Clinical Exercise Physiology - Final Exam Review (2022).docx Flashcards
(248 cards)
1
Q
What are the different certifications for Clinical Exercise Physiology?
A
A minimum of a bachelor’s degree in exercise science (1700 hours of clinical experience) and a master’s in clinical exercise physiology (600 hours of clinical experience).
2
Q
What are the differences within the certifications for Clinical Exercise Physiology?
A
Clinical Exercise Physiologists (CEPs) need a master’s degree and must pass the ACSM CEP test. Exercise Physiologists (EPs) need a minimum bachelor’s degree and must pass the certification exam from ACSM.
3
Q
What are some diseases and conditions related to lack of exercise?
A
Cancer, cardiovascular disease (CVD), non-insulin dependent diabetes, mood and mental health.
4
Q
How do diseases related to lack of exercise relate to exercise levels?
A
Use it or lose it.
5
Q
What is expected from clinical exercise physiologists?
A
Retention and exercise.
6
Q
What are the health and fitness benefits of physical activity?
A
Cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength & endurance, musculoskeletal flexibility, body weight, caloric expenditure.
7
Q
What is self-efficacy?
A
The belief that an individual can perform a task.
8
Q
What is social support in relation to exercise adherence?
A
Cheering people on.
9
Q
What has been the traditional method for exercise prescription and promotion?
A
Lifestyle-based physical activity promotion focusing on home or community activities that include daily tasks.
10
Q
Why does the traditional method for exercise prescription have a low adherence rate?
A
Perceived lack of time.
11
Q
What is the ecological perspective in exercise behavior?
A
Everything in your surroundings influences your behavior, helping realize the barriers people face.
12
Q
What are some factors involved in exercise adherence?
A
Lack of time, social influence, community, public policy.
13
Q
What are some tips for overcoming barriers to physical activity?
A
Promote changes that can happen in the home.
14
Q
What are the different routes of administration for drugs?
A
IV, through the mouth/GI tract, through the skin, intramuscular.
15
Q
What are the 3 different phases of the drug effect?
A
- Pharmaceutical: how a drug is processed from administered state. 2. Pharmacokinetic: effect the body has on the drug. 3. Pharmacodynamic: effect of the drug molecule in the body.
16
Q
What is the keyhole concept?
A
A concept related to drug action.
17
Q
What is the therapeutic index?
A
Knowing what amount of a drug is therapeutic or toxic.
18
Q
What are the factors that modify drug response?
A
Age, body mass, food in GI tract, gender.
19
Q
Why is compliance important in drug therapy?
A
Finishing or taking drugs as prescribed allows the drug’s intended effects to perform properly.
20
Q
What are common medications and their effects on heart rate and blood pressure?
A
Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II receptor blockers, vasodilators.
21
Q
What are the essentials for a clinical evaluation?
A
General interview, exam, lab data, diagnostic tests, assessment, plan.
22
Q
What does the HPI involve?
A
It establishes a baseline of health for the patient and involves an interview that begins with the chief complaint.
23
Q
What is the OPQRSTA method?
A
O= onset, P= provocation/palliation, Q= quality, R= region/radiation, S= severity, T= timing, A= associated signs and symptoms.
24
Q
What does a physical examination entail?
A
Looking for abnormalities, patient complaints, auscultation, blood pressure, weight, gait, BMI, and infection.
25
What are some red flag indicators of clinical status?
Indicators that suggest a serious underlying condition.
26
What does peripheral edema indicate?
Heart failure: the heart is unable to efficiently pump blood and inefficient venous return.
27
What is the purpose of a GXT?
To evaluate chest pain to diagnose CAD and identify future risk or prognosis.
28
What are the absolute contraindications to GXT?
Certain abnormalities on resting ECG, unstable angina, decompensated heart failure, severe aortic stenosis.
29
What are the signs and symptoms of maximal effort during GXT?
Plateau in VO2, RER value > 1.1, blood lactate exceeds 8-10 mmol, PRE > 17, 85% of predicted HR.
