Type Rating Stuff (currently 737 Classic Based)

Question 1

What are the North and South limitations of the aircraft (due to the IRS)?

Answer 1

60 deg S, 73 deg N

Question 2

How many degrees of nose wheel steering does the tiller give?

Answer 2

78 degrees

Question 3

How many degrees of nose wheel steering do the rudder pedals give?

Answer 3

7 degrees

Question 4

From which fuel tank does the APU normally take fuel?

Answer 4

Tank 1

Question 5

How many overwing exits on each side does the 737-400 have?

Answer 5

2

Question 6

What is the Kva rating of the generators on the aircraft?

Answer 6

45Kva

Question 7

What’s the voltage of the TRUs?

Answer 7

28V

Question 8

How many electrical buses can the APU supply in flight?

Answer 8

One

Question 9

What is the load limit for an engine driver generator?

Answer 9

125 amps

Question 10

When in flight does the TR3 disconnect relay open?

Answer 10

Glideslope capture of flight director or autopilot ILS

Question 11

What voltage is the NiCad battery?

Answer 11

24V

Question 12

What’s the normal operating PSI of the hydraulic systems?

Answer 12

3000PSI

Question 13

Why does the B hydraulic system reservoir have a larger capacity than the A system reservoir?

Answer 13

It links with the standby system, if required.

Question 14

During ground operations, how much fuel should be in the number one fuel tank to ensure proper cooling of the A hydraulic fluid when using the electric hydraulic pump?

Answer 14

1676lbs / 760kg

Question 15

What are the conditions that will activate the hydraulic landing gear transfer unit?

Answer 15

After T/O, engine N2 falls below 56%, gear lever UP, gear not UP.

Question 16

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system in flight?

Answer 16

Flaps extended

Question 17

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system on the ground?

Answer 17

Flaps extended, wheel speed greater than 60kts

Question 18

What is the maximum permitted speed with the landing gear extended?

Answer 18

320kts / .82M

Question 19

What is the maximum permitted speed to retract the landing gear?

Answer 19

235kts

Question 20

What is the maximum permitted speed to extend the landing gear?

Answer 20

270kts / .82M

Question 21

After landing, what conditions need to exist for the autobrake to operate?

Answer 21

Autobrake selector to required mode, right main gear spin up, thrust levers near idle.

Question 22

Between which speeds on the take off roll will the autobrake not engage for an RTO?

Answer 22

60-90kts

Question 23

In flight; if the gear is not down and the thrust levers are retarded to idle, what happens to the gear lights?

Answer 23

Red lights illuminate.

Question 24

Which condition will cause the gear warning horn to sound (cannot be silenced)?

Answer 24

Flaps more than 15, gear not down, throttles in any position.

Question 25

In which position should the landing gear lever be for manual gear extension?

Answer 25

OFF

Question 26

Which hydraulic system normally powers the nose wheel steering?

Answer 26

A

Question 27

Which hydraulic system normally powers the normal brakes?

Answer 27

B

Question 28

How many packs can the APU power for take off, with engine bleeds off?

Answer 28

One

Question 29

Up to 10,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

Answer 29

One electrical system, one pack

Question 30

Up to 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

Answer 30

One electrical system OR one pack

Question 31

Over 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

Answer 31

One electrical system, NO pack

Question 32

What is the maximum APU operating altitude?

Answer 32

FL350

Question 33

Successful APU starts are assure upto what altitude?

Answer 33

25,000 ft

Question 34

APU fuel is normally supplied by which fuel tank, but can also be supplied by which tanks?

Answer 34

Tank 1, but can be supplied with left pump from centre tank or tank 2 with crossfeed.

Question 35

What's the max APU EGT at startup?

Answer 35

760C

Question 36

What's the max continuous APU EGT?

Answer 36

710C

Question 37

To start the APU, what is the minimum voltage required from the battery?

Answer 37

23V

Question 38

Most pneumatic bleed valves on the a/c are _________ activated and _________ operated.

Answer 38

Electrically activated and pneumatically operated.

Question 39

During the use of engine anti ice on the ground, in which position should the APU bleed valve be and why?

Answer 39

Closed, because APU bleed air could back pressure the engine 9th stage bleed, causing it to close and losing sufficient bleed pressure for engine anti ice.

Question 40

Under which conditions does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate?

Answer 40

APU bleed valve open, engine bleed SWITCHES in open position, potential for engines to backpressure the APU

Question 41

When is it acceptable to have the DUAL BLEED light on and what is the limitation?

Answer 41

During engine start; keep engine at idle power

Question 42

The bleed trip off temperature sensor is in which position relative to the bleed air pre-cooler?

Answer 42

Downstream

Question 43

For engine start, which position should the engine bleed switches be in?

Answer 43

OFF

Question 44

How many operating packs are required to keep the cabin altitude below 8000 ft at maximum certified ceiling?

Answer 44

ONE

Question 45

Above what cabin differential pressure does the flow control valve open?

Answer 45

2.5PSI

Question 46

The pack valves are spring loaded to which position?

Answer 46

Closed

Question 47

With a pack switch in AUTO position, aircraft in flight, flaps retracted, what will happen to the flow rate if the opposite pack goes off?

Answer 47

It will automatically switch to HIGH

Question 48

Regarding the packs, when are the Ram air doors fully open?

Answer 48

On the ground, in flight with flaps extended, in flight when maximum cooling is required.

Question 49

Roughly where in the cabin is the cabin temperature sensor?

Answer 49

Over row 3

Question 50

A DUCT OVERHEAT warning illuminates when the air conditioning duct reaches what temperature?

