Command Workbook // Prep for Captaincy

Question 1

Planning minima for destination aerodrome?

Answer 1

Destination: +/- 1 hour of ETA

• RVR and visibility: At or above operating minima.
• Non prec / circling the ceiling (BKN or OVC) must be at or above MDH.

Question 2

Planning minima for destination alternate?

Answer 2

For ILS CAT I LTS, CAT II and CAT III: RVR must meet CAT I minima.
Standard CAT I: Ceiling and RVR must meet non- precision approach minima.
Non Prec: Non precision approach minima plus MDA+200 feet and RVR+1000m.
Circling: Ceiling must be at or above the circling minima.

Question 3

737CL RFFS normal minimum for all cargo flight?

Answer 3

5

Question 4

737NG RFFS normal minimum for all cargo flight?

Answer 4

6

Question 5

Summarise how we apply TAF information when selecting an alternate aerodrome?
Include the application of TEMPO, PROB30 and PROB40 details.

Answer 5

TEMPO, TEMPO FM, TEMPO TL, TEMPO FM TL, PROB30 or 40: Deteriorations associated with persistent conditions should be applied (mean winds should be in limits but gusts exceeding limit may be disregarded).
Deteriorations associated with short-lived transient conditions may be ignored (mean winds and gusts that exceed required may be ignored). Improvements should in all cases be disregarded.

Question 6

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

Answer 6

35kts

Question 7

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

Answer 7

34kts

Question 8

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

Answer 8

35kts

Question 9

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

Answer 9

40kts

Question 10

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

Answer 10

25kts

Question 11

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

Answer 11

25kts

Question 12

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

Answer 12

40kts

Question 13

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

Answer 13

35kts

Question 14

What is the T/O and landing crosswind limit for all of our aircraft types when the runway is less than 45m wide, regardless of surface condition?

Answer 14

15kts

Question 15

When are you prohibited from using the Assumed Temperature Method?

Answer 15

• Anti skid inoperative
• Contaminated runway
• Thrust reverser inoperative
• Mixed engine configuration
• When using improved climb
• When performing a bleeds off take off.
• Any power setting instrument is inoperative.
• Dispatch is planned with the landing gear extended.
• FMC is inoperative.
• PMC/EEC is OFF or inoperative

Question 16

Define ‘contaminated runway’

Answer 16

RWY of which more than 25% of the runway surface aero within required length and width being used is covered by the following:
Surface water more than 3mm (0.125in) deep or by equivalent depth of slush or loose snow
Snow compressed into solid mass and resists further compression (compacted snow)
Ice, including wet ice.

Question 17

(WA) absolute minimum RVRs for takeoff?

Answer 17

125m/125m/125m

Question 18

When conducting a low vis takeoff, what criteria must be met?

Answer 18

LVPs in force
Both crew trained and current for LVOs
90m visual segment at start of T/O roll
Required RVR achieved for all relevant reporting points (where A/C is travelling faster than 60kts)
HIRCL spaced 15m or less and HIEL at 60m or less
and are on

Question 19

System minimum / minimum RVR for LTS Cat I ILS?

Answer 19

200’ // 400m / 125m / 75m

Question 20

System minimum / minimum RVR for Cat II ILS?

Answer 20

100’ // 300m / 125m / 75m

Question 21

System minimum / minimum RVR for Cat III ILS?

Answer 21

50’ // 200m / 125m / 75m

Question 22

When considering approach minima, when may the stop end RVR may be disregarded?

Answer 22

When the LDA >2000m

Question 23

Describe the windshear escape manoeuvre for manual and automatic flight.

Answer 23

MANUAL FLIGHT
• Disengage autopilot.
• Push either TO/GA switch.
• Aggressively apply maximum thrust* 
• Disengage autothrottle.
• Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15°.
• Retract speedbrakes.
• Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available) **

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
• Push either TO/GA switch***
• Verify TO/GA mode annunciation. • Verify GA thrust.
• Retract speedbrakes.
• Monitor system performance****

MANUAL OR AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
• Do not change flap or gear configuration until windshear is no longer a factor.
• Monitor vertical speed and altitude.
• Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor.

Question 24

When must bank angle be limited to 15 degrees?

When could this be an issue?

Answer 24

Below 400ft AAL
Below V2+15Knots

Emergency turn following EFATO

Question 25

Describe the recovery from a stall or approach to stall as PF.

