysis change in the blood analysis?
A
decreased RBC and PCV values
inaccurate MCHC
18
Q
Turbidity from in vitro hemolysis can interfere with what kind of tests?
A
colorimetric and spectrophotometric
19
Q
What analytes may increase as a result of in vitro hemolysis?
A
postassium
inorganic phosphates
enzymes
20
Q
What kind of tubes should body fluids be split into?
A
EDTA - preserve morphology
Sterilin tubes - permit culture
21
Q
What body fluid must be analyzed immediately?
A
CSF
22
Q
What is the definition of accuracy in laboratory assays?
A
closeness of measured value and true value
23
Q
What is the defintion of precision in laboratory assays?
A
gives same result over and over
24
Q
What is the definition of reliability in laboratory assays?
A
ability to be accurate and precise
25
How is positive predictive value calculated and what does it mean?
TP/FP+TP
| suggests presence of dz in population of animals
26
How is negative predictive value calculated and what does it mean?
TN/TN+FN
| suggests absence of dz in population
27
What happens to the PPV and NPV if the prevalence of a disease drops?
PPV decreases
| NPV increases
28
What are sinusoids in bone marrow?
thin walled capillaries
| reticular cells on outside where hematopoeisis occurs
29
What system is present in BM, spleen, and liver and facilitates hematopoiesis by removing aged RBCs?
mononuclear phagocytic system (MPS)
30
What organs are places besides BM, spleen and liver is the MPS found?
CNS (microglia)
| lungs (alveolar macrophages)
31
What organs does hematopoiesis occur after birth?
Liver, spleen and bone marrow, then becomes restricted to bone marrow
32
What three things(hormones/molecules) are involved in regulating hematopoesis?
erythropoietin (EPO)
thrombopoietin (TPO)
colony stimulation factors (CSF)
33
What two types of cells make up the majority in the bone marrow?
myeloid (granulocytic) and erythroid precursors
34
What is the lifespan of cat RBCs?
70 days
35
Where can extramedullary hematopoisesis take place?
spleen and liver
36
What "activities" do neutrophils possess?
phagocytic and bacteriocidal
37
What "activities" do eosinophils (and basophils) possess?
parasiticidal and allergic
38
How long does it take for a myelocyte to become a neutro, eosin or basophil?
7 days
39
What makes up myeloid precursors?
granulocytes and monocytoid precursors
40
Which WBC can re-enter the blood stream directly?
lymphocytes
41
What ways may reversible bone marrow abnormalities manifest themselves? (3)
neutropenia (b/c of life span)
non-regenerative anemia
thrombocytopenia
42
What ways may irreversible bone marrow be manifested?
cytopenia or unregulated proliferation (neoplasia)
43
What may be the causes of atrophy of the bone marrow?
toxins, neoplasia, virus or protozoal infection or idiopathic
44
Which irreversible bone marrow abnormality is non-selective?
atrophy of bone marrow
45
Which irreversible bone marrow abnormality is selective?
hyperplasia of bone marrow
46
What are the causes of hyperplasia of bone marrow?
inflammation, acute blood loss, hemolysis
47
Which syndrome is where one or more stem cells have maturation defects?
myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
48
What effect does myelodysplastic syndrome have on the blood?
cytopenias of the affected cell line
49
What conditions does selective MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome) lead to?
non-regenerative anemia
leukopenia
thrombocytopenia
50
What does non-selective MDS lead to?
aplastic pancytopenia
51
What is it called when normal hematopoietic tissue in bone marrow is replaced by abnormal tissue usually fibrous or malignant?
myelopththisis
52
What disease is cancer of the bone marrow stem cells?
Myeloproliferative disease (MDS)
53
How is MDS(maturation defect) different than acute MPD(cancer)?
blast cell percentage in bone marrow is less than 30% in MDS
54
How is MDS different than chronic MPD?
MDS will have leukopenia
55
Which species is susceptible to MDS?
cats
56
What characterizes MPD (cancer) in the bone marrow?
hypercellular bone marrow (one cell type)
| distorted maturation sequence
57
How is acute leukemia characterized?
presence of more than 30% blast cells in marrow
| short survival time (of animal)
58
What characterizes chronic leukemia?
high number of mature cells in blood and bone marrow
| long survival time (of animal)
59
Which dog breed takes 3 days to clear blood of lipids?
mini schnauzer
60
Low PCV + low protein =
hemorrhagic anemia
61
Low PCV + normal protein =
hemolytic anemia
62
Low PCV + high protein =
inflammatory anemia (dyshemopoiesis)
63
high PCV + high protein =
dehydration (high albumin confirms)
64
normal pcv + low protein =
reduced protein production (liver dz)
| increased protein loss
65
long pink buffy coat means what?
RBC regeneration (nucleated rbcs)
66
What may cause horse plasma to be yellow besides jaundice?
anorexia or illness
67
MCV is within reference intervals means?
normocytic
68
MCV is above RI means?
macrocytic
69
MCV is below RI means?
microcytic - iron deficiency anemia
70
MCHC below RI means?
Hypochromic - immature RBCs
71
MCHC above RI means?
Hyperchromic - artefactual
72
Which RBC indices is the least accurate?
MCH
73
How do you calculate MCV?
MCV = PCV*10/RBC in femtoliters
74
How do you calculate MCHC?
