Vet Tech Prep Flashcards
(428 cards)
1
Q
what is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of a horse?
A
15 mL
2
Q
what organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?
A
Strongylus vulgaris
3
Q
which parasite can infect a human by penetrating the skin and cause dermatitis via cutaneous migration?
A
Ancylostoma spp.
4
Q
buccal
A
tooth surface that faces the cheek
5
Q
labial
A
tooth surface that faces the lips
6
Q
vestibular (dentistry term)
A
surface of a tooth that is directed outward toward the vestibule of the mouth which includes the buccal and labial surfaces
7
Q
facial (dentistry term)
A
surface of the tooth visible from the front
same as vestibular surface but applies mainly to incisors
8
Q
lingual
A
surface of the mandibular teeth that is adjacent to the tongue
9
Q
palatal
A
surface of the maxillary teeth that is adjacent to the palate
10
Q
mesial
A
portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch
11
Q
distal (dentistry term)
A
portion of the tooth that is in line with the dental arcade and closest to the most caudal aspect of the dental arch
opposite of mesial
12
Q
apical
A
portion of the tooth closer to the tip of the root relative to another structure
13
Q
coronal
A
portion of the tooth closer to the crown relative to another structure
14
Q
why should Dexmedetomidine not be used on patients without normal heart function?
A
it can cause a significant reduction in cardiac output due to reduced heart rate
15
Q
what would be a common laboratory change to see in parvo cases?
A
neutropenia
parvo causes vomiting and diarrhea which leads to dehydration, sepsis, fever
sepsis leads to a low neutrophil count (overwhelming infection)
16
Q
what type of toxicity causes icterus and hemoglobinuria in sheep?
A
copper toxicity
17
Q
anhidrosis
A
inability to sweat
18
Q
which part of the intestine does the pancreas connect to?
A
duodenum (1st segment of intestine)
secretes digestive enzymes into intestine via pancreatic duct
19
Q
what is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken?
A
107 F
20
Q
what position is colic surgery most commonly performed in?
A
dorsal recumbency
21
Q
true or false: an arthrocentesis should be a sterile procedure
A
true
22
Q
in what species is it common to observe rouleaux formation in?
A
horses, cats, and pigs
but most common in horses
23
Q
what should be included on every drug label?
A
Caution: federal law restricts this drug to use by the order of a licensed veterinarian
24
Q
what is the most common early sign of lidocaine toxicity in dogs?
A
CNS depression
25
which breed most commonly has von Willebrand's disease?
Doberman Pinscher
26
what is the most common cause of epistaxis in horses?
exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage
27
feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms?
neurologic
28
what is the measurement for placement of a nasal oxygen tube?
measure to the medial canthus of the eye
29
why should atropine be used cautiously in horses?
excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic)
30
which test can be used to evaluate a patient for IMHA?
Coomb's test
31
what is the reddish brown discharge that a bitch usually has for a few weeks after parturition called?
lochia
32
what is meconium?
the dark intestinal excretion from a newborn ("first stool")
33
which 2 anesthetic drugs should not be drawn up into a plastic syringe and kept in a lockbox unless they are going to be used promptly?
Diazepam and Propofol
Propofol should not be stored at room temperature since the vehicle for Propofol is liquid emulsion that could be an excellent growth medium for bacteria
Diazepam will bind to the plastic and the proper dose will not be dispensed when injected
34
why is potassium citrate given to dogs?
to prevent bladder stones
35
Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?
estrogen
36
what is the most common lead system for horse ECGs?
base-apex lead
37
llama gestation
350 days
38
horse gestation
330 days
11 months
39
cow gestation
280 days
40
sheep/goat gestation
150 days
41
pig gestation
114 days
42
dog/cat gestation
63 days
43
ferret gestation
42 days
44
why do rabbits need to be given preanesthetic drugs before using a mask or chamber to start gas agents?
to help prevent breath holding
45
what are the most common bone marrow collection sites?
dogs: humeral head, iliac crest, femoral canal
cats: humoral head
horses: sternum
46
which amino acid is critical for cats?
taurine
47
if a dog presents to the hospital in status epilepticus which drugs may be given?
propofol or valium
48
when processing fluid from a spinal tap what value may be increased when there is blood contamination?
nucleated cell count
49
which species has the bursa of Fabricus?
birds
50
what is the bursa of Fabricus?
an outpocketing of the cloaca
it is the site of hematopoiesis in young birds and is needed for B lymphocyte cell development
51
what type of parasite is Dipylidium caninum?
tapeworm
52
what is the intermediate host of tapeworms?
fleas
53
what is official ethics?
values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession
54
what is the ideal age for spay/neuter?