Answer 25

``` • Hold the control column firmly. • Disengage autopilot and autothrottle. • Smoothly apply nose down elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops. Nose down stabilizer trim may be needed.* • Roll in the shortest direction to wings level if needed.** • Advance thrust levers as needed. • Retract the speedbrakes. • Do not change gear or flap configuration, except • During liftoff, if flaps are up, call for flaps 1. • Check airspeed and adjust thrust as needed. • Establish pitch attitude. • Return to the desired flight path. • Re-engage the autopilot and autothrottle if desired. ```

Question 26

Describe the terrain escape manoeuvre.

Answer 26

Disengage autopilot. Disengage autothrottle. Aggressively apply maximum* thrust. Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20°. Retract speedbrakes. If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator (if available) or stick shaker or initial buffet. Do not change gear or flap configuration until terrain separation is assured. Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation. When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate.

Question 27

Which takes precedence: | TCAS RA manoeuvre or Approach to stall manoeuvre?

Answer 27

Approach to stall manoeuvre.

Question 28

Describe the response to a TCAS RA (not in landing configuration)

Answer 28

- If maneuvering is needed, disengage the autopilot and disengage the autothrottle. - Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy the RA command. - Follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.

Question 29

Describe the response to a TCAS climb RA in the landing configuration.

Answer 29

- Disengage the autopilot and disengage the autothrottle. - Advance thrust levers forward to ensure maximum thrust is attained and call for FLAPS 15. - Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command. - Follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action. - Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call “GEAR UP.” (after positive rate call from PM).

Question 30

When would you not follow a TCAS RA?

Answer 30

You would not follow a descend RA issued below 1000 feet AGL.

Question 31

Visual Reference required for CAT I ILS / NPA?

Answer 31

Elements of the approach lighting system; ii) The threshold; iii) The threshold markings; iv) The threshold lights; v) The threshold identification lights; vi) The visual glide slope indicator; vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; viii) The touchdown zone lights; ix) Runway edge lights; x) Other visual reference accepted by the authority.

Question 32

Visual Reference required for CAT II ILS

Answer 32

A segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touch down zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting cross bar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

Question 33

Visual Reference required for CAT III ILS

Answer 33

A segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

Question 34

What does 'DENEB' mean when added to a METAR?

Answer 34

Fog dispersal operations are in progress

Question 35

What should you do if the FMS or its related components fail whilst flying a PRNAV procedure?

Answer 35

Advise ATC: “Unable RNAV due equipment" Climb above MSA if necessary Request Radar Vectors Use conventional Navaids

Question 36

(WA SOP): When the initial clearance is to a flight level, when should the PF set their altimeter to STD?

Answer 36

On completion of the Noise Abatement procedure – typically 3000’AGL. (The PM should reset standard when workload permits and initiate the altimeter check).

Question 37

Can you conduct an autoland onto a runway with a braking action of 'medium'?

Answer 37

No

Question 38

Describe the procedure for a visual circuit

Answer 38

- Downwind: Flap 5 - Abeam downwind end of the runway: Gear down, Flaps 15, set speed, start timing - Fly level for 45 secs (minus 1 sec for every 2kt tailwind) - Start descending turn - Base leg: Flaps 30/40, set speed, landing checklist - Turn final and land

Question 39

What is the minimum circuit height for a visual approach?

Answer 39

1500ft AAL

Question 40

When carrying out an autoland, what is the increment to the landing distance?

Answer 40

140m

Question 41

When is wing anti ice used on the ground?

Answer 41

Use wing anti-ice during all ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the airplane is, or will be protected by the application of Type II or Type IV fluid in compliance with an approved ground de-icing program.

Question 42

When does an airport implement LVPs?

Answer 42

The cloud ceiling is 200 ft or less; or the RVR has dropped to 600m or less.

Question 43

Which conditions should cause the ABORTED ENGINE START checklist to be accomplished?

Answer 43

- N1 or N2 does not increase or increases very slowly after the EGT increases - There is no oil pressure indication by the time that the engine is stable at idle - the EGT does not increase by 10 (classic) or 15 (NG) seconds after the engine start lever is moved to idle detent - The EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit

Question 44

Normal starter duty cycle: Each start attempt is limited to how many minutes of starter usage?

Answer 44

2 minutes

Question 45

Normal starter duty cycle: A minimum of how many seconds is needed between each start attempt?

Answer 45

10 Seconds

Question 46

During extended engine motorings what is the maximum usage time for the starter for the first two engine motorings?

Answer 46

15 minutes

Question 47

During extended engine motorings, how much time is needed between the first two attempts?

Answer 47

2 minutes

Question 48

What is the definition of "Max motoring" during engine start

Answer 48

N2 acceleration less than 1% (approx) in five seconds.