30
What are the 5 components of physical fitness?
Cardiovascular endurance, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition, muscular strength.
31
What is HRR and how do you calculate it?
Calculate HR max (220-age), HRmax-HRrest, multiply by intensity, add that to HRrest.
32
What are the different forms of diabetes?
Type 1, Type 2, gestational diabetes.
33
What are the hormones of interest in diabetes?
Insulin: moves sugar from the blood into cells. Glucagon: stimulates liver to make glucose.
34
What are the complications and symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia?
Hypoglycemia: hunger, nervousness, irritability, fatigue, confusion. Hyperglycemia: frequent urination, increased thirst, blurry vision, dry mouth, fruity breath.
35
What are the causes of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia?
Hyperglycemia: body has too little insulin or insulin resistance. Hypoglycemia: too much insulin, diet, genetics.
36
What are the signs and symptoms for diabetes?
Frequent urination, fatigue, excessive thirst, itchy dry skin, hunger pangs.
37
How is obesity determined?
BMI > 30.
38
What is the difference between visceral fat and subcutaneous fat?
Visceral fat surrounds vital organs; subcutaneous fat is under the skin.
39
What are the roles of leptin, ghrelin, and neuropeptide Y?
Leptin: hormone that lets you feel full. Ghrelin: hormone that makes you feel hungry.
40
What is the set point theory?
The idea that the body has an ideal weight range it wants to be in.
41
What are the side effects of obesity?
CVD, type 2 diabetes.
42
What role does behavioral therapy play in weight loss?
Helps individuals utilize their state of mind to make changes and address emotional issues.
43
What are some examples of drugs prescribed to overweight individuals?
Phentermine (appetite suppressant), Qsymia (appetite suppression), Belviq (satiety enhancer).
44
What is the difference between idiopathic, essential, primary, and secondary hypertension?
Idiopathic: cause unknown. Essential: genetically based. Secondary: renal or endocrine.
45
What are the different stages of hypertension?
normal: 120/80
prehypertension: 120-139/80-89
stage 1: 140-159/90-99
stage 2: >=160/>=100
46
Why does hypertension occur as one gets older?
Vessels become rigid and stiff, making it difficult to adjust to changes in blood pressure.
47
How is blood pressure determined?
BP = CO x PR.
48
How does untreated hypertension lead to death?
Damages endothelium, which predisposes individuals to atherosclerosis, leading to heart attack or stroke.
49
What happens to blood vessels as one gets older?
Vessels become rigid and stiff, making it difficult to adjust to changes in blood pressure.
50
Which populations are at greater risk for hypertension?
Elderly and obese individuals.
51
How does untreated hypertension lead to death?
It damages the endothelium, which predisposes individuals to atherosclerosis, potentially leading to heart attack or stroke.
52
Why does hypertension cause endothelium damage?
High volume of blood causes imperfections in the wall, leading to atherosclerosis because plaque has places to catch on.
53
How is ventricular hypertrophy related to hypertension and heart failure?
Hypertension increases workload on the heart, leading to left ventricular hypertrophy, which could result in heart failure from excessive workload.
54
What are some signs and symptoms of hypertension?
Headache, dizziness, easy fatigue, palpitations.
55
What are some examples of drugs used to treat hypertension?
ACE inhibitors block aldosterone for excess sodium uptake; Ca channel blockers block cardiac muscle contraction; Beta blockers block epinephrine and norepinephrine.
56
What are some laboratory tests for hypertension besides blood pressure?
Blood pressure reading, two measurements over two or more visits, urinalysis, blood chemistry, ECG, hematocrit.
57
What are some anticipated responses during exercise for blood pressure?
Blood pressure will spike during exercise but then come back down.
58
What are lipoproteins and apolipoproteins?
Lipoproteins are complexes that transport lipids in the blood; apolipoproteins are the protein components of lipoproteins.
59
What is the difference between hypertriglyceridemia and postprandial lipemia?
