Command Process, good things to know (airline specific 738) Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

What is the approximate extra fuel burned for flight with the gear extended?

A

50%

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2
Q

Maximum distance that the take-off alternate may be away from the departure aerodrome?

A

320nm

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3
Q

Visual references required to continue a CAT II approach at DH

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights, centreline of the approach lights or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights or a combination of these. Should include a lateral element.

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4
Q

Visual references required to continue a CAT III approach at DH

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights, centreline of the approach lights or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights or a combination of these can be attained and maintained.

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5
Q

Planning minima for destination that has these approaches:
CAT II or CAT III
CAT I
RNP-APCH (Baro-VNAV)
NPA (LOC, VOR, NDB or RNP (LNAV))
Circling

A

CAT II or CAT III: CAT I RVR

CAT I: NPA MDH/RVR (ceiling at or above MDH)

RNP-APCH (Baro-VNAV): NPA MDH/RVR (ceiling at or above MDH)

NPA (LOC, VOR, NDB or RNP (LNAV)): MDH/RVR plus 200ft / 1000m

Circling: Circling

+/- 1 hour of ETA

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6
Q

Maximum speed in EFP hold?

A

230 kts

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7
Q

When calculating landing performance, when would you select Residual Ice to YES?

A
  • When intending to operate in icing conditions and the forecast landing temperature is below 10C
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8
Q

When is Single Engine Taxi In not done?

A
  • Failed electrical, Hydraulic, Braking or Steering System
  • Failed APU
  • Taxiways or ramps are either contaminated or slippery
  • Parking gate has an adverse gradient
  • Prohibited by Airport authorities / instructions
  • Strong wind conditions on ground (assessed by captain)
  • LVPs in force
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9
Q

When doing an inflight check of the Landing Distance at the Time Of Arrival, the landing distance available must be ___% of the landing distance required, using which brake setting?

A

115%
Max Manual
(As long as this is satisfied, you can use an autobrake setting where the unfactored landing distance is less than or equal to the LDA)

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10
Q

Does the company hold approval to fly RNP APCH (LPV) approaches?

A

No

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11
Q

What does the PA call “SENIOR TO FLIGHT DECK” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

The flight crew are aware of an emergency situation or aircraft has descended to a safer altitude following a decompression.

The SCCM and nearest crew member (inflight) will attend the flight deck. In case of decompression they will don portable oxygen and report to the Flight Deck. All others to remain on oxygen until advised.

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12
Q

What does the PA call “CABIN CREW TAKE YOUR SEATS” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

Impact is expected following a pre-planned emergency.

They will stop cabin preparations and sit down immediately.

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13
Q

What does the PA call “BRACE BRACE” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

Planned or Unplanned impact expected immediately.

Cabin Crew to adopt full brace position and to shout to passengers “brace brace” until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

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14
Q

What does the PA call “ATTENTION, ATTENTION! THIS IS THE CAPTAIN! EVACUATE, EVACUATE! (WATER)” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

Unsafe to be on aircraft following impact (either on land, or if ‘water’ added, following ditching).

Cabin crew to evacuate the aircraft.

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15
Q

What does the PA call “CABIN CREW AT STATIONS” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

No immediate danger, Flight Deck is OK and the PA is operable. More time needed to evaluate the situation and further information will follow.

Check for hazards, prepare to initiate evacuation. Ensure passengers wait for further commands.

Initiate own evacuation if clearly catastrophic.

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16
Q

What does the PA call “CABIN CREW STAND DOWN” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

Emergency situation is over.

Cabin crew should prepare for a normal arrival.
Passengers should be instructed to sit down.

17
Q

What does the PA call “CABIN CREW DESCENT” mean to the Cabin Crew and what will be their actions upon hearing it?

A

Aircraft is about to make a controlled descent following decompression.

Cabin crew will sit down, grab a mask and wait for further instructions.

18
Q

What are the four levels of disruptive behaviour on an aircraft? (ICAO)

A
  1. Disruptive behaviour (verbal)
  2. Physically abusive behaviour
  3. Life-threatening behaviour (or display of a weapon)
  4. Attempted or actual breach of the flight crew compartment.
19
Q

What do each of these codes mean?
WCHC
WCHR
WCHS

A

WCHC: Requires assistance to/from aircraft. Cannot manage steps and requires assistance to their seat.

WCHR: Requires assistance to/from aircraft. Can manage the steps. Self sufficient inside the aircraft.

WCHS: Requires assistance to/from the aircraft. Cannot manage steps. Self sufficient inside the aircraft.

20
Q

What does DPNA mean?

A

Disabled Person Needs Assistance.

