Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Pathology > Clin Path Midterm - PPTs > Flashcards

Clin Path Midterm - PPTs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 conditions where IV and EV hemolysis occur concurrently?

A

Parasites
heinz bodies
RBCs with Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 hemoglobulinopathies?

A

Sickle cell disease
Thalassemia (absence of parts of hemoglobin)
Anemia - impaired flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which breed can get a inherited deficiency of phosphofructokinase?

A

english springer spaniels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What breeds get a PK deficiency?

A

Basenji, beagles, cairn terriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of PK causes less intravascular survival of RBCs?

A

R-type PK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes the problems associated with congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

inadequate Hb is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the symptoms of congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

photosensitization, pink tooth, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What breeds get congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

holstein, shorthorn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is IMHA in dogs mostly extravascular or intravascular?

A

extravascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes of secondary IMHA?

A

Drugs (penicillin and sulfa)
infection
neoplasia - hemangiosarcoma
transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is immune mediated thrombocytopenia IV or EV?

A

extravascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of inappropriate RBC regeneration?

A

Lead poisoning
myeloproliferative dz
BM toxicity
Chronic hypoxia in animals with CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a major cross match?

A

recipient serum + donor RBCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a minor cross match

A

donor serum + recipient RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the life spans of transfused RBCs in domestic animals?

A

Cats - 5 weeks
Dogs - 3 weeks
Horses - 1 week
cattle - several days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What chemical should be added to transfused blood?

A

acid citrate dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are febrile, non hemolytic, transfusion rxns caused by?

A

WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the most immunogenic horse blood groups?

A

A and Q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most immunogenic cow blood group?

A

J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the most immunogenic dog blood groups?

A

1.1 and 1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when type A blood of cat is transfused to type B cat?

A

acute severe transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens when type B blood is transferred into type A cat?

A

rapid removal of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What anticoagulant is used for PTT and PT?

A

sodium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What additive for platelet counts?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What hemostasis tests need blood from plain red tubes?

A

CT, ACT, CRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What may a prolonged BMBT (BT) mean?

A

vascular or platelet quantity or quality
vWFD
purpura hemorrhagica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a clot lysis before 24 hours mean?

A

excess of fibrin degradation products (excess plasmin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Platelets less than 30 means?

A

immune mediated thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Platelets 50 to 90 means?

A

DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What coagulation test measures extrinsic pathway?

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What pathways does APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measure?

A

time it takes to form clot - intrinsic and common pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What test should be performed with APTT?

A

OSPT

33
Q

What test is more sensitive, ACT or CT or PTT?

A

PTT>ACT>CT

34
Q

What does CT (coagulation time) measure?

A

tube break - fibrin strand

35
Q

What pathways does ACT (activated coagulation time)measure?

A

intrinsic and common

36
Q

What can mess up the ACT test?

A

severe thrombocytopenia

37
Q

What are the other names for PT test?

A

OSPT

38
Q

What are other names for PTT test?

A

APTT, aPTT

39
Q

What pathways does OSPT measure?

A

extrinsic and common

40
Q

What does prolonged PIVKA indicate?

A

warfarin

41
Q

What is more sensitive? PT or PIVKA?

A

PT

42
Q

What is the best test indicator for DIC?

A

D-dimers

43
Q

What disease is a horse with bleeding, low PCV, but coagulation tests are WRI?

A

purpura hemorrhagica

44
Q

What are causes of prolonged TCT (thrombin clotting time)?

A

hypofibrinogenemia

dysfunction of fibrinogen

45
Q

What does monoclonal gammopathy indicate?

A

multiple myeloma, take bone marrow aspirate

46
Q

What should be seen when you put bone marrow on slide?

A

yellow floccules and blood

47
Q

What should be examined in BM aspirate at 10x?

A

cellularity

48
Q

What should be examined in BM aspirate at 40x?

A

proportions of percursor cells

49
Q

What should be examined in BM aspirate at 100 X?

A

precursor lines, morphology, G/E ratio

50
Q

What does a High G/normal E ratio mean?

A

inflammation

51
Q

What does a normal G/low E ratio mean?

A

non-regenerative anemia

52
Q

What does a small G/normal E ratio mean?

A

Leukopenia

53
Q

What does Normal G/high E ratio mean?

A

anemia with regeneration

54
Q

Which species have large granulocyte bone marrow storage pools?

A

dogs and cats

55
Q

Which species have small granulocyte bone marrow storage pools?

A

horses and ruminants

56
Q

What characterizes per acute inflammation leukogram?

A

leukopenia, neutropenia –> sepsis

57
Q

What is a leukemoid reaction?

A

severe leukocytosis (50 to 100) that resembles leukemia

58
Q

What can cause leukemoid reaction?

A

pyometra, chronic active peritonitis, H. canis, IMHA, neoplasms w/ necrosis

59
Q

Which species get Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

cows, persian cats

60
Q

What are the characteristics of reactive lymphocytes?

A

bigger, less dense, basophilic, (AKA immunocytes)

61
Q

What characterizes typical inflammatory leukogram?

A

leukocytosis, left shift, neutrophilia

62
Q

What characterizes typical stress leukogram?

A

lymphopenia

63
Q

What characterizes excitement response leukogram?

A

leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, no left shift

64
Q

What are the causes of MPD?

A

viral, drugs, chemicals, radiation

65
Q

What characterizes acute MPD?

A

30% or more blast cells in bone marrow

66
Q

What characterizes chronic MPD?

A

predominance of mature cells in BM

67
Q

What species get myelomonocytic sarcoma most commonly?

A

dogs

68
Q

What characterizes myelomonocytic sarcoma?

A

very high WBC count and blood smears with mature and blast cells

69
Q

What are the frequent CBC changes in MPD?

A

non regenerative anemia
leukocytosis
blast cells in blood
thrompocytopenia

70
Q

What is a frequent blood change in MDS?

A

peripheral blood cytopenias

71
Q

How is acute MPD different than MDS?

A

blast cell in acute MPD is greater than 30%

72
Q

How is chronic MPD different than MDS?

A

in chronic MPD - leukocytosis is prominant

73
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

cancer in plasma cells in BM

74
Q

What type of lymphoproliferative disorder do dogs get?

A

multicentric

75
Q

What type of lymphoproliferative disorders do cats get?

A

alimentary, thymic

76
Q

What type of lymphoproliferative disorders do cattle get?

A

viral enzootic bovine leukosis

77
Q

What is the malignant type of multiple myeloma?

A

plasma cell myeloma

benign - plasmacytomas

78
Q

What are the signs of multiple myeloma?

A

monoclonal gammopathy
hypercalcemia
bence jones proteinuria

Clinical Pathology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions