Clinical Pathology Flashcards
(255 cards)
1
Q
Prevailing cause of Chyluria
A
Wuchereria bancrofti (filariasis)
2
Q
Main determinant of urine volume
A
Water intake
3
Q
Two most commonly utilized testing modalities for indirect assessment of Bacteriuria and Leukocyturia
A
Reagent strip nitrite (bacteriuria) and Leukocyte esterase (leukocyturia)
4
Q
Gold standard for detecting bacteriuria
A
Bacteriologic culture
5
Q
Best reserved and most useful for those samples with abnormal dipstick results
A
Examination of the urine sediment
6
Q
Most frequent epithelial cells seen in normal urine and the least significant
A
Squamous epithelial cells
7
Q
Most common form of pleural effusion in the newborn
A
idiopathic congenital chylothorax
8
Q
Most useful single marker for adenocarcinoma
A
CEA
9
Q
Most common etiologic agent of pericardial effusions
A
Enterovirus
10
Q
Most reliable method to differentiate peritoneal transudates from exudates
A
serum-ascites albumin gradient
11
Q
Preferred method for the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
A
Ascitic fluid total neutrophil count
12
Q
Most common association of eosinophilia in a peritoneal fluid
A
Chronic inflammatory process associated with chronic peritoneal dialysis
13
Q
Most clinically significant antibodies detected during antibody screening
A
IgG
14
Q
Most important function of polyspecific AHG
A
detection of IgG antibodies
15
Q
Gold standard of measuring total body water
A
Tritiated water or Deuterium oxide
16
Q
Most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the extracellular space
A
Hyaluronic acid
17
Q
Main solutes in the Extracellular fluid (3)
A
Na, Cl, and HCO3
18
Q
Main solutes in the Intracellular fluid (Cell) (4)
A
-K,
-Mg,
-PO4, and
-Protein
19
Q
Main Phosphate in RBC
A
2,3-DPG
20
Q
Main Phosphates in muscle (2)
A
ATP and Creatinine Phosphate
21
Q
Main determinant of specific gravity of plasma
A
Protein
22
Q
Chief determinant of how much ECF is retained
A
Effective vascular volume
23
Q
Most important natriuretic peptide hormone for the renal excretion of sodium
A
Urodilatin
24
Q
Main regulator of ADH secretion
A
Osmolality
25
Main determinant of the extracellular volume
Salt content of the body
26
Main source of energy for sodium reabsorption at all nephron segments
Basolateral Na-K ATPase
27
Best indicator of anemia
Low RBC count or number of RBC per volume of whole blood
28
Excellent indicator of hemolytic anemia
Elevated carbon monoxide levels in normocytic, normochromic anemia
29
Most common cause of macrocytic anemia
Nutritional deficiency such as Vitamin B12 and/or Folate
30
Most common cause of an elevated WBC
Infection
31
Definitive diagnosis of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
demonstration of Philadelphia chromosome (i.e. the BCR/c-abl translocation between Chr 9 and 22 by either cytogenetics or molecular techniques)
32
Major cause of elevated PT and aPTT
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
33
Chief counter ion for sodium
Chloride
34
Four analytes that aid in the diagnosis of renal disease
BUN, Creatinine, Calcium, and Phosphate
35
Most abundant cation in the body
Calcium
36
Best measure of hypocalcemia, normocalcemia, or hypercalcemia
serum levels of ionized calcium
37
Three blood gas determinants interdependent by the Henderson-Hasselbach equation
PCO2, pH, and bicarbonate
38
Most common cause of metabolic alkalosis
Vomiting
39
hallmark of Pulmonary embolus
marked drop in the PO2
40
Most accurate method of diagnosing and monitoring treatment of diabetes mellitus
measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HgbA1C)
41
Only tissue in the body that can metabolize ammonia
Liver
42
It is the measurement of the reduction in light transmission caused by particle formation
Turbidimetry
43
This is the term used for detecting light that is scattered at various angles; wherein scattered light yields a small signal that must be amplified
Nephelometry
44
This is the term used to measure the concentration of a substance by measuring the change of the angle of light as it passes from one medium to another of different concentrations
Refractometry
45
antibody typically associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis
c-ANCA
46
most important test for diagnosing systemic necrotizing vasculitis
Tissue biopsy
47
third copy of the CCF (Custody and Control Form) goes to the
confirmatory laboratory
48
Positive drug test records of a drug testing facility are stored for how long?
