Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CPS statements > Community Peds > Flashcards

Community Peds Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what are 4 things a physician should screen for in a child from a military family

A

depression/anxiety
behavioral concerns
academic concerns
high risk behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are 4 health impacts of housing need

A 
poorer school performance
food insecurity
easier spread of disease
asthma
more aggressive behavior
property offences
unsafe neighbourhood- anxiety, less physical activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
what do these mean: 
Inadequate housing	
Unsuitable housing
Unaffordable housing	
Unacceptable housing
Core housing need
A

Inadequate housing- In need of major repairs

Unsuitable housing (crowded)- Fails to meet the National Occupancy Standard requirements for number of bedrooms for the size and make-up of the household

Unaffordable housing- 30% or more of gross household income spent on shelter costs

Unacceptable housing- Does not meet at least one of the standards of adequacy, suitability and affordability

Core housing need- Unacceptable housing and household would have to spend 30% or more of their gross household income to access acceptable housing in their community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the screening questionnaire for housing need?

A

H- HARM
O- OCCUPANCY
M- MOVES
E- ENOUGH INCOME

Harm- is your house in need of major repairs?
Occupancy- how many people live in your home? how many bedrooms?
M- how often has your child moved? have you ever used a shelter or temporary housing?
E- do you have enough money for housing, food and utilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what percentage of Canadian households live in substandard housing or core housing need?

A

Approximately 30% of Canadian households live in substandard housing or core housing need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the two treatment options for ankyloglossia

A
  1. conservative (parental education, lactation support, reassurance)
  2. frenotomy- if significant feeding difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 2 antibiotics that are recommended for UTI prophylaxis

A
  1. Nitrofurantoin
  2. Septra
    1/4 to 1/3 of normal daily dose PO daily
    should only be used for a max of 3-6 months then reassessed
    if resistance to both them stop prophylactic antibiotics
    no evidence that it prevents renal scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the 6 most common bugs to cause UTI

A
  1. E. Coli
  2. Klebisella pneumonia
  3. Enterobacter species
  4. Citrobacter species
  5. Serratia species
  6. Staph saprophyticus (female teens only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long should you treat for a febrile UTI?
afebrile UTI?
who should you give IV abx?

A

febrile UTI: 7-10 days
afebrile UTI: 2-4 days of PO abs
IV abx if <3 months or complicated UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are 5 oral antibiotics that can be used to treat UTI

A
  1. amoxicillin
  2. amox/clav
  3. Septra
  4. Cefixime
  5. Cephalexin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are 5 IV antibiotics that can be used to treat UTI

A
  1. Ceftriaxone
  2. Ampicillin
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Cefotaxime
  5. Tobramycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what imaging should be done for a child <2 with their first febrile UTI

A

renal ultrasound during or within 2 weeks
looks for hydronephrosis
only do VCUG if renal ultrasound suggestive of issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the two types of weaning from breastfeeding

A
  1. Infant led weaning- Gradual weaning occurs as the infant begins to accept increasing amounts and types of complementary food while still breastfeeding on demand.
  2. Mother led weaning- A planned wean occurs when the mother decides to stop exclusive breastfeeding without receiving infant’s cues about readiness for this change.

Advise slow, progressive weaning when possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common surgery in children?

A

dental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common organism to cause early childhood caries

A

strep mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when should children have their first visit with the dentist?

A

dental assessment for infants within six months of their first tooth appearing and no later than one year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
What is the dB for:
normal hearing
mild
moderate
severe
profound
A 
Normal hearing: 0–20
Mild: 20–40
Moderate: 40–60
Severe: 60–80
Profound: >80
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most common type of hearing loss in neonatal period

A

sensorineural

50-% genetic- non syndromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are 5 risk factors for sensorineural hearing loss

A
  1. family history of permanent hearing loss
  2. craniofacial abnormalities
  3. congenital infections
  4. physical findings associated with an underlying syndrome associated with hearing loss
  5. NICU stay >2 days or with any of the following:
    - ECMO
    - assisted ventilation
    - ototoxic drug use
    - hyperbilirubinemia requiring exchange transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the two tests for newborn hearing

A
  1. OAE (otoacoustic emissions)
  2. AABR- automated auditory brainstem response (preferred for NICU as greater risk of auditory neuropathy)
    auditory neuropathy only picked up on AABR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are 4 reasons why ER ADHD medications are first line over IR preparations

A

1) improved adherence
2) reduced stigma (because the child or young person does not need to take medication at school)
3) reduce problems schools have in storing and administering controlled drugs, and
4) lower risk of diversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinically useful normal visual development landmarks
Face follow:
Visual following:
Visual acuity measurable with appropriate chart:

A

Face follow: Birth to four weeks of age.
Visual following: Three months of age.
Visual acuity measurable with appropriate chart: 42 months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
what are the vision screening recommendations for:
birth to 3 months
6 months to 12 months
3-5 years
6- 18 years
A

Newborn to 3 months
Complete exam of skin, external eye
Check red reflex

6 – 12 months
red reflex
cover- uncover test
corneal light reflex
Fixation and following of a target

3 – 5 years
add visual acuity

6 – 18 years
Screen as above during routine health visits or if there is a concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At was age can children recognize Snellen letters and numbers