21
Q

What are your considerations if the cabin temperature is starting to become excessively hot?

A

There is a QRH procedure, objective is to regain temperature control, it may mean descending and configuring to provide alternate ventilation.
It involves either turning left or right pack off and descending to 10,000ft or MSA. If temperature remains hot the existing pack is turned off.

22
Q

Describe the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start procedure

A

After Engine 2 started and sable:
- ISOLATION VALVE: CLOSE
- Right PACK switch: AUTO
- Duct Pressure: Stabilised
- Engine No. 1: Start
After Engine No.1 Stabilised:
- ISOLATION VALVE: AUTO

23
Q

An engine shows no response to thrust lever movement or the engine’s response is abnormal, which QRH non-normal checklist should you consult?

A

Engine Limit or Surge or Stall. (first two items are memory items):

Autothrottle (if engaged): Disengage
Thrust lever (affected engine) …Confirm…Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is closed

If you can’t get the engine controllable it will direct you to shut the engine down.

24
Q

You hear abnormal noises from an engine, possibly with airframe vibration. Which QRH non-normal checklist should you consult?
What are the memory items?

A

Engine Limit or Surge or Stall. (first two items are memory items):

Autothrottle (if engaged): Disengage
Thrust lever (affected engine) …Confirm…Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is closed

If you can’t get the engine controllable it will direct you to shut the engine down.

25
What is the FCTM guidance for if you get unreliable airspeed on Take-off at or after V1?
Maintain takeoff thrust, smoothly rotate towards 15 degrees pitch and establish the normal takeoff pitch attitude target, retract the landing gear, maintain flap configuration. Climb at the normal takeoff pitch attitude until reaching a safe altitude (acceleration height) and the the Airspeed Unreliable NNC.
26
An approach to land in heavy rain must not be continued unless the landing may be made with a Performance basis of '______________'?
Medium Poor
27
You get one or more of the following: - Vibration that originates, and is strongest in the aft part of the aeroplane but can be felt throughout the aeroplane. - Vibration that is felt in the control wheel and rudder pedals. - Vibration that causes items attached to the aeroplane, such as sun visors to move Which QRH procedure is most applicable?
Elevator Tab Vibration
28
When is VREF ICE used and what does it equate to?
- Engine anti-ice will be used during landing - Wing anti-ice has been used at any time during the flight - Icing conditions were encountered during the flight and the landing temperature is below 10C VREF ICE = VREF 15 + 10kts (Wind additive should not exceed 5 knots)
29
What does the amber light STAB OUT OF TRIM mean?
The autopilot does not set the stabilizer trim correctly.
30
List some threats and considerations when using the alternate flap extension system.
- No asymmetry or skew protection is provided. - When the system is energised, a momentary push of the Alternate Flaps position switch will drive the leading edge devices to full extension. - 230kts maximum - The leading edge devices cannot be retracted by the standby hydraulic system. - It takes around 2 minutes to extend the flaps to 15 using alternate extension. - When extending or retracting the flaps using the Alternate Flaps position switch, allow 15 seconds after releasing the switch before operating it again, to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch. - After a complete extend / retract cycle, (0-15 and back), allow 5 minutes cooling before attempting another extension. - If the gear is retracted, the landing gear configuration warning horn can sound when the flaps are between 10 and 15.
31
Crosswind limit for First and Second officers on a dry or wet runway?
Dry: 20kts Wet: 15kts
32
With regards to FMC Failure blanking in flight, OM-B Flying has some guidance; summarise what it is.
May be an error resulting in restart of FMC which can take from 30s to a few minutes. If the left FMC was primary at time of restart both CDUs will blank. This can give the appearance of dual FMC failure when only the left has restarted. To recover, either wait about a minute, or select the right FMC (Source Select switch to "Both on Right").
33
List the FMA changes from the start of the takeoff roll (from when TOGA switch pressed)
(top to bottom) N1 | | TO/GA THR HLD | | TO/GA (84kts) THR HLD |LNAV|TO/GA ARM |LNAV| TO/GA (800' aal) N1 |LNAV| TO/GA (Thrust Red.) N1 |LNAV| MCP SPD (AP eng.)
34
List the FMA changes for an automatic Go-Around (from when TOGA switch pushed)
(top to bottom) GA | | TO/GA GA | LNAV | TO/GA (above 400) MCP SPD | LNAV | ALT ACQ MCP SPD | LNAV | ALT HOLD
35
What equipment should be operating normally prior to entering RVSM airspace?
- Two primary altimeters - One autopilot with altitude hold capability - One altitude-alerting system - An SSR transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the primary altimeter in use.
36
Above 30,000 feet, all weather radar echoes should be avoided by __ miles
20