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CNOR Prep Exam 1 > CNOR 2 D2 Intraoperative Patient Care and Safety > Flashcards

CNOR 2 D2 Intraoperative Patient Care and Safety Flashcards

(49 cards)

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1
Q

What should be done if resistance is encountered with IV tubing connections?

A

Stop and evaluate the connections.

AORN Guideline Medication Safety

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2
Q

What are the three phases of anesthesia?

A

Induction, Maintenance, Emergence

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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3
Q

What is a key nursing intervention during the induction phase of anesthesia?

A

Remain with patient

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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4
Q

True or False:

Hearing is the first sense to leave the patient during anesthesia induction.

A

False

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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5
Q

What should be ready and available during the emergence phase of anesthesia?

A

Suction

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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6
Q

What common medication is used for general, regional, and moderate sedation?

A

Midazolam (Versed)

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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7
Q

What is the initial dose of Midazolam?

A

1-2.5mg IV over 2 minutes until slurred speech/sedation

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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8
Q

List two adverse reactions of Midazolam.

A
  • Apnea
  • Geriatrics require smaller dose/longer wait

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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9
Q

What type of medication is Fentanyl?

A

Narcotic analgesic - opioid

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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10
Q

What are two adverse reactions of Fentanyl?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Laryngospasm

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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11
Q

Fill in the blank:

Romazicon (flumazenil) is used as a _______.

A

reversal for benzodiazepines

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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12
Q

What is the maximum total dose for Romazicon?

A

1 mg total dose

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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13
Q

What are common adverse reactions associated with opioid reversal using Naloxone (Narcan)?

A
  • Ventricular tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Withdrawal

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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14
Q

What is a potential complication during anesthesia care related to CNS depression?

A

Hypoventilation

Berry & Kohn’s Operating Room Technique

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15
Q

What are key goals for preventing retained surgical items (RSIs)?

A
  • Consistency
  • Collaboration & Communication
  • Active Participation

AORN Guideline Retained Surgical Items

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16
Q

What should be done during the count of surgical items?

A

Audibly count items concurrently with scrub person

AORN Guideline Retained Surgical Items

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17
Q

True or False:

Items should be subtracted from the count if they are not found.

A

False

AORN Guideline Retained Surgical Items

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18
Q

When should counts be performed during a surgical procedure?

A
  • Before the procedure
  • When new items are added
  • Before closure of a cavity within a cavity
  • When skin closure begins
  • When there is permanent relief of scrub or RN circulator

AORN Guideline Retained Surgical Items

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19
Q

What is required for specimen management during operative procedures?

A
  • Specialty personnel
  • Special handling requirements
  • Required documentation

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

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20
Q

What must be included on a complete specimen label?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • Name of specimen
  • Date and time of specimen removal
  • Chemical fixative and Biohazard information

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

21
Q

What is a critical step in transferring specimens to pathology?

Study These Flashcards
A

Verify specimen identification

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

22
Q

What should be preserved when handling forensic specimens?

Study These Flashcards
A

The chain of custody

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

23
Q

Fill in the blank:

Forensic specimens must be kept _______.

Study These Flashcards
A

separate

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

24
Q

What should be done with personal items found with forensic specimens?

Study These Flashcards
A

Secure all personal items

AORN Guideline Specimen Management

25
What are the two types of culture mentioned?
Aerobic and anaerobic ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
26
When should culturing be done before a procedure?
Before skin prep ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
27
What should be done with the culture sample after collection?
Send to lab immediately or refrigerate ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
28
What must be labeled on the culture tube?
The tube and the plastic bag ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
29
What is done to the capsule at the bottom of the culture tube?
Crushed to release ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
30
What type of tubes should be used for cultures?
Sterile culture tubes ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
31
What is the role of the scrub person during culture collection?
Removes swab from tube aseptically ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
32
What does the circulator do with the culture tube?
Holds tube and allows for aseptic transfer of swab back into tube after used on sterile field ## Footnote Berry & Kohn's Operating Room Technique
33
What is the primary focus of standard precautions?
Infection prevention ## Footnote AORN Guideline Transmission Based Precautions
34
What is cryopreservation?
A method for storing autologous tissue for future use ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
35
List types of tissues that may be preserved.
* Bone flaps * Skin * Parathyroid tissue * Vein grafts ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
36
What is the first step in preparing tissue for storage?
Tissue is passed off the field ASAP ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
37
How should the container for autologous tissue be handled?
Labeled and verified for identification ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
38
What must be included in the inside label of autologous tissue?
* Patient identification using two unique identifiers * Source of tissue * Laterality, if indicated * Type of tissue * Patient medical diagnosis ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
39
What information should be on the outside label of autologous tissue?
* 'For autologous use only' * 'Not evaluated for infectious substances' * 'Biohazard' ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
40
What is the procedure for decontaminating contaminated autologous graft tissue?
* Rinse with sterile normal saline * Use pulse lavage at low pressure, if tissue allows * Use a separate sterile field for decontamination * Maintain sterility of primary sterile field * Gown and glove change for sterile team members performing decontamination * Change wound classification to III * Complete variance report * Participate in debrief or RCA ## Footnote AORN Guideline Autologous Tissue Management
41
What are some environmental hazards in the perioperative environment?
* Radiation * Surgical Smoke * Hazardous Chemicals * Skin Antisepsis ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
42
How many dosimeters should be worn for radiation safety?
One outside apron and one under in a consistent place ## Footnote AORN Guideline Radiation Safety
43
What should be done if a staff member is pregnant regarding radiation safety?
Notify radiation officer ASAP ## Footnote AORN Guideline Radiation Safety
44
What is surgical smoke also known as?
Surgical plume ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
45
# True or False: Surgical masks are reliable for protection against surgical smoke.
False ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
46
What are short-term effects of exposure to waste anesthesia gases?
* Exhaustion * Fatigue * Irritability * Nausea * Drowsiness ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
47
What are possible long-term effects of exposure to waste anesthesia gases?
* Spontaneous abortion * Birth defects * Infertility * Premature births * Cancer * Kidney disease * Liver disease ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
48
What is the hazardous medication management plan requirement?
SDS must be present and accessible ## Footnote AORN Guideline Environment of Care
49
What qualities should an antiseptic skin cleansing agent possess?
* Broad-spectrum antimicrobial * Quickly applied * Safe without skin irritation * Remains active in presence of alcohol and organic matter * Nonflammable when dried ## Footnote AORN Guideline Patient Skin Antisepsis

CNOR Prep Exam 1 (11 decks)

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