stored indefinitely
49
a form of cytapheresis that removes the patient’s red blood cells and replaces them with allogeneic red blood cells
Red cell exchange (RCE) or therapeutic erythrocytapheresis
50
Red cell exchange (RCE) or therapeutic erythrocytapheresis is most commonly used in the treatment of
sickle cell disease
51
Requirements of allogeneic donor qualification for blood pressure
-<180 mm Hg systolic
-<100 mm Hg diastolic
52
Conventionally, what is the unit used to express renal clearance
mL/minute
53
Flocculation procedures differ from latex agglutination procedures because:
Soluble antigen reacts with antibody
54
Protein can be separated into _____ fractions by use of serum electrophoresis
Five (5)
55
In measuring lipids, how long should you advise the patient to fast before venipuncture?
12 hours
56
The circulating half life of N-Brain natriuretic peptide is:
60-120 min.
57
staining procedure utilized in detecting the presence of telomeres of chromosomes. This special stain produces an opposite banding pattern in relation to the routinely used stain.
R-banding
R stands for reverse.
58
HPV-related cervical carcinogenesis is brought about primarily by inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins, specifically pRB and p53. Which gene(s) are responsible for these inactivation?
E6 and E7
-E6 inactivates p53
-E7 inactivates pRB
59
After fecal DNA extraction, the purified DNA products are added to the PCR mastermix containing several primers, with the aim of detecting a specific etiologic agent (e.g. E. coli, Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Vibrio spp., etc.). Which specific test best describes the above procedure?
Multiplex PCR
-A single PCR step with multiple primers used
60
The most commonly used method to determine the relatedness of two or more bacterial strains
pulse-field gel electrophoresis
61
Most common cause of agranulocytosis
Drug-Induced
62
Serious infection is very likely once neutrphil count falls below _ per cc
500
63
Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of
Thrombin
64
The substance active in splitting fibrin, fibrinogen and fragments is
Plasmin
65
In cerebrospinal fluid examination, microbiologic examination is usually done in which tube
Tube 2
66
In the grading of sperm motility, what grade do you assign for sperm cells with slow forward progression and noticeable lateral movement?
Grade 2
67
In mycology, what does dimorphic mean?
displaying two morphologic types:
-one environmental (mould) and
-one in vivo (yeast)
68
in spectrophotometry, the device that allows for a narrow band of wavelength is
Monochromator
69
This parameter of a diagnostic test will vary with the prevalence of a disease in a population
Accuracy
70
National Blood Service Act of 1994
RA 7719
71
Higher Education Act of 1994
RA 7722
72
Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998
RA 8504
73
PRC Modernization Act of 2000
RA 8981
74
It is the removal of microorganisms to a certain level as not to be able to infect humans and cause disease (WHO)
Decontamination
75
eliminates nearly all recognized pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily all microbial forms (e.g., bacterial spores) on inanimate objects
Disinfection
76
Free of microorganisms
Sterilization
77
reduce the level of microbial contamination so that infection transmission is eliminated
Decontamination
78
consists of evaluation of method performance by comparison of results versus those of other laboratories for the same samples
Proficiency testing
79
Definition of Oliguria in adults
<400 mL/day
80
A negative reagent strip test but a positive Clintest result in can be interpreted as:
Presence of non-glucose reducing sugars
81
This test for fetal lung maturity uses increasing amount of 95% ethanol wherein fetal lung maturity index is seen in highest concentration of ethanol that supports ring of foam after shaking
Foam stability test or Shake test
82
Parasite associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency
Diphyllobotrium latum
83
produce small yeast-like cells often found in macrophages (yeast form) and tuberculate macroconidia for its mold form
Histoplasma capsulatum
84
produce barrel-shaped arthroconidia (mold form) and thick-walled spherules with endospores (yeast form)
Coccidioides immitis
85
produce thick walled yeasts, with multiple budding yeast cells with very narrow necks (like a mariner’s wheel) and hyphae with intercalary and terminal chlamydoconidia
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
86
Mold form appear like a lollipop (conidia on top of a conidiophore)
Blastomyces dermatitidis
87
a rickettsial infection that is primarily transmitted by the larval form of Leptotrombidium species (chiggers)
Scrub typhus
88
Causative agent of Scrub typhus
Orientia tsutsugamushi
89
Causative agent of Epidemic typhus
Rickettsia prowazekii
90
Causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
91
Causative agent of Human monocytotropic ehrlichiosis
Ehrlichia chafeensis
92
Causative agent of Murine typhus
Rickettsia typhi
93
Epidemic typhus is transmitted by:
Body louse (Pediculus humanus var. corporis)
94
RMSF is transmitted by
Ixodidae ticks (tick borned disease)
95
Human monocytotropic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by:
Tick bite
96
Murine typhus is transmitted by
Flea bite (Xenopsylla cheopis)
97
recommended method for the detection of non-LGV C. trachomatis infection
in urogenital specimens
Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
98
recommended for diagnosis of suspected sexual assault or abuse in boys or extragenital sites in girls
Cell culture
99
Recommended for diagnosis of ocular chlamydial infection
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
100
most commonly used therapeutic target that can be interrogated by flow cytometry in acute myeloid leukemia
CD33
101
allows for the screening of several different mutations at one time by putting probes specific for different mutations on the membrane and then hybridizing a labeled patient DNA sample to the membrane
Reverse dot blot
102
The fluorescent dye that exhibits the greatest sensitivity for quantization of DNA is
SYBR Green
103
This determines the amount of current and the movement of the proteins for a fixed voltage in electrophoresis
Ionic strength of the buffer
104
defined electrophoretically as the fraction that migrates in a position faster than albumin toward the anode
Prealbumin
105
The single most abundant protein in normal plasma, usually constituting up to two- thirds of total plasma protein
Albumin
106
Liver enzyme that is more specific for detecting liver disease in nonalcoholic, asymptomatic patients
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) / Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT)
107
Liver enzyme that is most often used for monitoring therapy with potentially hepatotoxic drugs
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) / Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
108
the product usually measured to provide the result in assays for AST and ALT
NADH
109
In this method, the immunoreaction and/or systemic reaction is carried out in one solution, which includes the reagent for signal development of enzyme
Homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
110
gold standard in diagnosis of Syphilis, and should be positive, even after treatment
FTA-ABS
111
a type of precipitation immunoassay that allows visualization of whether two antigens are identical, not identical or partially identical
Ouchterlony double diffusion testing
112
a chronic idiopathic condition found predominantly in older patients presenting with acrocyanosis and Reynaud Phenomenon
Idiopathic Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
113
According to the US-FDA Advisory Panel consensus, the approved shelf life of additive solutions (Adsol, Nutricel, Optisol) is:
42 days
114
Characterized by defective red cell membrane proteins spectrin and ankyrin
Hereditary Spherocytosis
115
Hereditary spherocytosis on PBS reveal red cells that are spherical which lack central pallor, and they show increased osmotic fragility when placed in?
Hypotonic salt solutions
116
Most common cause of anemia in hospitalized patients
Anemia of chronic disease
117
This anemia is characterized by high levels of hepcidin, responsible for blocking the transfer of iron to erythroid precursors
Anemia of chronic disease
118
In β-thalassemia, an individual who inherits one abnormal allele (out of two) has this condition:
β-thalassemia minor
119
Vitamins (2) that can falsely lower HbA1c levels by inhibiting glycosylation
Vitamins C and E
120
most common mutation of the GALT gene
Q188R mutation on chromosome 9
121
This colligative property of a solution is increased/elevated as its osmolality is increased
Boiling point
122
This analytic technique in electrochemistry measures the quantity of electricity needed to convert an analyte to a different oxidation state
Coulometry
123
This plastic is commonly used in the laboratory, is chemically resistant, and can be autoclaved
Polypropylene
124
Acute transfusion reaction is defined as a reaction in which signs and symptoms present within ____ hours of a transfusion
24 hrs
125
In immune mediated acute hemolytic reaction, a small volume of incompatible blood, as little as _____, can cause hemolysis
10 mL
126
generally used in comparison of data between two variables by calculating the straight line fit
Linear regression
127
Linear regression is calculated using what equation
y = a + bx
where:
a - intercept
b - slope
128
These are the vertical distance between the data points and the best fit line
Residuals
129
This is used to describe the relationship between the two methods
Correlation coefficient (r)
130
This procedure determines the total allowable error in a specific test that represents the probability of providing an erroneous result which can lead to risk or harm of the patient
Sigma metric
131
This is used for method evaluation between laboratories
Proficiency testing or External Quality Assessment
132
Rules that evaluate quality control results as acceptable or not
Westgard rules
133
Most optimal pH to use in thin smears for the visualization of cytoplasmic inclusions in malarial species
pH 7.0-7.2
134
Most straightforward diagnostic method used when acute rubella (German measles) is suspected in a pregnant woman
assay of maternal serum for rubella IgM by EIA or IFA
135
Pigmented conidia, spores, or hyphae due to the presence of melanin
Phaeoid or Dematiaceous
136
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), also called heparin- induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis, is an adverse effect of treatment with
Unfractionated heparin
137
This oncogenic protein has been identified in more than 90% of pancreatic cancers and therefore is considered a major causative factor in this disease
ras-p21
138
Non-branching non-spore-forming gram positive intracellular rod, β hemolytic on Blood agar plate, and shows tumbling motility at room temperature
Listeria monocytogenes
139
Gene responsible for Penicillin resistance among community-acquired MRSA
mecA gene
140
Optical interferences caused by lipemia may be eliminated by
Ultracentrifugation
141
Decreased water content in a specimen may be erroneously reported as having a decreased amount of analyte
Solvent exclusion effect
142
most important ion in a single enzyme reverse transcriptase PCR that uses Thermus thermophilus DNA polymerase
Manganese
143
In this method, the immunoreaction includes washing steps for separation, and an additional reagent is added for the enzyme reaction
Heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay
144
In radioimmunoassay, which emissions are measured?
Gamma rays and Beta rays
145
Isolated elevations in Alkaline Phosphatase and LDH are most compatible with:
Space occupying lesions in the Liver
146
Most common method for comparison of a continuous variable between groups
Student t-Test
147
This pear-shaped parasite has a spiral groove on its ventral surface as well as stiff, rotary movement
Chilomastix mesnili
148
Male/Female:
A hookworm with a fan-shaped copulatory bursa at its posterior end
Male
149
a medium used to test aerotolerance of bacteria
Thioglycollate broth
150
Recommended coagulant for coagulation tests
Sodium Citrate 3.2%
151
-CD5 positive
-dim CD20 and surface immunoglobulin
-CD23 positive
CLL
152
The normal size of erythrocytes usually falls within this range
6-8 um
153
Particle found within the cytoplasm of red cells which is actually smooth, round remnants of nuclear chromatin, usually seen in megaloblastic anaemia, haemolytic anaemia, and in post-splenectomy patients
Howell-Jolly Body
154
irregularly spiculated red cells in which the ends of the spicules are bulbous and rounded and are usually seen in abetalipoproteinemia and in certain cases of liver disease
Acanthocytes
155
method susceptible to the solvent displacing effect that results in falsely decreased electrolyte values
Indirect ion-selective electrodes
156
The buffer pH most effective at allowing amphoteric protein to migrate toward the cathode in an electrophoretic system
pH 4.5
157
Principle of the PO2 electrode
Amperometry
158
Most commonly used method for clinical and epidemiologic measurement of plasma triglycerides
Hydrolysis
159
An enzyme present in skeletal but not in cardiac muscle, hence it can serve as a sort of "negative" cardiac marker. It is released from damaged muscle at a fairly fixed ratio to myoglobin
Carbonic anhydrase III
160
Clinical Laboratory Law
RA 4688
161
Sanitation Code of the Philippines
PD 856
162
Labor Code
PD 442
163
It consists of the detailed, day-to-day operations needed to meet the immediate needs of the laboratory
Tactical Planning
164
It can be defined as
1) deciding on the objectives of the organization and the need to modify existing objectives if appropriate;
2) allocating resources to attain these objectives; and 3) establishing policies that govern the acquisition, use, and disposition of these resources
Strategic Planning
165
most commonly defined as the range of values into which 95% of nondiseased individuals will fall; this definition implies that 5% of nondiseased individuals can have laboratory results outside the reference range
Reference intervals
166
the probability of a positive result in a person with the disease (true-positive rate).
