CLINICAL Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

What constitutes a legal document

A
Black pen
Legible
Date
Time
Nursing entry
Signed (name, designation)
Students must be countersigned 
Errors have single line
Accurate
Correct abbreviations
Correct notes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SOAP

A

Subjective data (patients POV)
Objective data (measurable)
Assessment (problem)
Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ISOBAR

A

Identification (you,team leader, patient)
Situation (reason for admission)
Observation (vitals)
Background (relevant history)
Assessment (current issues/problems)
Recommendations (where to from here, expected discharge date, further actions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

Desired or intended effect of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adverse effect

A

Unexpected, more severe effect of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Side effect

A

Secondary effect of he drug, usually predictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Peak plasma level

A

Highest concentration of a substance in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

The study in which the way drugs move through the body during absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.
(What the body does to the drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

The effect that the drug has on the body (what the drug does to the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cumulative effect

A

The increasing response to repeated doses of a drug that occurs when the rate of administration exceeds he rate of metabolism or excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Generic drug name

A

A drug name that isn’t protected by a trademark and usually describes the chemical structure of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chemical drug name

A

The name by which a chemist knows a drug, describes the constituents of the drug precisely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Trade drug name

A

Name given to a drug by the manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Absorption

A

The process by which a drug passed onto the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Metabolism

A

The process by which the body breaks down and converts medications into active substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Excretion

A

The process by which a drug is eliminated from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Distribution

A

The transportation of a drug from its site of absorption to its site of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
S2
S3
S4
S5
S6
S9
S10
A
2-pharmacy med
3-pharmacist only med
4-prescription only med
5-caution
6-poison
9-prohibited substance
10-such danger to health as warrant prohibition of sale, supply and use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What to do if you make a medication error

A

Check your person
Notify RN
Document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The routes of enteral medication administration

A
Oral
Sublingual
Buccal
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy 
Nasogastric tube
Inhalation
Per vaginal
Per rectal
Skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What mess can be administered via PEG and NG

A

Liquid mess
Dissolvable meds
Meds that are not enteric coated
Meds that are not slow/moderate release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
BD
TDS
QID
MANE
NOCTE
POST PRANDIAL
PRE PRANDIAL
A
BD - twice a day
TDS-three times a day
QID-four times a day
Mane- morning 
NOCTE- night
OD- once daily
Post PRANDIAL- after food
Pre PRANDIAL-before food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

7 points for a valid medication order

A
Right person 
Right drug
Right dose
Right date/time
Right frequency 
Doctor signature 
Right route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

6 rights of medication administration

A
Right person
Right dose
Right time
Right documentation
Right medication 
Right route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
4 extra rights
Right to refuse Right education Right reason Right response
26
Fluid volume deficit
Not enough fluid
27
Hypovolemia
Dehydration
28
Isotonic
Loss of water and electrolytes Water in equal proportions
29
Hypertonic
Loss of more water than electrolytes
30
Hypotonic
Loss of more electrolytes than water
31
Hypervolemia
Fluid overload
32
Third spacing
When fluid shifts from the vascular space to an area that is not ready accessible
33
Clinical signs of FVD
``` Tachycardia Hypotension Lethargy Dry mucous membrane Poor skin turgor ```
34
Clinical signs of FVE
``` Tachycardia Hypertension Cough;crackles;SOB Distended jugular vein Restlessness ```
35
Clinical signs of third spacing
Tachycardia Hypotension Cough;crackles SOB Peripheral oedema
36
Isotonic solutions
NaCl 0.9 | Hartmanns
37
Hypotonic solutions
NaCl 0.45%
38
Hypertonic solutions
5% dext 0.9% NaCl 3% NaCl
39
Extra cellular fluid (ECF)
Plasma; interstitial fluid and lymph/transcellular fluid Electrolytes; bicarbonate; sodium; chloride Plasma and interstitial fluid have the same electrolytes but plasma is a protein rich fluid and interstitial fluid contains little or no protein
40
Intercellular fluid (ICF)
Found within cells | Potassium and magnesium
41
Who is at risk of fluid imbalance?
Infants - they cannot express thirst or seek fluids; they have immature kidneys, cannot concentrate urine as well; larger total body surface area which increases insensible losses through skin and respirations Elderly- decrease in thirst sensation; decrease in the kidneys, ability to concentrate urine; decrease in response to hormones that regulate fluid and electrolytes; increased use of diuretics
42
Oedema
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressures to due FVE
43
Assessing oedema and interventions
``` 1+ barely detectable 2+ 2-4mm 3+ 5-7mm Interventions Elevate limb Mobilise ```
44
Normal urine output
0.5 ml/kg/hr
45
How often do you monitor PIVC? How often do you change PIVC? Why do we prime an IV?
Every hour Every 48-72 hours Prevents air embolism
46
What do you asses for an IVT?
Correct fluid Infusing rate Iv line PIVC - insertion date, what it looks like
47
Infiltration Signs and symptoms Nursing action
When Iv fluids leak into the surround tissues Painful, feels right, swollen, cool to touch Stop infusion, notify RN, remove IVC, document
48
Phlebitis Signs and symptoms Nursing action
Inflammation of the walls of the vein Painful, reddened area, warm to touch Stop infusion; notify RN; remove IVC; document
49
RENIN ANGIOTENSIN ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM
Dehydration occurs Decrease in BP sensed by the kidneys Renin is secreted by the kidney Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II Adrenal cortex is simulation to release aldosterone and vasoconstrict blood vessels =increased BP Aldosterone acts on kidneys to increase sodium reabsorption Urine volume decreases
50
Assessing level of consciousness is done by
Eye response Verbal response Motor response
51
The reticular activating system
Responsible for maintaining consciousness Function of the brain stem When the patient opens their eyes when you their name, it indicated their RAS is functioning
52
Awareness
The ability to perceive environmental stimuli and respond appropriately though thought and action
53
Obtundation
Arousable with stimulation, verbal responses limited to 1-2 words, can follow simple commands, otherwise appears drowsy Responds to painful stimuli appropriately
54
Stupor
Lies quietly with minimum spontaneous movement; generally unresponsive except to vigorous and repeated stimuli; incomprehensible sounds; responded appropriately to painful stimuli
55
CNIII oculamotor nerve VI abducens IV trochlear
Position of eyelid, pupil size, shape, reactivity, gaze, consensual reflex) Controls outward ocular movement Controls inward movement of the eyes
56
Nystagmus
Involuntary movement of the eye
57
Diplopia
Double vision
58
Aniscoria
Unequal pupils, normal in 17% of population to the eyes due to exposure to light
59
Photophobia
Experience of pain or discomfort to the eyes due to exposure to light
60
Consensual reflex
When a torch is shone into one eye, the contralateral pupil also constricts (NORMAL)
61
Dysphobia
Difficulty putting words together of difficulty comprehending speech, reading, writing