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Clinpath Flashcards

Section 8: Laboratory procedures

1
Q

what is the morphology of Vibrio spp. bacteria?

A

bacillus

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2
Q

what are the important functions of bacterial fimbraie?

A

locomotion, ion transport, antibiotic resistance

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3
Q

blood levels of total bilirubin will not be a significant finding in ______
a. hepatocellular damage
b. bile duct injury or obstruction
c. hemolytic disorders
d. acute pancreatitis

A

acute pancreatitis

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4
Q

a bacterial genus is best described as _______

A

being composed of one or more species

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5
Q

which of the following is a lentivirus?
a. coronavirus
b. feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
c. herpes virus
d. parovirus

A

FIV

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5
Q

what is the temperature that must be reached and maintained for 13 minutes in a steam autoclave to destroy microorganisms?

A

121 C

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6
Q

what are 3 methods of culturing animal viruses?

A

lab animal inoculation, cell culture, embryonated egg inoculation

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7
Q

blood levels of total bilirubin are primarily used to evaluate function of which organ?

A

liver

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8
Q

what is a hospital-acquired disease called?

A

nosocomial

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9
Q

what laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein?

A

BUN

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10
Q

nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include __________

A

the amount of protein ingested

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11
Q

a decrease in albumin may occur in cases experiencing ___________

A

gastroenteritis

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12
Q

which substance is used to evaluate kidney filtration and function, is excreted, and then is reabsorbed?

A

urea

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13
Q

glycosuria exists _______________________________

A

when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

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14
Q

horses typically have higher ______ values than other species

A

AST

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15
Q

which blood chemistry test should be used to measure cholangiocyte damage?

A

GGT

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16
Q

for cytological evaluation what should be done immediately with the urine sample?

A

it should be centrifuged as soon as possible

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17
Q

what is the average specific gravity for an adult dog?

A

1.025

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18
Q

what is the average specific gravity for an adult cat?

A

1.030

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19
Q

if a dog is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection what method of urine collection should be done when the dog comes back for a urine recheck a few weeks after being on an antibiotic?

A

cystocentesis

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20
Q

aged urine samples left at room temperature and exposed to UV light may cause a false negative result in which biochemical test?

A

bilirubin

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21
Q

which of the following is not a method of culturing animal viruses?
a. laboratory animal inoculation
b. cell culture
c. agar plate inoculation
d. embryonated egg inoculation

A

agar plate inoculation

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22
Q

what is the function of hemolysins?

A

destroy red blood cells

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23
Q

urinary pH is not affected by the
a. patient’s diet
b. presence of bacteria in the urine
c. patient’s acid-base status
d. presence of crystals in the urine