Sensitivity
167
Confirmatory tests require high ___ to be certain of the diagnosis
High SPECIFICITY
168
Three main statistical measures of accuracy
Mean - Average
Median - Middle value
Mode - Most common value
169
The ability to measure only the substance of interest is also known as:
Specificity
170
Amount of protein being excreted in heavy proteinuria
>4 g/day
171
Used as a confirmatory test for identifying a sugar other than glucose in the urine
Thin layer chromatography
172
Only pathogenic microfilariae with no sheath
Onchocerca volvulus
173
Only cestode that produces operculated eggs
Diphyllobotrium latum
174
most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis
Quantitative abnormality in platelets
175
most common cause of excessive or abnormal bleeding
Thrombocytopenia
176
Platelet abnormality characterised by abnormal aggregation to ADP, epinephrine and collagen, but normal aggregation with ristocetin
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
177
The principle of this instrument relies on the injection of a monodisperse suspension of particles into the center of a flowing stream of fluid that passes through a small quartz capillary tube at a constant velocity
Flow cytometry
178
The main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in the erythrocyte is to
Provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
179
Denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen
Heinz bodies
180
This is an autosomal dominant caused by expansion of a (CTG)n repeat in the 3′ untranslated region of the myotonin protein kinase gene on chromosome 19q13.3
Myotonic dystrophy
181
This is an autosomal recessive disease and is the most common of the hereditary ataxias
Friedreich ataxia
182
This is an autosomal recessive hereditary cancer syndrome caused by mutations in the human homolog of the bacterial mutY gene. Because of the autosomal recessive nature of this disorder, the families typically show no evidence of vertical transmission of the disease
MYH-associated Polyposis
183
It is the measurement of current flowing through an electrochemical cell when potential is applied to the electrodes
Amperometry
184
This method serves as the reference method in determining total serum protein concentration. The test principle involves acid digestion of proteins to convert the nitrogen to ammonium ion.
Kieldahl method
185
Friedewald formula
LDL-C = TC – HDL – (TAG/5)
-Use TAG/2.22 if given in mmol/L
186
In which settings (3) will you not use the Friedewald formula
-when TAG is >400 mg/dL
-high quantities of chylomicrons (lipemic or non-fasting specimens)
-patients with dysbetalipoproteinemia
187
Disease state that leads to the highest serum elevation of Alkaline Phosphatase
Paget disease (10-25x the upper normal)
188
Method of incubating fecal material on a piece of filter paper strip in a test tube containing water
Harada-Mori culture
189
This is a quantitative technique to determine the number of eggs present per gram of faeces (e.p.g.).
McMaster Technique
190
Possible alternative to ether or ethyl acetate for fecal concentration procedure
Gasoline
191
Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, contains bacteria and WBC but no red blood cells.
Entamoeba gingivalis
192
Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, (+) RBC (-/+) bacteria, (-) WBC
Entamoeba histolytica
193
Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, (-) RBC, (-) bacteria, (-) WBC
Entamoeba hartmanii
194
Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus but no peripheral chromatin
Endolimax nana
195
Most common species of Plasmodium in the cooler parts of the tropics
Plasmodium vivax
196
It is the largest of the human malaria parasites and the cause of much illness and absenteeism from work and school.
Plasmodium vivax
197
The method for detection of autoantibodies to nuclear and intracellular antigens which requires precipitin reaction, has high specificity but low sensitivity
Double immunodiffusion
198
a spread of data in which elements are distributed symmetrically around the mean, with most values close to the center
Gaussian (normal) distribution
199
mathematical process for calculating the best
straight line to t the relationship observed between two variables measured on the same items
Linear regression
200
calculated as the nth root of the product of a distribution of n numbers
Geometric mean
201
statistical measures that are calculated based on the assumption that the data points follow a Gaussian distribution and include parameters such as mean, variance, and standard deviation
Parametric statistics
202
Nonparametric statistics are statistical measures that are based on __ or __ of data
Rank or Order
203
The specificity of DNA hybridization reactions is determined by which component of hybridization assays?
Probe
204
In real-time PCR, the two steps which occur simultaneously are:
Amplification and Detection
205
How many primers are used in loop-mediated amplification?
4 to 6
206
Chronic Neutrophilic Leukemia (CNL) has been shown to be associated with mutations of:
CSF3R
207
This morphologic alteration of neutrophils is characterized as large peroxidase-positive granules which represents abnormal lysosomal development in affected cells.