MCHC = Hb*100/PCV (%)
75
What type of anemia always stays normocytic and normochromic?
anemia from low RBC production (dyshemopoiesis)
76
When do you see immature RBCs after hemorrhage or hemolysis?
72 hours
77
What types of anemia are microcytic and hypochromic?
prolonged small losses of blood, no iron, regeneration poor
78
What error in RBC indices may occur if there is inadequate centrifugation?
artificially elevated PCV and lower MCHC
79
What technique measures reticultocytes more accurately?
flow cytometry
80
What % of reticulocytes indicates RBC regeneration in ORP?
greater than 3%
81
What % for RBC regeneration using CRP (corrected reticulocyte percentage?
greater than 1%
82
What stains are used to stain RNA and identify reticulocytes, intracellular blood parasites and heinz bodies?
new methylene blue
83
What stain is is used for mast cells?
Toludine blue
84
What stain is used for iron storage?
prussian
85
What stain is used for fungal hypae and spores?
periodic acid schiff (PAS)
86
What species is rouleaux formation normal?
horses, dogs, cats
87
What conditions are considered if there is agglutination of RBCs in a smear?
inflammatory dz, toxemia, immune mediated anemia
88
Which species have normal anisocytosis?
ruminants
89
What term is used when RBCs stain blue?
polychromasia (RNA from immature RBC)
90
What does hypochromasia indicate?
iron deficiency anemia
91
What conditions increase holly jolly bodies?
regenerative anemias and splenectomized animals
92
What are holly jolly bodies made of?
DNA remnants of nucleus
93
What conditions/species have basophilic stippling in their RBCs?
RBC regeneration especially ruminants
94
What is the term used for abnormally shaped RBCs above 30%?
poikilocytosis
95
What species has type 1 echinocytes?
ruminants
96
What are type 2 echinocytes associated with?
toxemia, electrolyte imbalance, snake bites, glomerularnephritis
97
What is the term used for RBCs with a few blunt irregularly spaced projections?
acanthocytes
98
What condition makes acanthocytes occur?
cholesterol/phospholipid ratio is altered on RBCs membrane
99
What is the term used for RBCs that are small, dense and without central pallor?
spherocytes
100
What term is used for RBCs that are thin with an increased membrane to volume ratio?
leptocytes (codocytes) - target cells
101
What conditions are leptocytes usually seen?
toxemias
| iron deficiency anemia
102
What are heinz bodies?
denatured clumps of precipitated hemoglobin
103
What can high amounts of heinz bodies transform a RBC into after removal?
spherocyte
104
What do avian blood smears have with a routine blood stain?
polychromasia
105
What do avian blood smears have with new methylene blue stain?
up to 5% reticulocytosis
106
What kind of reticulocytes do cats have?
punctate and aggregate reticulocytes
107
What term is used for an increase in all blood cells above RI?
polycythemia
108
What term is used for RBCs above RI?
erythrocytosis
109
What chronic diseases cause absolute pathological erythrocytosis?
chronic lung or heart disease
110
What type of erythrocytosis is associated with a myeloproliferative tumor(MPD)/erythrocytic sarcoma?
absolute, pathological and primary
111
What do dogs show during erythrocytic sarcoma?
erythrocytosis in absence of dehydration, lung/heart dz, kidney disorder or high EPO. Also lots of immature RBCs in absence of anemia
112
What do cats show that have erythrocytic sarcoma?
non-regenerative anemia, severe, immature RBCs, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly
113
What are the 3 mechanisms that lead to true anemia?
hemorrhage
hemolysis
dyshemopoiesis
114
What clinical signs are present when there is a sudden rapid loss of blood?
collapse, hemorrhagic shock or heart failure
115
What is pure red cell aplasia?
dyshemopoietic anemia effecting only RBC precursors
116
What is aplastic pancytopenia?
non-selective simultaneous destruction of all stem cells in bone marrow
117
What are the 2 types of primary dyshemopoietic anemia?
pure red cell aplasia
| aplastic pancytopenia
118
What pathologies cause secondary dyshemopoiesis?
inflammation, infection, endocrine disorders, neoplasia
119
What is the most common mechanism of non regenerative anemia?
anemia of inflammatory disease (AID) - body sequesters iron in response to inflammation
120
What is a classic example of AID in small animals?
chronic renal failure --> low EPO
121
What is the main difference between primary and secondary dyshemopoiesis
primary - bone marrow failure
| secondary - iron sequestration
122
Which drug toxicity in particular can lead to reversible bone marrow abnormality?
estrogen
123
What does suffix -penia mean?
decrease/deficiency
124
What is monocytopoiesis regulated by?
granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
125
What is granulopoiesis regulated by?
G-CSF
126
What are schistocytes?
erythrocyte fragments with sharp extremities when there is turbulent blood flow
127
What are blast cells?
very big, high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, pale nucleui, one to several nucleoli and blue cytoplasm
128
What does the prefix -cytosis mean?
increase in those cells
129
Where does hemopoiesis occur in adult animals?
flat bones and epiphysis of long bones
130
What indicates RBC regeneration in horse?
mild macrocytic
131
Band cells are precursors of what 3 cells?
neutro, eosinophil, and basophil
132
Monocytes are precursors of what cell?
macrophage
133
What are the 3 primary RBC tests for an erythrogram?
PCV, Hb, and RBC count
134
What are specific diseases that indicate a CBC should be done?
babesiosis
heartworm
leukemia