Hypertriglyceridemia is excess triglycerides in the blood; postprandial lipemia refers to fat levels immediately after eating.
60
What is hyperlipoproteinemia?
A condition characterized by an excess of lipoproteins in the blood.
61
What are the functions of Lipoprotein Lipase and Hepatic Lipase?
Lipoprotein lipase breaks down triglycerides in lipoproteins; hepatic lipase is involved in the metabolism of lipoproteins.
62
Are there any different exercise responses in individuals with dyslipidemia?
No, there are no different exercise responses.
63
How much weight loss is recommended to help with dyslipidemia?
5-10% weight loss is recommended.
64
What are some lipid-lowering medications and their functions?
Statins reduce lipid synthesis in the liver; fibric acid decreases fatty acid size; nicotinic acids increase HDL and lower LDL.
65
How much exercise is needed to show changes in HDL levels?
One exercise bout can change HDL levels.
66
What are the risk factors associated with metabolic syndrome?
Obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance.
67
What is normal weight obesity and why does it occur as you age?
High body mass or waist circumference with excellent cardiovascular health, leading to increased risk for osteoporosis and sarcopenia.
68
Why has pediatric metabolic syndrome become an area of importance?
It puts children at risk for type 2 diabetes and heart disease as adults.
69
What is the role of insulin resistance in metabolic syndrome?
It causes hyperinsulinemia, increased lipogenesis, hypertriglyceridemia, and hypertension.
70
Why does insulin resistance increase the risk for metabolic syndrome?
It can raise blood pressure and triglyceride levels, leading to inflammation and ectopic adiposity.
71
What is ectopic adiposity?
Ectopic fat stores triglycerides in tissues that don't normally contain large amounts of fat, interfering with cellular functions.
72
What does it mean that adipose tissue is proinflammatory?
Adipose tissues cause inflammation due to elevated levels of inflammatory cytokines and hormones.
73
Why is metabolic syndrome under criticism?
It describes relative risk, differing predictive value, and includes individuals with established diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
74
What are some treatment goals for metabolic syndrome?
Weight loss (minimum of 10%), improvements in diet quality, participation in physical activity, and smoking cessation.
75
What are the different stages of renal disease?
Stage 1: GFR <= 90; Stage 2: GFR 60-88; Stage 3: GFR 30-59; Stage 4: GFR 15-29; Stage 5: GFR > 15.
76
What are the treatment plans for renal disease?
Hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and kidney transplant.
77
What are some side effects or complications of dialysis?
Hemodialysis is time-consuming; peritoneal dialysis is more invasive; transplant lists are long, and patients must take anti-rejection medications.
78
What are some diagnostic tests for renal disease?
Elevated serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, reduced GFR, blood tests, urinalysis, and CAT scans.
79
What are key areas to pay attention to when prescribing exercise for renal disease?
Peak O2 uptake is low, graded exercise testing is not helpful, and exercise should be on non-dialysis days.
80
Why is CHD the most common cause of death in the US?
Due to rising obesity rates.
81
What is atherosclerosis?
A buildup of plaque in vessels caused by obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia.
82
What are the risk factors for increased atherogenesis?
Endothelial injury, inflammatory response, tobacco smoke, LDL, and hypertension.
83
What are the three causes of ischemia?
Stenosis, occlusion, and reduced blood flow.
84
What is angina/unstable angina?
It is likely a result of transient vessel occlusion followed by spontaneous thrombolysis and vasorelaxation.
85
What occurs in a myocardial infarction?
Chest pain lasting more than 30 minutes, with ECG showing ST-segment elevation or T wave changes.
86
What are the treatment mechanisms for coronary syndromes?
Anti-ischemic therapy, oral and intravenous antiplatelet therapy, and reperfusion therapy.
87
What are the complications of acute myocardial infarction?
Arrhythmias and conduction abnormalities.
88
What are some pharmaceutical drugs used to treat cardiac problems?
Nitroglycerin, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, aspirin, and anticoagulants.
89
What is the ischemic cascade?