Chediak-Hegashi cells
208
This mature B-cell neoplasm is morphologically diagnosed by evidence of large cells with slate blue cytoplasm and moderately large, frequently oval or clefted nuclei
Hairy cell leukemia
209
The characteristic cytochemical feature of hairy cell leukemia include a strong acid phosphatase reaction that is not inhibited by:
Tartaric acid
210
An ideal antibody in a precipitation reaction has:
High AFFINITY and High AVIDITY
211
measurement of the absorvance of a stain on a support medium usually done after chromatography
Densitometry
212
measurement of the current flow produced by an oxidation-reduction reaction
Amperometry
213
measures quantity of electricity needed to convert an analyte to a different oxidations state
Coulometry
214
measures potential in between two electrodes in a solution
Potentiometry
215
measurement of the resulting current from which potential is applied to an electrochemical cell
Voltammetry
216
By estimate, around how much of medical decisions are based on laboratory results?
70%
217
Syndrome in obese men, hypertension causes a reduction in plasma volume, resulting in (amongst other changes) a relative increase in red blood cell count
Gaisbock syndrome
218
In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species lacks a sheath and lack nuclei in the tail tip
Onchocerca volvulus
219
In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a sheath but no tail tip nuclei
Wuchereria bancrofti
220
In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a sheath and two nuclei beyond the ends of the nuclear column
Brugia malayi
221
In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a poorly-staining sheath with nuclei extending to the rounded tip
Loa loa
222
Vector of Loa loa (the eye worm)
Chrysops
223
Vector of Onchocerca volvulus
Simulium
224
Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti
Culex and Aedes (also Anopheles)
225
A nematode that can cause a massive infection and may cause rectal prolapse in children
Trichuris trichiura
226
The protein section of the urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
Albumin
227
What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
CSF/Serum albumin ratio
-if <9, intact BBB
228
Whole blood and RBC units are stored at what temperature?
1°C to 6°C
229
Platelet concentrates prepared from whole blood and apheresis components are routinely stored at _°C to _°C, with continuous agitation for up to _ days
...20°C to 24°C...
...5 days
230
National Reference Laboratory for Toxicology
East Avenue Medical Center (EAMC)
231
Cause of Malignant Tertian Malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
232
Cause of Benign Tertian Malaria
Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
233
Cause of Benign Quartan Malaria
Plasmodium malariae
234
Cause of Quotidian Malaria
Plasmodium knowlesi
235
Causative agent for mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis
Leishmania braziliensis
236
Structural component of Staphylococcus aureus that inhibits antibody mediated clearance by blocking opsonization
Protein A
237
components of the cell wall which allows Staphylococcus aureus to bind to fibronectin, and subsequently ECM
Teichoic acid
238
the preferred cleansing agent for syphilitic lesions which may be directly sampled by gentle abrasion
Sterile water
239
Visualization of __ is necessary for definitive identification of Treponema species under darkfield microscopy
Motility
240
the endpoint for the manual standard VDRL and RPR tests
Flocculation
241
This is possibly the most common microdeletion syndrome in humans but not often recognized due to its broad spectrum of clinical features and mild presentation.
Velocardiofacial syndrome
242
It is the major metabolite of heme, the iron-binding tetrapyrrole ring found in hemoglobin, myoglobin, and cytochromes
Bilirubin
243
The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in plasma, with a molecular weight of 725,000 Da is:
α2-Macroglobulin
244
most often associated with human leukocyte antigen DR2 and the presence of anti-DNA antibodies among SLE patients
presence of anti-SSa/Ro
245
shelf life of blood units when additive solutions are utilized
42 days
246
In the preparation of platelet concentrates, what is the main reason of leaving behind at least 50ml of plasma?
To maintain pH of at least 6.2 during storage
247
Act regulating the operation and maintenance of clinical laboratories
RA 4688
248
Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998
RA 8504
249
National System for Newborn Screening
RA 9288
250
international standard that specifies the quality management requirements particular to medical laboratories
ISO 15189
251
Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969
RA 5527
252
“Blood Banking Law” – act regulating the collection, processing and sales of human blood.
RA 1517
253
Five (5) steps of Six Sigma
-Define
-Measure
-Analyze
-Improve
-Control
254
Six sigma is measured by:
DPMO (Defects per Million Opportunities)
255
another quality tool aside from six sigma which is ultimately designed to reduce wastes-used by Toyota
Lean process