5-6 months
55
what does carbon monoxide do to the blood cells?
displaces oxygen on hemoglobin molecules forming carboxyhemoglobin complexes which leads to tissue hypoxia
56
what is the most likely cause of bright red mucous membranes on a dog that was in a house fire?
carbon monoxide toxicity
57
what condition is often treated using Sulfasalazine?
colitis
it is a sulfonamide antibiotic
58
which suture material is not non-absorbable?
a. nylon
b. polypropylene
c. polydioxanone
d. silk
polydioxanone
59
which zoonotic disease is caused by Sporothrix schenckii?
rose gardener's disease
cigar-shaped yeast typically found in soil in costal regions or river valleys and organism goes into skin wounds upon contact with soil
60
which species doesn't have canine teeth?
a. pigs
b. ferrets
c. horses
d. rodents
rodents
61
what is the method called of collecting nematode larvae by allowing them to pass through a wire net or cheesecloth?
Baermann technique
62
what are normative ethics?
an individual's attempt to discover what they believe to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior
63
which drugs are commonly given as a CRI to hospitalized dogs in pain?
morphine, lidocaine, ketamine
MLK
64
what does "red bag" mean during birth in a mare?
protrusion of the chorioallantois and indicates premature placental separation
it's an emergency situation where the chorioallantois needs to be broken down manually to assist in delivery of the foal
65
what can cause myositis in a horse?
prolonged recumbency during anesthesia
66
what should be removed during a spay of a reptile?
ovaries always need to be removed
oviducts shouldn't be removed because it could cause egg binding
67
what is a normal central venous pressure reading?
0-10 cmH2O
blood pressure of thoracic vena cava that is helpful in monitoring hydration status
68
what do central venous pressure readings mean? (specific numbers)
< 0 = dehydrated
0-10 = adequate hydration
> 10 = fluid overload
69
what is minute volume?
the volume of air that is inspired by a patient in 1 minute
calculated by respiratory rate multiplied by tidal volume
70
which structure in the eye is responsible for focus?
lens
refracts light
71
which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters?
pigs
72
how many thoracic vertebrae do horses have?
18
73
how many thoracic vertebrae do dogs, cats, cows, and sheep have?
13
74
how many thoracic vertebrae do pigs have?
14-15
75
which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route?
hookworms
76
you should not give a phenothiazine tranquilizer (acepromazine, chlorpromazine) to an animal with which disease?
epilepsy
77
where is the safest place to do an interperitoneal injection in a dog?
at the location of the umbilicus, 2 inches right or left of midline
78
what is stomatitis?
inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces
79
what does a template bleeding time (TBT) test evaluate?
the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound
80
what do activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT) evaluate?
if there are deficiencies in the coagulation factors
81
what is the diencephalon in the brain composed of?
the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland
82
which drug has been associated with esophageal strictures in cats therefore a liquid preparation is preferred?
Doxycycline
83
what tissue is most sensitive to radiation therapy?
bone marrow
84
which type of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?
urate and cystine
85
which test is best used to evaluate a dog with possible EPI?
serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)
86
what is sodium fluoride used for?
mainly used as a glucose preservative
it is the preferred anticoagulant for measurement of blood glucose
87
which breed should not receive ivermectin for treating Demodex?
sheltie
collies, shelties, and australian shepherds are prone to having a MDR1 gene mutation that causes ivermectin toxicity
88
when is the best time to administer perioperative antibiotics?
within 1 hour of cut time
89
which disorder is an IV pyelogram most useful in detecting?
ureteral stones
90
what is an IV pyelogram?
an x-ray exam of the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder using iodinated contrast material injected IV and excreted by the kidneys
detects problems in the upper urinary tract
91
what radiology test would be helpful in detecting urethral stones?
a retrograde cystography
92
what type of placenta does a ruminant have?
cotyledonary placenta
have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between mother and fetus
93
what does a double-contrast cystogram involve?
soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder
94
linear artifacts on a film are usually due to what?
grid not being centered correctly
95
which breed normally has an elevated PCV?
greyhounds
96
which principle will always improve radiographic image quality?
use the highest mA (milliampere) setting and the lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs
97
which type of dogs should thiopental not be used in?
sighthounds
they have little fat causing prolonged recoveries and greater complications with ultra-short acting barbiturates
98
what is cervical lymphadenitis?
swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in guinea pigs
it's caused by Streptococcus zooepidemicus
commonly transmitted through broken oral mucosa
99
how is cervical lymphadenitis treated?
surgical draining and flushing of the abscess along with giving Enrofloxacin (Baytril)
100
which parasite is the most important cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle and is commonly known as the brown stomach worm?
Osteragia ostertagi
roundworm
101
if a dog sustains a humeral fracture which nerve would most likely be damaged?
radial nerve
it innervates the extensor and supinator muscles in the forelimb and provides distal sensation
most commonly injured nerve in a forelimb fracture
102
which component of a digital radiography unit has the biggest influence on image quality?
monitor
103
what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis
opossum
104
what is the correct order of the phases of the estrous cycle?
proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus
105
which drug given for diarrhea can cause stools to appear dark like melena?