Answer 50

88C

Question 51

When a duct overheat is sensed, what happens to the mix control valves?

Answer 51

They drive full cold

Question 52

For the 737-400, with a temperature controller set at AUTO, what temperature will it try to maintain?

Answer 52

21C

Question 53

What is the maximum differential pressure for the aircraft?

Answer 53

8.65psid

Question 54

What is the maximum differential pressure for take off and landing?

Answer 54

0.125psid

Question 55

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when at or below 28,000ft?

Answer 55

7.45psid

Question 56

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when above 28,000ft?

Answer 56

7.80psid

Question 57

During taxi in, when does the main outflow valve move to full open?

Answer 57

N1 less than 50%

Question 58

What is the normal rate of climb and descent of the cabin?

Answer 58

300fpm

Question 59

Where is the accessory section on each engine?

Answer 59

At the side

Question 60

Which stages of the compressor are variable vane?

Answer 60

First 4

Question 61

Is it permissible for the oil pressure to go into the amber range and when?

Answer 61

Yes, at low power

Question 62

Is the oil temperature sensed before or after it is cooled?

Answer 62

Before

Question 63

When is the FLT position of the engine igniters used?

Answer 63

In-flight engine restarts

Question 64

During the start procedure, when should you move the start lever from cutoff to idle?

Answer 64

N2 25% (minimum 20%)

Question 65

At what % N2 should the starter cut out on the 737-800?

Answer 65

56% N2

Question 66

The number 2 engine thrust reverser is powered by which hydraulic system?

Answer 66

B

Question 67

To which position does the thrust reverser isolation valve fail?

Answer 67

Closed

Question 68

When does the 'REVERSER' light on the overhead panel illuminate?

Answer 68

When reverser is in motion. (If position disagrees for more than 12s, you get a master caution)

Question 69

Which fuel tanks are normally refuelled first?

Answer 69

Wings

Question 70

The fuel in which fuel tank is usually consumed first?

Answer 70

Centre

Question 71

What are the capacities of each wing fuel tank?

Answer 71

4555kgs

Question 72

What is the capacity of the centre fuel tank?

Answer 72

7029kgs

Question 73

How are the fuel pumps cooled and lubricated?

Answer 73

By the fuel

Question 74

How many pumps are there per each fuel tank?

Answer 74

Two

Question 75

Is it possible to transfer fuel between fuel tanks whilst in flight?

Answer 75

No

Question 76

What is the maximum random fuel imbalance?

Answer 76

1000lbs / 453kg

Question 77

The fuel pumps are AC or DC?

Answer 77

AC

Question 78

Which fuel pumps operate at higher pressure, centre of wing?

Answer 78

Centre (so that centre tank empties first)

Question 79

The engine fuel shut off valves are DC powered from which bus?

Answer 79

Hot battery bus

Question 80

If both centre tank fuel pumps fail, is the centre tank fuel useable?

Answer 80

No

Question 81

When is the crossfeed valve light illuminated bright blue?

Answer 81

When the valve is in motion.

Question 82

What is the maximum fuel temperature?

Answer 82

+49C

Question 83

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

Answer 83

+3C above fuel freezing temperature or -45C, whichever is greater.

Question 84

Does the aircraft have tail anti ice?

Answer 84

No

Question 85

For engine anti ice, does the engine bleed switch need to be on?

Answer 85

No

Question 86

If you select engine anti ice ON, which other engine related system must be switched on?

Answer 86

Continuous ignition

Question 87

Specifically, which part of the aircraft does the wing anti ice heat?

Answer 87

Leading edge slats only.

Question 88

How are the wing anti ice valves operated?

Answer 88

By an AC motor.

Question 89

If the power is lost to a wing anti ice valve, in which position does it fail?

Answer 89

In the position that it failed.

Question 90

Which of the cockpit windows are electrically heated?

Answer 90

L1, L2, L4, L5, R1, R2, R4, R5

Question 91

Specifically, what does the ON light mean with regard to the window heat system?

Answer 91

The system is applying electrical power to heat the windows

Question 92

If a heated window overheats, how long should you wait before resetting it?

Answer 92

2-5 minutes

Question 93

For how long before take off should the window heat be switched on?

Answer 93

10 minutes

Question 94

The engine and APU fire squibs are powered by which electrical bus?

Answer 94

Hot battery bus

Question 95

The engine and APU fire detection systems are powered by which electrical bus?

Answer 95

Battery bus (battery must be on for it to work)

Question 96

The wheel well fire detection system is powered by which electrical bus?

Answer 96

AC transfer bus 1

Question 97

When you pull up an engine fire switch, what does it do?

Answer 97

- Arms squib - Closes fuel valve at the tank - Closes bleed air valve - Closes thrust reverser isolation valve - Closes hydraulic valve (eng pump) - Trips gen. field and breaker

Question 98

When you pull up the APU fire switch, what does it do?

Answer 98

- Arms squib - Closes APU fuel shut off valve - Closes APU bleed air valve - Closes APU inlet door - Trips gen. field and breaker

Question 99

When moving the fire detection / protection test switch to FIRE / OVHT, is it normal to get a FAULT light illuminated?

Answer 99

No

Question 100

For cargo hold protection, which of the two bottles discharges at a slow rate?

Answer 100

Bottle 2

Question 101

When would the A/P red light come on?

Answer 101

If the Horizontal Stabilizer is out of trim below 800 ft. when on a dual channel AP approach; or when ALT ACQ is inhibited during go-around (due to stabilizer out of trim on single channel g/a).