A series of interconnected events that occur within tissue when blood supply is significantly reduced, leading to cell death if not addressed.
90
What is the difference between infarction and ischemia?
Infarction is necrosis of cardiac myocytes from prolonged ischemia; ischemia is when a body part doesn't receive enough blood, leading to tissue damage.
91
Does an occlusion equal immediate infarction?
Not necessarily; however, if occlusion persists for more than one hour, it is the hallmark of acute myocardial infarction.
92
What is revascularization surgery?
Surgery to provide new or additional blood supply to a body part or organ.
93
What are the differences between CABS and PTCA?
CABS is bypassing a blockage; PTCA involves placing a stent.
94
What is the difference between HFREF and HFPEF?
HFREF is trouble emptying (systolic), while HFPEF is trouble filling (normal ejection fraction, diastolic).
95
What are some clinical symptoms of heart failure?
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, dyspnea on exertion, change in fatigue level, and fluid retention.
96
What are some anticipated responses in those with heart failure?
Decreased ejection fraction, decreased cardiac output, decreased stroke volume, increased heart rate at rest, and decreased oxygen saturation at submax and peak exercise.
97
When is a cardiac transplant recommended?
When survival rates are high, but complications include loss of cardiac autonomic fibers.
98
What is meant by PAD?
Blockage of leg arteries by plaque, resulting in stenosis or occlusion.
99
What is intermittent claudication?
Muscle pain that occurs during activity and stops with rest due to PAD.
100
What is critical limb ischemia?
Severe blockage in the arteries of the lower extremities and reduced blood flow.
101
What is the ABI test?
An office-based test that measures the ratio of ankle pressure to brachial pressure.
102
What populations are at higher risk for PAD?
Obese individuals or smokers.
103
What are the signs and symptoms of PAD?
Cramping, aching, tightening, and fatigue in the lower extremities.
104
What is meant by hemodynamic testing with the ABI test?
Normal ABI is >1; <0.5 indicates severe PAD; >1.3 indicates abnormal calcification.
105
What is the function of cilostazol?
It is used to treat intermittent claudication.
106
What is the overall exercise recommendation for those with intermittent claudication?
Walking up to 50 minutes, combining rest and exercise followed by decreased workload.
107
What is the purpose of a pacemaker?
To maintain a normal heart rate when the intrinsic electrical circuitry of the heart fails.
108
What are common indications for a pacemaker?
A heart rate that is too slow due to SA node dysfunction or conduction block in the AV node.
109
What occurs in an AV node or heart block?
The electrical signal is blocked, causing loss of AV synchrony.
110
What are the different types of pacemakers?
Temporary, single chamber permanent, and dual chamber permanent.
111
What is the importance of rate responsive pacing?
It senses the body's need for increased cardiac output.
112
How does rate responsive pacing work?
The pacemaker range allows for heart rate changes based on activity level.
113
What might be some positives and negatives for pacemaker usage?
Defibrillators can be placed with pacemakers; graded exercise testing is encouraged to determine pacemaker suitability for exercise.
114
What is classified as COPD?
A disease characterized by the presence of airflow obstruction attributable to chronic bronchitis or emphysema.
115
What is chronic bronchitis?
The presence of a productive cough most days during three consecutive months for two successive years.
116
What is emphysema?
Abnormal permanent enlargement of respiratory bronchioles and alveoli.
117
How is spirometry used to help determine COPD?
A reduction in FEV1 is a strong predictor of mortality rate.
118
What are the different stages of COPD based on the FEV1/FVC ratios?
1: FEV1 >= 50% of predicted (mild); 2: FEV1 between 35-49% (moderate); 3: FEV1 < 35% (severe).
119
What is FEV1 and how does it relate to FVC?
FEV1 is forced expiratory volume in one second, and FVC is forced vital capacity. Their ratio is used to assess lung function.
120
What are the different stages of COPD based on the FEV1/FVC ratios?
1: FEV1 >= 50% of predicted; mild. 2: FEV1 between 35-49%; moderate. 3: FEV1 <35% predicted.