A

presence of crystals in the urine

24
what biochemical tests are not considered part of a primary hepatic profile? a. BUN and creatinine b. cholestatic enzymes c. hepatocellular leakage enzymes d. total protein and albumin
BUN and creatinine
25
the current test of choice for evaluating liver function is what?
bile acids
26
serum chemistry tests for acute pancreatitis include what? a. amylase and lipase b. lipase and trypsin c. amylase and trypsin d. amylase, lipase, and trypsin
amylase and lipase
27
which of the following results may be found in a patient with a degenerative left shift? a. leukocytosis b. no bands present c. lymphocytes outnumber neutrophils d. bands outnumber mature neutrophils
bands outnumber mature neutrophils
28
to make a smear with anemic blood: a. increase the angle of the pusher slide b. decrease the angle of the pusher slide c. use a larger drop of blood d. wait for the drop of blood to dry partially
increase the angle of the pusher slide
29
what is the most useful way to report WBC differential results? a. percentages b. relative numbers c. absolute numbers d. decimal numbers
absolute numbers
30
determination of which of the following is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? a. total protein b. hematocrit c. RBC morphology d. fibrinogen
fibrinogen
31
postrenal azotemia refers to: a. an increase in BUN resulting from severe liver disease b. an increase in BUN resulting from the inability to urinate c. a decrease in BUN resulting from severe renal disease d. an increase in BUN resulting from dehydration
an increase in BUN resulting from an inability to urinate
32
which one of the following options would not affect a manual WBC count? a. condensor in the farthest "up" position b. length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded c. objective lens used d. mini clots in blood
objective lens used
33
which of the following options is not a sign of RBC regeneration? a. polychromasia b. nuclear remnants c. spherocytes d. anisocytosis with macrocytosis
spherocytes
34
a left shift refers to increased numbers of: a. immature neutrophils b. immature RBCs c. immature platelets d. immature lymphocytes
immature neutrophils
35
in a healthy animal diminished water intake or water loss would result in _____ urine specific gravity
increased
36
crystals in urine sediment often indicate: a. uroliths b. nothing c. inflammation d. urethral blockage
nothing
37
what gram-negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film over the entire surface?
Proteus spp.
38
what microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm?
Microsporum spp.
39
what serum component can be used as a screening test for hypothyroidism?
cholesterol
40
fibrinogen is produced in the ______
liver
41
which of the following samples can be frozen and successfully thawed for performing an analytic test at a later time? a. feces for a fecal float test b. whole blood for chemistry testing c. serum for chemistry testing d. whole blood for a CBC
serum for chemistry testing
42
under the microscope you observe a leukocyte that you identify as an eosinophil. the eosinophil cytoplasm contains numerous rod-shaped granules. from which species was this sample most likely collected?
cat
43
secondary hemostasis refers to: a. coagulation cascade b. vascular system c. clot lysis d. platelet plug formation
coagulation cascade
44
a good presurgical screening test for von Willebrand disease is a/an: a. total platelet count b. buccal mucosal bleeding time c. activated clotting time d. activated partial thromboplastin time
buccal mucosal bleeding time
45
when collecting blood for a coagulation profile, it is especially important to: a. use a gray-top vacutainer b. analyze the sample immediately c. use EDTA as the anticoagulant d. minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture
minimize vascular trauma during venipuncture
46
when using Diff-Quik to stain bone marrow smears, it is especially important to: a. use freshly filtered stain b. dip the smear twice as long as blood smears c. rinse thoroughly with distilled water d. let the smear dry for 30 minutes before staining
dip the smear twice as long as blood smears
47
the best urine collection method to assess the patency of the urethra is: a. catheterization b. manual expression c. free catch d. cystocentesis
catheterization
48
which of the following statements regarding casts is incorrect? a. a few hyaline or granular casts may be seen in normal urine b. all casts are cylindric with parallel sides c. casts dissolve in acidic urine d. casts may be disrupted with high-speed centrifugation and rough sample handling
casts dissolve in acidic urine
49
blood chemistry analysis is commonly performed to evaluate function of the __________ in an animal showing lethargy, obesity, mild anemia, infertility, and alopecia
thyroid gland
50
ammonia is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys. levels of which metabolic byproduct of ammonia are measured to assess kidney function?
ura nitrogen
51
the red-top vacutainer tube should sit at room temperature for ______ before centrifugation allowing a clot to form
30 minutes
52
Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ________ of dogs
right kidney
53
in what species are the platelets normally larger then the red blood cells?
felines
54
which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm? a. cysticercus b. hydatid cyst c. coenurus d. cysticercoid
hydatid cyst
55
what canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus which may then become neoplastic?
Spirocerca
56
which statement is true about dirofilaria infection in the cat? a. the lifespan of heartworms is shorter in cats b. microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections c. adult worm burden in cats is similar in numbers to that in dogs d. dirofilaria causes a severe anemia in cats
the lifespan of heartworms is shorter in cats
57
which of the following is not associated with a responsive anemia? a. poikilocytosis b. reticulocytosis c. anisocytosis d. polychromasia
poikilocytosis
58
what large cell with multiple separate nuclei is found in bone marrow?
osteoclast

VTNE review (18 decks)

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