Pepto bismol
it has bismuth subsalicylate which causes this
106
what are the 3 layers of the meninges?
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
107
what does a direct life cycle mean?
the parasite does not require an intermediate host
108
why is EDTA preferred over Heparin when collecting a blood sample that will be used for a differential?
Heparin interferes with white blood cell staining and causes white blood cell clumping
109
what is another name for the hock joint in a horse?
tarsocrural joint
110
which parasite can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in foals?
Parascaris equorum
111
what is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter in a dog?
dorsal metatarsal artery
112
in the horse the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to what structure?
suprascapular nerve
113
what typically appears as hyperechoic on an ultrasound?
bone and gas
114
if the kidney has a drop in blood flow and a part of the kidney dies what would this area be termed?
infarcted
infarct = area of necrosis due to a local lack of oxygen due to a disturbance in blood flow to the area
115
what is the maximum recommended amount of blood that can be collected from a horse?
15-16 mL/kg
116
what are the typical signs of shock?
pale gums, increased heart rate, low blood pressure
117
oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of which erythrocyte morphology?
Heinz bodies
they represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage
118
when drawing blood for a fructosamine level how many hours do you need to wait after giving insulin to draw the blood?
doesn't matter
119
where are microbiology materials and media stored?
refrigerator
120
which organism mostly produces endotoxins?
gram-negative bacteria
121
what is nervous tissue without myelin known as?
grey matter
122
true or false: white matter is myelinated
true
123
which of the following drugs should be handled with PPE due to being cytotoxic?
a. Metronidazole
b. Vincristine
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Sucralfate
e. Metoclopramide
Vincristine
chemotherapeutic agent
124
what is the end of the spinal cord called?
cauda equina
125
what is the most important light in a tortoise enclosure?
UVB light
needed to properly process and absorb calcium from the diet
126
what is the term for dental decay causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth?
caries
condition where trapped food is fermented by bacteria forming acids that demineralize the hard tissue of the tooth
127
why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term use in horses?
they are the least thrombogenic
they can be left in place for more than a week
128
which ICU patient on fluids needs to be watched closely for jugular distension?
a. patient with heart murmur
b. patient with seizure history
c. patient in renal failure
d. aggressive patient
patient with a heart murmur
underlying cardiac disease patients are at the highest risk for pulmonary edema from fluid overload; an indication of fluid overload is jugular distension
129
how should a tibial fracture patient be positioned for surgery?
dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped
130
what is a caudectomy?
tail removal
131
what is the most common feline blood type in the US?
type A
132
what is the best method for collecting a culture of the lower airways?
transtracheal wash
133
how many cervical vertebrae do cows have?
7
134
where is the best place for an IV catheter on a dehydrated rabbit before surgery?
marginal ear vein
135
where would you find an arrector pili muscle?
hair follicle
136
horses with laminitis should be fed what type of diet?
mostly grass hay
137
what is the best method of killing parvovirus?
bleach
138
which condition would cause the bowel to appear plicated?
string foreign body
139
which drug would be effective against tapeworms?
Praziquantel (Droncit)
140
what does pseudocyesis mean?
false pregnancy
141
what is the standard temperature and duration accepted for autoclaving? (Farenheit)
250 F for 13 minutes
142
what does pyuria mean?
white blood cells in the urine
143
what is the most commonly used fecal parasite testing for dogs and cats?
a. Baermann technique
b. direct smear
c. fecal cytology using H&E staining method
d. zinc sulfate centrifugation
zinc sulfate centrifugation
144
what is another name for herpes infection in psittacine birds?
Pacheco's disease
145
what is the purpose of the condenser on the microscope?
to focus light on the object being viewed
146
what is the primary defense method for a pig?
biting
147
if a dog has a cervical disk compression causing forelimb paresis, where will the surgical incision most likely be made?
the ventral side of the neck
148
which type of radiograph is helpful in confirming the presence of free air or fluid if it is suspected based on survey films?
horizontal beam
149
what is the best way to recover Strongyloides stercoralis L1 in a fecal test?
Baermann technique
150
which substance should never be used for prepping the digits for a dewclaw if a laser is going to be used?
alcohol
151
lactose-forming bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella appear what color on MacConkey agar?
pink or red
152
what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?
bronchodilation
153
what is the difference between rem and rad in radiation safety?
rem applies a quality factor to rad
154
what type of test is an FeLV snap test?
antigen test
155
which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis?