121
How does hyperinflation of the lungs relate to dyspnea?
Hyperinflation can lead to difficulty in breathing, causing dyspnea.
122
How does COPD cause skeletal muscle dysfunction?
COPD leads to a reduction in type 1 fibers and an increase in type 2 fibers in the quadriceps, limiting aerobic exercise and causing atrophy of type 1 fibers.
123
What are the exercise responses in COPD patients?
Refer to Table 19.2.
124
What therapies have been used to help COPD?
Oxygen therapy and pharmacological therapy.
125
What are the different pharmacological therapies used for COPD?
Steroids (dilators), beta 2 agonists (bronchodilators).
126
How is asthma related to COPD?
Asthma is not chronic and is often caused by allergies or exercise.
127
What is the physiology of asthma?
Asthma involves inflammation in medium-sized bronchi, structural changes, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and mucus hypersecretion.
128
What factors cause asthma?
Host factors: genetic, obesity, gender. Environmental factors: allergens, infections, smoke, air pollution, diet.
129
What roles do CD4 lymphocytes, eosinophils, and mast cells play in asthma?
These cells are involved in the inflammatory response that characterizes asthma.
130
How is spirometry used to diagnose asthma?
FEV1 (<80% of predicted), FEV1/FVC <65% predicted, flow volume loop.
131
Is exercise testing required for individuals with asthma?
Typically reserved for unusual declines in exercise tolerance.
132
What considerations need to be made for exercise training in asthma?
Individuals are sensitive to changes in air temperature and humidity.
133
What medications are used for asthma?
Corticosteroids, immunomodulators, leukotriene modifiers, long-lasting beta agonists, methylxanthines.
134
What is cystic fibrosis and what are its symptoms?
CF can be misdiagnosed as asthma, bronchitis, or pneumonia due to similar symptoms.
135
What gene is CF located on and what change does it cause?
Chromosome 7; it produces CFTR, a protein that functions as a chloride channel.
136
What is CFTR and what does it do?
CFTR is a protein that functions as a chloride channel, causing symptoms of CF.
137
What diseases are related to CF?
Hemoptysis, nocturnal headaches or cyanosis, pulmonary hypertension, right heart failure.
138
What are the effects of CF on various body systems?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency leads to malabsorption of nutrients, sinus infections, CF-related diabetes, bone disease, and salty sweat.
139
What role do oxyhemoglobin saturation, hypoxemia, and scoliosis play in CF?
Saturation is lower due to impaired gas exchange from elevated mucus levels. Hypoxia leads to lung function decline and increased inflammation. Scoliosis affects lung filling.
140
What diagnostic tests can be used to screen for CF?
Genetic testing, chest X-ray, sputum culture, chest CT, liver function tests.
141
What exercise special considerations need to be noted for CF?
Monitor pulse oximetry and use ECG at baseline maximal aerobic exercise.
142
What drugs help with CF?
Mucolytics, bronchodilators, anti-inflammatories, antibiotics.
143
What are some anticipated responses to exercise in the CF population?
Pneumothorax.
144
What is the term neoplasm?
Abnormal growth of tissue.
145
What does the term metastasize mean?
The ability to spread to other body parts.
146
What are some risk factors that affect cancer?
Cancer affects all genders, ages, and ethnicities equally.
147
What role do stem cells have in causing cancer?
Stem cells can contribute to the development of cancerous cells.
148
What are the five broad categories for causing cancer?
Environment, heredity, oncogenes, hormones, impaired immune system function.
149
What are oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
Oncogenes promote cancer, while tumor suppressor genes inhibit it.
150
What are the components of the immune system related to cancer?
Components include lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells, which can recognize and destroy cancer cells.
151
What is the adaptive vs the acquired immune system?
The adaptive immune system develops a response to specific pathogens, while the acquired immune system is the body's long-term defense.
152
How does estrogen play a role in cancer?
Estrogen presence could potentially accelerate cancer cell growth.
153
What are the four types of cancer?
