Clin Path Midterm - PPTs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 conditions where IV and EV hemolysis occur concurrently?

A

Parasites
heinz bodies
RBCs with Abs

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2
Q

What are the 3 hemoglobulinopathies?

A

Sickle cell disease
Thalassemia (absence of parts of hemoglobin)
Anemia - impaired flexibility

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3
Q

Which breed can get a inherited deficiency of phosphofructokinase?

A

english springer spaniels

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4
Q

What breeds get a PK deficiency?

A

Basenji, beagles, cairn terriers

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5
Q

What type of PK causes less intravascular survival of RBCs?

A

R-type PK

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6
Q

What causes the problems associated with congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

inadequate Hb is produced

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

photosensitization, pink tooth, anemia

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8
Q

What breeds get congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

holstein, shorthorn

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9
Q

Is IMHA in dogs mostly extravascular or intravascular?

A

extravascular

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10
Q

What are the causes of secondary IMHA?

A

Drugs (penicillin and sulfa)
infection
neoplasia - hemangiosarcoma
transfusion reaction

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11
Q

Is immune mediated thrombocytopenia IV or EV?

A

extravascular

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12
Q

What are the causes of inappropriate RBC regeneration?

A

Lead poisoning
myeloproliferative dz
BM toxicity
Chronic hypoxia in animals with CHF

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13
Q

What is a major cross match?

A

recipient serum + donor RBCS

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14
Q

What is a minor cross match

A

donor serum + recipient RBCs

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15
Q

What are the life spans of transfused RBCs in domestic animals?

A

Cats - 5 weeks
Dogs - 3 weeks
Horses - 1 week
cattle - several days

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16
Q

What chemical should be added to transfused blood?

A

acid citrate dextrose

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17
Q

What are febrile, non hemolytic, transfusion rxns caused by?

A

WBC

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18
Q

What are the most immunogenic horse blood groups?

A

A and Q

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19
Q

What is the most immunogenic cow blood group?

A

J

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20
Q

What are the most immunogenic dog blood groups?

A

1.1 and 1.2

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21
Q

What happens when type A blood of cat is transfused to type B cat?

A

acute severe transfusion reaction

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22
Q

What happens when type B blood is transferred into type A cat?

A

rapid removal of RBCs

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23
Q

What anticoagulant is used for PTT and PT?

A

sodium citrate

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24
Q

What additive for platelet counts?

A

EDTA

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25
What hemostasis tests need blood from plain red tubes?
CT, ACT, CRT
26
What may a prolonged BMBT (BT) mean?
vascular or platelet quantity or quality vWFD purpura hemorrhagica
27
What does a clot lysis before 24 hours mean?
excess of fibrin degradation products (excess plasmin)
28
Platelets less than 30 means?
immune mediated thrombocytopenia
29
Platelets 50 to 90 means?
DIC
30
What coagulation test measures extrinsic pathway?
PT
31
What pathways does APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measure?
time it takes to form clot - intrinsic and common pathways
32
What test should be performed with APTT?
OSPT
33
What test is more sensitive, ACT or CT or PTT?
PTT>ACT>CT
34
What does CT (coagulation time) measure?
tube break - fibrin strand
35
What pathways does ACT (activated coagulation time)measure?
intrinsic and common
36
What can mess up the ACT test?
severe thrombocytopenia
37
What are the other names for PT test?
OSPT
38
What are other names for PTT test?
APTT, aPTT
39
What pathways does OSPT measure?
extrinsic and common
40
What does prolonged PIVKA indicate?
warfarin
41
What is more sensitive? PT or PIVKA?
PT
42
What is the best test indicator for DIC?
D-dimers
43
What disease is a horse with bleeding, low PCV, but coagulation tests are WRI?
purpura hemorrhagica
44
What are causes of prolonged TCT (thrombin clotting time)?
hypofibrinogenemia | dysfunction of fibrinogen
45
What does monoclonal gammopathy indicate?
multiple myeloma, take bone marrow aspirate
46
What should be seen when you put bone marrow on slide?
yellow floccules and blood
47
What should be examined in BM aspirate at 10x?
cellularity
48
What should be examined in BM aspirate at 40x?
proportions of percursor cells
49
What should be examined in BM aspirate at 100 X?
precursor lines, morphology, G/E ratio
50
What does a High G/normal E ratio mean?
inflammation
51
What does a normal G/low E ratio mean?
non-regenerative anemia
52
What does a small G/normal E ratio mean?
Leukopenia
53
What does Normal G/high E ratio mean?
anemia with regeneration
54
Which species have large granulocyte bone marrow storage pools?
dogs and cats
55
Which species have small granulocyte bone marrow storage pools?
horses and ruminants
56
What characterizes per acute inflammation leukogram?
leukopenia, neutropenia --> sepsis
57
What is a leukemoid reaction?
severe leukocytosis (50 to 100) that resembles leukemia
58
What can cause leukemoid reaction?
pyometra, chronic active peritonitis, H. canis, IMHA, neoplasms w/ necrosis
59
Which species get Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
cows, persian cats
60
What are the characteristics of reactive lymphocytes?
bigger, less dense, basophilic, (AKA immunocytes)
61
What characterizes typical inflammatory leukogram?
leukocytosis, left shift, neutrophilia
62
What characterizes typical stress leukogram?
lymphopenia
63
What characterizes excitement response leukogram?
leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, no left shift
64
What are the causes of MPD?
viral, drugs, chemicals, radiation
65
What characterizes acute MPD?
30% or more blast cells in bone marrow
66
What characterizes chronic MPD?
predominance of mature cells in BM
67
What species get myelomonocytic sarcoma most commonly?
dogs
68
What characterizes myelomonocytic sarcoma?
very high WBC count and blood smears with mature and blast cells
69
What are the frequent CBC changes in MPD?
non regenerative anemia leukocytosis blast cells in blood thrompocytopenia
70
What is a frequent blood change in MDS?
peripheral blood cytopenias
71
How is acute MPD different than MDS?
blast cell in acute MPD is greater than 30%
72
How is chronic MPD different than MDS?
in chronic MPD - leukocytosis is prominant
73
What is multiple myeloma?
cancer in plasma cells in BM
74
What type of lymphoproliferative disorder do dogs get?
multicentric
75
What type of lymphoproliferative disorders do cats get?
alimentary, thymic
76
What type of lymphoproliferative disorders do cattle get?
viral enzootic bovine leukosis
77
What is the malignant type of multiple myeloma?
plasma cell myeloma | benign - plasmacytomas
78
What are the signs of multiple myeloma?
monoclonal gammopathy hypercalcemia bence jones proteinuria