Xenopsylla cheops
aka plaque or rat flea
156
which of the following drugs requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Phenylpropanolamine
e. Chlorpheniramine
Chloramphenicol
157
what color does gram negative bacteria stain?
pink or red
158
what does tractable mean in regards to a patient's behavior/demeanor?
calm and well behaved
158
what color does gram positive bacteria stain?
purple
158
what type of gas is in a blue gas tank in the US?
nitrous oxide
159
what type of gas is found in grey gas tanks in the US?
carbon dioxide
160
what type of gas is found in yellow gas tanks in the US?
medical compressed air
161
what type of gas is found in black gas tanks in the US?
nitrogen
162
what type of gas is found in brown gas tanks in the US?
helium
163
which of the following drugs is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?
a. Propofol
b. Thiopental
c. Telazol
d. Alfaxalone
Alfaxalone
interacts with GABA receptors to achieve its central effects
164
for which species is it most common to clip and clean the surgical site prior to anesthetic induction?
horse
165
the sacculus rotundus is part of the intestinal anatomy of which species?
rabbit
166
Novalsan is known as what?
Chlorhexidine
Hibiclens is the name of another chlorhexidine product
167
which toxicity is not a common concern in cattle?
iron toxicity
168
which urinary crystal is often found in Dalmatians only?
ammonium biurate
169
MRI-compatible equipment might be made of which metal?
aluminum
170
potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?
to prevent bladder stones
171
what is an indicator that a spinal needle has been successfully placed into the epidural space of a horse?
fluid is immediately drawn in when placed on the hub of the needle
172
how is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus?
culture of smegma
173
what is cerumen?
ear wax
174
patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid what?
signs of hypoadrenocorticism
175
what is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings?
hypotension
176
which of the following parasites have a direct life cycle?
a. toxocara canis
b. fasciola hepatica
c. dirofilaria immitis
d. dipylidium canium
toxocara canis
177
which swine disease is reportable?
pseudorabies
178
what is true regarding the Schiff-Sherrington posture?
it causes paralysis of the hindlimbs
it's an autonomic reflex that is seen when the animal is in lateral recumbency and the propriospinal tract in the T3 to L3 spinal cord is damaged and the forelimbs exhibit extensor hypertonicity; paralysis caudal to the lesion is often seen too
179
what is a common cause of feline acne?
hypersensitivity to plastic
180
what are the 3 chemical constituents of struvite crystals?
magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate
181
what is the causative agent of "Ich" in fish?
Ichthyophtirius multifiliis
182
which part of the brain coordinates motor activity?
cerebellum
183
which chemotherapeutic agent has been associated with cardiotoxicity?
Doxorubicin
184
what type of patient should Barium not be used in for an upper GI study?
patient with aspiration pneumonia
185
what is a common drug used to treat Cushing's?
Trilostane
186
what clinical symptoms can Horner's syndrome cause?
miosis
Horner's syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear
187
traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is known as what?
hardware disease
188
Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?
eyes
189
what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60-100 mg/kg
190
which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?
luteinizing hormone (LH)
191
how long is the estrus and gestation of mice?
estrus: 4-6 days
gestation: 19-21 days
192
which drug may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect?
Methimazole
193
which of the following is not usually given postoperatively to a horse?
a. Omeprazole
b. Procaine-penicillin G
c. Banamine
d. Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone
steroid
194
bacterial sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
hypoglycemia
195
what is the ideal time period to withhold food in large ruminants prior to general anesthesia?
24-48 hours
196
what is true of a dog with polycythemia?
a. the dog has increased hematocrit
b. the dog has a low platelet count
c. the dog has an increased WBC count
d. the dog has a low RBC count
the dog has increased hematocrit
197
what is polycythemia?
an increase in the absolute number of circulating RBCs
198
after performing intestinal surgery what would be the consequence of an intestinal dehiscence?
septic abdomen
199
what is the treatment for Flagyl toxicity?
Valium
200
a fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a contrast agent is administered into what location?
draining tract
201
which inhalant anesthetics are the most potent?
drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC)
202
when conducting a food trial for a possible food allergy how long as a minimum should the trial last?
3 months
203
what is a sarcolemma?
the cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber
204
what is a sacromere?
the contractile unit of a myofibril
repeating units located between Z lines of the muscle cells
205
what is perimysium?
connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups
206
which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats?
Cisplatin
causes pulmonary toxicity
Cisplatin splats cats
207
what are the components of a typical x-ray cassette in order from front to back?
cassette front, padding, intensifying screen, film, intensifying screen, padding, cassette back
208
what type of catheter is used for total parenteral nutrition?
multi-lumen jugular catheter
209
what should be done prior to induction and intubation in horses?
throughly rinse the oral cavity
210
what is expected to find in a patient with hypervitaminosis D?
hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone, calcitriol increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestines and decreases their excretion in the urine ---> calcium levels in blood increase and PTH levels drop
211
besides unregulated diabetes what is another cause of ketouria?
starvation
212
where is the meibomian gland located?
eyelid
they secrete sebum and help prevent evaporation of the tear film
213
when is activated charcoal used?
after emesis is induced or after a gastric lavage
214
activated charcoal would be used for which of the following?
a. snail bait ingestion
b. thermal skin burns
c. fluoroscopy
d. foreign body ingestion
snail bait ingestion
215
where do adult heartworms live?
pulmonary arteries
216
when discussing the equine hoof which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?
coronary band
hoof wall grows from the coronary band
it produces soft skin tissue similar to cuticles
if the coronary band is ever damaged the hoof may grow improperly and could cause lameness
217
what is an ergot on the horse hoof?
small pea-sized callous on the underside of the back of the fetlocks
218
Ivermectin should not be used when treating which parasite?
a. mites
b. ticks
c. trematodes
d. nematodes
trematodes (flukes)
Ivermectin works against ticks, mites, nematodes, lice
stimulates GABA which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter
219
what is Piroxicam and what is it used for?