Carcinoma (epithelial cells), sarcoma (connective tissues), leukemia (white blood cells), lymphoma (lymphatic system).
154
What are the signs and symptoms of cancer?
Weight loss, fatigue, nausea, malaise.
155
How can cancer be diagnosed?
Through biopsy of tissue or tumor.
156
What are the different treatment plans for cancer?
Surgery to excise tumors, biotherapy to stimulate immune response, chemotherapy to minimize cancer cells, radiation to damage DNA in cells.
157
What are the preferences for different treatment plans?
Based on the stage, type, and location of cancer.
158
What is the difference between AIDS and HIV?
HIV is defined as having >= 200 CD4 cells; AIDS is the later stage with < 200 CD4 cells.
159
What type of virus is HIV?
HIV is a retrovirus that takes over cells and duplicates itself, leading to the destruction of the immune system.
160
What is HAART and how does it relate to HIV treatment?
HAART reduces RNA and DNA replication of the HIV virus.
161
What are the different stages of HIV?
1: CD4 count >= 500 cells, 2: CD4 count 200-499, 3: AIDS, CD4 count <200.
162
What are the primary routes of HIV infection?
Infection occurs through bodily fluids and IV drug use; it is not transferred by insects, saliva, or sweat.
163
What are the signs and symptoms of HIV?
Sore throat, fever, fatigue.
164
What is meant by wasting in individuals with HIV?
Wasting refers to significant weight loss.
165
What complications can arise from HIV?
Changes in glucose, lipid levels, and insulin resistance.
166
What is lipodystrophy?
Loss of subcutaneous fat deposits in arms, legs, and face, with an increase in visceral fat.
167
What is cardiac dysfunction in HIV?
Cardiac dysfunction can lead to arrhythmias.
168
What exercise precautions need to be taken for individuals with HIV?
High fatigue, assess for orthopedic complications, test early in the morning.
169
What are the complications of HAART regimens?
Assess for HAART-related orthopedic complications, test early in the morning.
170
How do the drugs that treat HIV work?
They inhibit viral replication and help manage symptoms.
171
What is the general description of arthritis?
Arthritis is characterized by inflammation of the joints.
172
What are the signs and symptoms of arthritis?
Joint pain, swelling, stiffness, and decreased range of motion.
173
What are some common negative features affected by arthritis?
Joint damage and loss of function occur due to inflammation.
174
What is crepitus, effusion, and bone spurs?
Crepitus is a crackling sound, effusion is swelling in the joint, and bone spurs are bony projections that develop along joint margins.
175
What populations are most affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Women are more commonly affected.
176
How does rheumatoid arthritis occur?
It is a chronic autoimmune disorder that causes systemic inflammation affecting synovial joints.
177
What is ankylosis?
Ankylosis is the fusion of bones in a joint.
178
What are the three levels of arthritis?
Acute: reversible signs and symptoms. Chronic: stable but irreversible structural damage. Chronic with acute exacerbation: increased pain and decreased range of motion.
179
What are the general exercise goals for those with arthritis?
Small workloads and increments; cycle ergometry is preferred.
180
What are some site-specific recommendations for exercise for those with arthritis?
Consider joint protection and pain management strategies.
181
What specific factors need to be considered for exercise?
Time of day, aquatic exercise, footwear, cardio/pulmonary health, spondylitis, corticosteroids, body composition, etc.
182
What is the difference between osteoporosis and osteopenia?
Osteopenia is a less severe form of osteoporosis.
183
How are osteoporosis and osteopenia determined?
Through bone density measurements.
184
What stages does bone remodeling consist of?
Bone remodeling consists of resorption and formation stages.
185
What is meant by trabecular, cortical, and peak bone mass/density?
Cortical refers to the outer bone covering; trabecular refers to the inner bone tissue.
186
How are osteoblasts and osteoclasts related?
Osteoclasts break down bone (stimulated by PTH), while osteoblasts build bone (stimulated by calcitonin).
187
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
Caucasian or Asian descent, female gender, height <67 inches, weight <127 lbs, early menopause, estrogen deficiency, amenorrhea, inactivity.
188
How is bone mineral content determined?
Through DXA scans, measuring bone mineral content per unit area.
189
What are nonpharmacological and pharmacological ways to slow the loss of bone mass?
Calcium and vitamin D supplementation, weight-bearing activities.
190
What hormonal therapies alter osteoporosis?
Calcitonin, PTH, SERMs, estrogen therapy.
191
Why do hormonal therapies work?
Estrogen plays a role in maintaining bone density.
192
What is the prevalence of non-specific low back pain (NSLBP)?
Annual rates of 14-93%, peaking between ages 45 and 60.
193
Why does NSLBP occur?
It is often a symptom without an identifiable cause, possibly due to nerve root compression.
194
What is meant by herniation, ankylosing spondylitis, red flags, secondary prevention, and primary prevention?
These terms relate to conditions and strategies for managing low back pain.
195
What steps can be taken to increase prevention rates for NSLBP?
Engaging in regular exercise and maintaining good posture.
196
What is the difference between yellow and red flags?
Yellow flags indicate psychosocial factors that may affect recovery; red flags indicate serious underlying conditions.
197
What methods help determine the cause of NSLBP?
MRI and X-rays.
198
What are the treatment plans for NSLBP?
Medication, exercise, passive modalities, facet joint injections, surgery.
199
What do terms like spinal traction and spinal discectomy mean?
Spinal traction relieves pressure on the spine; spinal discectomy involves removing a herniated disc.
200
What are some primary and secondary prevention strategies for NSLBP?
Primary: education and lifestyle changes. Secondary: early intervention and rehabilitation.
201
What is spinal cord injury (SCI)?
SCI affects the conduction of neural signals across the site of the injury or lesion.
202
What is the difference between tetraplegia and quadriplegia?
Tetraplegia refers to dysfunction of the arms; quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four limbs.
203
How is paraplegia different from tetraplegia?
Paraplegia affects only the lower limbs.
204
Why are men at higher risk for SCI?
Men often engage in riskier behaviors leading to injuries.
205
What are the different degrees of impairment in SCI?
They are classified as complete or incomplete based on the preservation of sensory or motor function.
206
What are the different segments of the spinal cord?
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar.
207
What effect does an injury to the C4 section of the spine have?
It results in quadriplegia and complete paralysis below the neck.
208
Why are orthostatic hypotension and autonomic dysreflexia important in SCI?
They relate to the body's inability to send appropriate signals due to disrupted autonomic nervous system function.
209
Why are pulmonary ventilation and other systems impaired in SCI individuals?
The autonomic nervous system is disrupted, affecting various bodily functions.
210
What comorbid diseases are common in SCI patients?
Endocrine response issues, osteopenia, respiratory issues, CAD, PAD, type 2 diabetes.
211
How might functional electrical stimulation (FES) help with exercise?
FES can stimulate muscle contractions to aid in rehabilitation.
212
Why is temperature regulation important in exercise for those with SCI/tetraplegia?
Individuals may have impaired ability to regulate body temperature, increasing the risk of heat-related illnesses.
213
What is the standard explanation of why multiple sclerosis (MS) occurs?
The cause is unknown, but it is characterized by nerve demyelination.
214
Why is MS considered an autoimmune response?
The immune system mistakenly attacks the myelin sheath surrounding nerves.
215
What types of cells are responsible for myelin destruction in MS?
T cells.
216
What are the four stages of MS?
They are characterized by varying degrees of disability and symptom severity.
217
What is meant by optic neuritis, nystagmus, and paresthesia?
These are symptoms related to MS affecting vision and sensation.
218
What are the characteristics of muscle spasticity?
Muscle spasticity involves increased muscle tone and involuntary contractions.
219
What are common symptoms of MS?
Optic neuritis, nystagmus, muscle weakness, muscle spasticity, fatigue, depression, numbness, tingling pain, muscle spasms.