NSAID that has some anti-cancer properties against transitional cell tumors and nasal adenocarcinoma in dogs
can cause renal papillary necrosis as a side effect so only use in cases with no underlying renal issues
220
what is the biting louse in dogs called?
Trichodectes canis
221
what is the biting louse in cats called?
felicola subrostratus
222
what is the sucking louse in cattle called?
Hematopinus asini
223
what is the biting louse in cattle called?
Damalinia bovis
224
Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are all used to treat which parasite?
fleas
225
which retractor would you hand the surgeon if they need to be able to retract the liver out of the way?
malleable retractor
they are bendable and have no sharp edges
226
founder in horses refers to what?
inflammation of the laminae and subsequent rotation of the 3rd phalanx
227
which of the following foods is toxic to parrots?
a. avocado
b. blueberries
c. cheese
d. chicken
e. Habanero peppers
avocado
contain persin which is toxic to parrots
228
what is the causative agent of equine strangles?
Streptococcus equi
229
how can you differentiate between a male and female tortoise?
the plastron is concave in males
230
where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
erythrocytes of cattle
231
what is the causative agent of pinkeye in cattle?
Moraxella bovis
232
what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
2(I 3/3, C 0/0, P 1/1, M 3/3)
233
which drug should be monitored closely due to its potential side effects that can occur due to toxic serum levels?
Digoxin
has a narrow therapeutic index
234
what should you do when you perform a medicated dip?
lubricate the dog's eyes with protective ointment
dips can cause irritation and damage eye tissue
235
what are the 4 layers of the small intestine from inside to outside?
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
236
which medication is considered a gastric band-aid?
Sucralfate
it's a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid in protection and healing
237
what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on the microscope?
to adjust light intensity
238
what is the minimum required height for fencing for goats?
6 ft
239
what is the "feline parvo" virus known as?
panleukopenia
240
what is true regarding non-screen film in comparison to screen x-ray film?
non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays
241
which parasite is commonly transmitted transplacentally to puppies?
toxocara
242
what does cryptorchid mean?
has 1 or more testicles retained and not in the scrotum
243
which of the following is an example of a gram negative bacterium?
a. pseudomonas
b. clostridium
c. streptococcus
d. staphylococcus
e. lactobacillus
pseudomonas
244
what beta-lactamase inhibitor is added to amoxicillin to prevent the occurrence of the bacteria producing beta-lactamases that destroy or inactivate penicillins?
Clavulanic acid
245
which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?
Alginate
246
what are Gasterophilus intestinalis parasites?
bot fly larvae known as the stomach bot
species: G. nasalis, G. haemorrhoidalis, G. intestinalis
no CS but may lead to stomach rupture (rare)
247
septic shock may cause the gums to be what color?
dark red
248
what is an epulis?
a non-malignant oral tumor
249
how early can a pregnancy check via ultrasound be performed in the mare?
14 days
250
what species offspring is labeled "precocious"?
guinea pig
251
which structure in the body is most sensitive to radiation?
ocular lens
252
Ascaris suum
large roundworm of pigs
undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (egg with L2 is ingested, larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3 then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed)
they molt 2 more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine
253
Stephanurus dentatus
swine kidney worm
254
Trichuris suis
swine whipworm which lives in the cecum
255
which medication is used to treat coccidia?
sulfadimethoxine
256
what is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats?
Ronidazole
257
all of the following are protection measures intended to decrease radiation to the vet tech except what?
a. collimating the beam to the smallest aperture necessary
b. use of lead gloves with at least 0.5mm lead equivalent
c. use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube
d. lead glasses
use of filtration at the portal of the x-ray tube
258
what 3 things help to minimize your exposure to radiation while taking radiographs according to the US Nuclear Regulatory Commission?
time, distance, shielding
259
what is the common term for Psittacosis?
parrot fever
260
what is the most likely reason for a patient to sustain a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed?
the ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin
261
which drug can be given as a tablet into the conjunctival sac in the eye to induce vomiting?
Apomorphine
also has an injectable form
acts by dopamine stimulation
262
what is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time?
6-8 L
average horse size's stomach capacity is only about 4 gallons
263
what is the intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum and is important in its transmission?