220
What scales and tests are used to rate MS symptoms?
Various clinical scales assess disability and symptom severity.
221
What diagnostic tests are used to determine MS?
Medical history, neurological exam, MRI, cerebrospinal fluid analysis, blood tests.
222
Why might exercise testing be beneficial for those with MS?
It provides baseline measures for future comparisons and helps assess individual responses.
223
What are the treatment plans for MS?
Physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech pathology.
224
What is the current drug that may help with MS?
Various disease-modifying therapies are available to manage symptoms.
225
What is meant by diplegia, hemiplegia, quadriplegia, choreathetosis, and ataxia?
Ataxia refers to a lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements.
226
What are the most common risk factors for cerebral palsy (CP)?
Premature birth, low birth weight, maternal infections, drug abuse, birth anoxia.
227
What are the signs and symptoms of CP?
Developmental delays, abnormal muscle tone, abnormal posture, movement issues, speech difficulties.
228
What are the associated and secondary conditions common in CP?
Incontinence, intellectual disabilities, osteoporosis, hip dislocation, dysphagia, GERD, drooping.
229
What changes occur to gait and postural movements in CP?
Gait may be affected by muscle tone and coordination issues.
230
What tests/measurements assess gait and spasticity?
Clinical assessments and standardized tests are used.
231
What is the ICF model and how does it help those with CP?
The ICF model provides a framework for understanding health and disability.
232
What are the nonpharmacological treatments for CP?
Electrical stimulation and physical therapy.
233
What are some higher risk diseases associated with certain conditions?
Incontinence, intellectual disabilities, osteoporosis, hip dislocation, dysphagia, GERD, drooping chemical or bacterial pneumonia.
## Footnote
Secondary conditions include cardiovascular and cardiopulmonary conditions, communication disorders.
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What changes occur to gait and postural movements?
Changes in gait and postural movements can vary based on the underlying condition.
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What are some tests/measurements to assess gait and spasticity?
Tests include various clinical assessments and measurements specific to gait and spasticity.
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What is the ICF model and how does it help those with CP?
The ICF model provides a framework for understanding the impact of health conditions on functioning and disability.
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What are the nonpharmacological treatments for CP?
E-stim, assistive technology devices (ATDs), neuromuscular electrical stimulation, orthotics, walkers, wheelchairs, physical therapy (PT), occupational therapy (OT), speech therapy.
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What are the pharmacological treatments for CP?
Pharmacological treatments may include various medications tailored to individual needs.
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How might surgical treatments help those with CP?
Surgical treatments can address specific physical impairments and improve function.
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What is the classical definition of a stroke?
A stroke is defined as a sudden loss of brain function due to a disturbance in the blood supply to the brain.
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Who is at greatest risk for strokes?
Men are generally at greater risk for strokes, along with factors like age and ethnicity.
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What are ischemic, thrombotic, embolic, and hemorrhagic strokes?
Thrombotic: occlusive thrombus develops in or outside an ulcerated plaque. Embolic: from the carotid or other arteries that travel to the brain and lodge into a smaller cerebral artery or arteriole. Hemorrhagic: excessive bleeding in a cerebral artery, often due to hypertension. Ischemic: blood clot seals off a narrowed artery.
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What are the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Signs and symptoms include memory loss and paralysis.
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What is the hemiplegic gait and why is it important?
The hemiplegic gait is a walking pattern characterized by weakness or paralysis on one side of the body.
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What are the benefits of an MRI vs CT scan in stroke assessment?
MRI can assess occlusions that lead to ischemic stroke, while CT scans have been the primary test.
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What is an endarterectomy?
An endarterectomy is a surgical procedure to remove plaque buildup from arteries to restore normal blood flow.
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What types of drugs are given to stroke patients?
Drugs include anticoagulants, antiplatelets, calcium channel blockers, and diuretics, prescribed to manage stroke risk and recovery.
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What are the primary goals for physical therapy after a stroke?
Goals include improving flexibility, strength, balance, and coordination.