Ctenocephalides felis
flea
264
which arrhythmia is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise?
2nd degree AV block
common as a result of high vagal tone
most common in athletic horses
265
how can you calculate total blood volume?
80 mL/kg x body weight (kg)
266
which suture type is nonabsorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?
Ethilon
267
Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following?
vitamin E and selenium deficiency
268
there is an enzyme in 40% of rabbits that neutralizes a common drug, what drug is not used in rabbits because of this?
atropine
269
which types of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph?
urate and cystine
270
culture or draining lesions of which bacteria gives a characteristic sweet smell?
Pseudomonas
271
which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Famotidine
c. Metronidazole
d. Sucralfate
Metoclopramide
272
Trichomoniasis causes what condition in cattle?
abortions
caused by Trichomonas fetus which affects the reproductive tract
273
which bacteria are known for causing a head tilt and neurologic symptoms in ruminants?
Listeria
274
what does an Azostix strip test for?
BUN
275
what tool is intended to shield the user from the primary x-ray beam?
collimator
276
administration of which antimicrobial is most likely to result in diarrhea in the adult horse?
erythromycin
277
what is the name of the parasite that are ticks with large spines seen in horses?
Otobius megini
278
how long are sperm viable for?
7 days
279
how long does SQ fluids take to absorb?
5-8 hours
280
what does FHO stand for?
femoral head ostectomy
removal of the femoral head from the hip joint
done for arthritis, fractures, or disease to that hip joint
281
what percentage of mammary gland tumors in the cat are malignant?
90%
dogs: 45-50%
282
what is occurring in the x-ray machine while you are pressing the pedal down halfway?
anode rotates and filament is heated
283
a Jamshidi needle is used for what?
bone marrow core biopsy
284
which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs?
left jugular vein
pig blood draws are typically done on the right side to avoid the phrenic nerve in the left side neck
285
which medication is used to treat coocidia?
Sulfadimethoxine
286
what is the most common cause of flexural and angular deformities in horses?
abnormal development
287
what clinical syndrome can result from bedding a horse on shavings made from the Black Walnut (Juglans nigra) tree?
laminitis
288
you perform a vaginal cytology of a bitch in heat, what would you normally see?
mostly cornified cells
289
a dog has torn his cranial cruciate ligament and is having surgery, what area should you clip and aseptically prep?
stifle
290
what units are electrolytes measured in?
mEq/L
291
which protein is typically much higher in plasma than in serum?
fibrinogen
292
average minute volume in cats
180-380 mL/kg/min
293
what maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?
sodium-potassium pump
294
which deficiency causes muscle spasms, drooling, and stiff gait in sheep?
magnesium
grass tetany
295
what is a female mule called?
Molly
296
what percentage on average of dogs and cats have periodontal disease?
75%
297
in which part of the intestinal tract is nutrient absorption the greatest?
jejunum
298
which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation?
alginate
299
stimulation of the vagus nerve results in what response?
slowed heart rate
300
the elbow is extended by which muscle?
triceps brachium
301
which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eyes?
VI abducens
302
which parasite is responsible for the transmission of Yersinia pestis? (scientific name)
Xenopsylla cheops
303
what is the scabies mite in cats?
Notoedres cati
304
where would you find a Sertoli cell tumor?
testicle
Sertoli cells are striated cells in the seminiferous tubules
305
what toxic effect do lilies cause in cats?
renal failure
306
which medication is often given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?
atropine
307
which drug is used to induce emesis in cats?
xylazine
308
for a cat with oral burns from chewing on an electrical wire what other organ system do we need to be concerned about?
lungs
most cats develop a non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema when electrocuted
309
myositis in horses can occur as a result of what?
prolonged recumbency during anesthesia
310
what does a positive Ortolani sign mean?
hip dysplasia
311
how is tularemia transmitted?
ticks
312
in horses what is the most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity? (incision type)
ventral midline incision
313
the hock joint of the horse is more appropriately identified as what structure?
tarsocrural joint
314
the radiograph cassette is usually placed on the tabletop to radiograph which area in a medium-sized dog?
elbow
315
what is an ear canal ablation procedure?
surgical excision and closure of the external ear canal
316
the fetlock joint of the horse refers to what structure?
metacarpophalangeal joint
317
which specific parasite is usually the cause of a positive wood's lamp test?
Microsporum canis
318
what is the function of the screen of an x-ray cassette?
to decrease the exposure necessary to create an image on the film
319
what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diagram on an x-ray machine?
eliminate grid lines on the film
320
which part of the brain is associated with regulation and coordination of movement, posture, and balance?
cerebellum
321
Quinidine is used to treat which condition in horses?
atrial fibrillation
322
what does a beta-2 adrenergic agonist cause?
bronchodilation
323
it's estimated that BUN and creatinine levels become elevated when what percentage of kidney function is lost?
75%
324
keratoconjunctivitis sicca can result from the use of which medication?
Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)
325
the mucin clot test can be used when evaluating which fluid type
synovial fluid
326
in dogs which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots?
a. mandibular premolar 1 and molars 2 and 3
b. maxillary premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1
c. maxillary molars 1 and 2
d. mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4 and molar 1
mandibular premolars 2, 3, 4, and molar 1
327
which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats as it could cause blindness?
a. Metacam
b. Clindamycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin
Enrofloxacin
328
how long can donated whole blood be stored in the fridge for?
35 days
329
lincosamides are contraindicated for use in which species?
equine
330
which medication is typically given through a filter?
Cefazolin
331
turtles that eat iceberg lettuce may have which deficiency?
vitamin A
332
which of these forms of chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine?
a. semi-sweet chocolate
b. milk chocolate
c. unsweetened baking chocolate
d. white chocolate
unsweetened baking chocolate
333
what organ do snakes lack?
bladder
334
which drug is used in GI hypomotility cases?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Omeprazole
c. Metroidazole
d. Famotidine
Metoclopramide
335
which retractor is designed to hold open the abdomen?
Balfour retractor
336
what is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?
dehydration
337
bacteria sepsis frequently causes which finding on a blood panel?
hypoglycemia
338
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
339
which breed is most at risk for developing degenerative myelopathy?
German shepherd
340
which breed most commonly gets intervertebral disk disease?
Dachshunds
341
in a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her, which nerve are you most concerned about damage to?
obturator
adducts the hindlimbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs
during birthing this nerve can become crushed and cause obturator nerve paralysis
342
what anatomical landmark should be used for placing a multi-lumen jugular catheter?
third thoracic vertebrae
343
how many blood types do dogs have?
13
344
which equine gastrointestinal parasite when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mm is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?
Habronema spp.
stomach worm
345
which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhthymia?
halothane
346
because horses must retain a standing position in recovery following the use of gas anesthesia, what is the order of gas anesthetic drugs from most commonly used to least commonly used?
sevoflurane, halothane, isoflurane
347
which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?
epinephrine
348
which joint allows rotational movement of the head from side to side?
atlantoaxial
349
what is the best way to administer long-term medications to the eye of a horse with a severe corneal ulcer?
subpalpebral lavage system
350
which bacterium is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. salmonella
c. e. coli
d. streptococcus
streptococcus
351
developed radiographs that appear yellow are usually due to a problem with which of the following?
a. film storage
b. developer solution
c. intensifying screen
d. fixer solution
fixer solution
352
what is the cause of yellow-brown staining on a film?
incomplete washing of the film
353
a purse-string suture would be placed for which of the following surgeries?
a. enterotomy
b. cystotomy
c. enucleation
d. perianal mass excision
perianal mass excision
354
Clomipramine is a veterinary approved drug used most commonly to treat which condition?
separation anxiety
355
which of the following instruments would be least effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient?
periosteal elevator
356
pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by what?
dehydration
357
which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra?
a. syncope
b. increased drinking and urinating
c. hives
d. seizures
increased drinking and urinating
358
which of the following statements is true regarding cesarean sections?
a. performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production
b. performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production
c. performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy
d. performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is risk that the female will not display maternal instincts
performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production
359
blood lactate is a marker of what?
blood perfusion and oxygen delivery to tissues
360
what is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on a x-ray machine?
eliminate grid lines on the film
361
the best locations to administer IM injections such as penicillin to a horse include all of the following except what?
a. semimembranosus
b. pectorals
c. epaxial muscles
d. neck muscles
e. semitendinosus
epaxial muscles
362
broken leg with bone sticking out of the skin is which type of fracture?
compound
363
what is the most common anticoagulant used for hematology?
ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA)
364
average heart rate for a horse?
25-50 bpm
365
Amphotericin B is known for the potential to cause severe damage to which organ?
kidneys
366
the placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure?
umbilical vein
367
which local anesthetic is used in veterinary dentistry because it can provide 3-5 hours of pain relief?
bupivacaine
368
when collecting a sample when should the needle never be re-directed?
cystocentesis
369
when taking a lateral radiograph of a dog where should the field be centered?
5th rib and caudal border of the scapula
370
how do you make slides for a bone marrow aspirate?
place a drop on the end of the slide, tilt slightly, and pull to make a smear
371
what does MRSA stand for?
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
372
what can cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?
meat based diet
373
what is the gestation of a rat?
21-23 days
374
which species can develop dental caries?
rabbits and chinchillas
375
what opioid normally given by injection can be given orally for sedation or analgesia?
buprenorphine
376
what organism transmits Ehrlichia canis?
brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus)
377
impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by what structure?
axon
378
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
379
which cranial nerve is known for having 3 major branches?
CN V: trigeminal nerve
1. ophthalmic nerve: sensory to the eye socket and its contents, anterior nasal cavity, skin of nose, and forehead
2. maxillary nerve: sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity sinuses, palate, and part of the face
3. mandibular nerve: sensory fibers to lower jaw, floor of mouth, anterior 2/3 of tongue, lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers for mastication
380
which region should be avoided when administering an IM injection in cattle?
gluteal muscle
381
what is new methylene blue stain used mostly for?
determining morphology of cells
382
what is a ranula?
sublingual mucocele
fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct
383
what is a UMIC?
urine minimum inhibitory concentration
384
a UMIC would be performed on a urine sample to check for what?
infection and antibiotic susceptibility
385
what volume can the stomach of a kitten or puppy hold on average?
9 mL/kg
386
how long does estrus in the dog typically last?
4-13 days
387
cattle exposed to prolonged rainy conditions are most likely to develop what?
dermatophilosis
aka rain rot or rain scald
caused by bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis
common skin infection during rainy seasons or damp warm weather
388
ocular larval migrans is the result of what parasite?
toxocara canis
389
what is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?
opossum
390
hamster gestation period
15-22 days
391
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) selects for growth of which species of organism?
Staphylococcus
contains a high concentration of salt which inhibits most other bacteria
392
by administering Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) you are testing for what disease?
Myasthenia gravis
an acetylcholine receptor antibody blood test may also be used to diagnose this
393
what are analytical variables?
things that affect the way a test might vary between laboratories
ex: variation in temperature at which an assay is performed
394
before closing an exploratory surgery patient that has septic peritonitis from a perforated bowel, what does the surgeon lavage the abdomen with?
sterile physiologic saline
395
which of the following descriptions is consistent with PPN (partial parenteral nutrition)?
a. high concentration glucose, minerals, and electrolytes
b. patient is not receiving other nutrition
c. able to administer for extended time
d. IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein
IV catheter placed in a peripheral vein
total parenteral nutrition would involve a catheter placed in a neck or chest vein
396
chronic exposure to which hormone leads to pyometra?
progesterone
397
antifreeze causes the most damage to which organ?
renal
ethylene glycol damages the renal tubular epithelium causing a build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis
398
which medication is typically given through a filter?
Mannitol
it forms crystals in solution so an in-line 5 micron IV filter or filter needle is recommended
399
when a horse is placed in dorsal recumbency for surgery how much padding should be placed between the surgical table and the horse?
at least 6 inches
400
in horses the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure?
suprascapular nerve
atrophy of shoulder muscle
this nerve innervates the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles in the scapula
401
which drug is a neuroactive steroid and general anesthetic?
Alfaxalone
it achieves its central effects via interactions with GABA receptors
402
what is an expected finding in a patient with vitamin D toxicity?
hypercalcemia
vitamin D is the building block of calcitriol which works with parathyroid hormone
403
what can cause type II diabetes?
chronic corticosteroid use, obesity, pancreatitis
occurs due to insulin resistance
404
when placing craniocaudal radiographs of the stifle joint on a viewer how should the film be oriented?
the lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer's left and the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer's right
405
Lufenuron, Fipronil, and Imidacloprid are used to treat what?
fleas
406
what are Dorzolamide ophthalmic drops used for and what do they do?
they help decrease aqueous production which lowers intraocular pressure
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor commonly used to treat glaucoma
407
which anticoagulant is appropriate for collection of blood from a donor horse for a blood transfusion?
citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)
408
where on a primate's body are they tested for tuberculosis?
eyelid
409
the viscosity of synovial fluid is directly related to which component in the fluid?
hyaluronic acid
in inflammatory conditions the fluid gets thinner and the overall quality of the joint fluid decreases
410
where is hyaluronic acid found in the body?
connective tissues, highest in joints
411
which bacteria is gram positive?
a. campylobacter
b. streptococcus
c. salmonella
d. e. coli
streptococcus
412
what does Eimeria stiedai cause?
hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
413
where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
erythrocytes of cattle
414
which condition occurs least commonly in horses?
a. intestinal incarceration
b. laminitis
c. urolithiasis
d. enterolithasis
urolithiasis
415
which part of the intestine is the largest and therefore absorbs the most nutrients?
jejunum
416
gout is an accumulation of what?
uric acid
417
release of what molecule from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ultimately helps to achieve muscle contraction?
calcium
418
which plant is Pyrethrin derived or extracted from?
Chrysanthemum
419
what is the term to describe the wearing down of teeth by tooth-on-tooth contact during mastication?
attrition
420
what is the dental formula for guinea pigs and chinchillas?
2(I 1/1, C 0/0, P1/1, M 3/3) = 20
421
what is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?
to adjust light intensity
422
what is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60-100 mg/kg
422
which species besides guinea pigs require vitamin C in their diet because they can't synthesize it?
primates
423
potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?
to prevent bladder stones
424
which drug type is inappropriate to inject into the epidural space?
antibiotics
425