A

most by age 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what 3 things should you screen for on an initial visit with a foster care child
vision hearing dental
26
what are 3 cardiac contraindications for flying
Uncontrolled hypertension Uncontrolled SVT Eisenmenger’s syndrome
27
Who should be screened for hypoxia prior to flying (7)
Patients with known or suspected hypoxemia Patients with known or suspected hypercapnia Patients with known chronic obstructive lung disease or restrictive lung disease Patients who already use supplemental oxygen Patients with a history of previous difficulty during air travel Patients with recent exacerbation of chronic lung disease Patients with other chronic conditions that may be exacerbated by hypoxemia
28
what are 4 health consequences of low literacy
Incorrect use of medications Failure to comply with medical directions Errors in administration of infant formula Safety risks in the community, the workplace and at home
29
what are 3 treatment options for nocturnal enuresis
1. Alarm- most efficacious (50% success long term), older children and highly motivated families 2. Desmopressin- sleepover 3. imipramine- dangers of overdose (TCA)
30
When do most children have continence
24-48 months | typically takes 3-6 months
31
What are signs that a child is ready for toilet training (7)
Able to walk to the potty chair Stable while sitting on the potty Able to remain dry for several hours Able to follow simple (one- and two-step) commands Able to communicate the need to use the potty with words or reproducible gestures Desire to please based on positive relationship with caregivers Desire for independence, and control of bladder and bowel function
32
Delayed sleep phase type
initiation of sleep significantly later than the desired bedtime sleep latency >30 minutes
33
Sleep-onset association type
special conditions are required of caregivers before the child goes, or returns to sleep at night
34
what are some suggestions for sleep hygiene (6)
``` Stable bedtime and wake time Dark quiet space Avoid hunger (an excessive eating) before bed Relaxation techniques before bed Avoid caffeine, alcohol, nicotine Avoid screen time before bed ```
35
3 side effects of melatonin
headache dizziness abdominal pain
36
What are the two times when soiling develops
1. toilet training | 2. starting school
37
what are some recommendations you can make for constipation
1. Education 2. Behavioral modification- toilet sitting x 3-10min twice a day 3. Disimpaction- PEG 1- 1.5g/kg/day 4. PEG daily- 0.4-0.8g/kg/day 5. Dietary changes- fibre 0.5g/kg day, adequate fluid intake, whole grains, fruits, vegetables
38
what are the 4 osmotic laxatives
Lactulose PEG3350 Magnesium Citrate Docusate- no evidence in peds
39
what are the 5 stimulant laxatives
``` Picosalax Glycerine suppository Bisacodyl Senokot Phosphate Enema ```
40
what are some risk factors for positional plagiocephaly (7)
Males Firstborn Torticollis Supine sleeping at birth and at six weeks Only bottle feeding Tummy time <3 times per day Lower activity level with slower achievement of milestones
41
what are 2 ways to prevent positional plagiocephaly
tummy time 15 min/day 3 times per day | alternating putting the head at the head and foot of the bed
42
By what age does positional plagiocephaly typically resolve
by age 2
43
what should you evaluate a baby for when you are seeing them for positional plagiocephaly (3)
1. torticollis 2. craniosynostosis 3. cervical spine abnormalities
44
what are the treatment options for positional plagiocephaly (2)
Repositioning therapy plus physiotherapy as needed are the interventions of choice in most children with mild or moderate PP helmet therapy can be consider for severe must be started before 8 months of age helmet therapy has been shown to influence the rate of improvement of asymmetry but not its final outcome
45
How can you differentiate lamboid craniosynostosis from positional plagiocephaly
ridging of the affected suture The skull will show ipsilateral occipitomastoid bossing with posterior displacement of the ear. This contrasts with the ipsilateral anterior displacement of the ear with PP
46
when should infants start wearing shoes?
when they are walking!
47
what are the two most important modifiable risk factors for SIDS
1. Prone Sleeping | 2. Maternal smoking during pregnancy
48
what are some methods to help reduce SIDS (8)
1. Place on back to sleep (supine) 2. Eliminate smoke exposure (Both during pregnancy and after) 3. Only sleep in crib/cradle/bassinet No soft sleeping surfaces, no soft bedding 4. Avoid overheating 5. Do not leave to sleep in car seats, strollers, swings, etc. 6. Room sharing for first 6 months NOT bed sharing; even higher risk if sharing with smoker, under influence of alcohol, or overly tired. 7. Breastfeeding- Any breastfeeding for any duration is protective – goal is minimum of 6 months 8. Pacifier use while falling asleep
49
what are the 2 insecticide treatments for lice? when should you repeat? what is a non insecticidal treatment?
1) Permethrin 1%; repeat in 7 days 2) Pyrethrins = R&C shampoo; repeat 7-10 days (>2 years of age for insecticidal treatments) * 2 applications 7 to 10 days apart Non insecticidal: 1) Resultz (must be >4 years of age)
50
what is required for the diagnosis of head lice?
Diagnosis requires detection of live head lice. Detecting nits alone does not indicate active infestation.
51
What is considered "normal" for stooling patterns in infants?
Remember that normal breastfed newborns may stool with each feeding or may not stool at all for 7-10 d
52
What is the difference between bedsharing and cosleeping?
-Bedsharing: baby shares same sleeping surface with another person Co-sleeping: baby is within arm's reach of another person but not on the same sleeping surface
53
When does longitudinal arch development occur in children?
Longitudinal arch development occurs before the age of 6-all children
54
What 3 characteristics of children lead to higher incidence of flatfoot?
1. Greater laxity of ligaments 2. Obesity 3. Shoe wearing in early childhood
55
What are the complications of frenotomy? (3)
1. Bleeding 2. Infection 3. Injury to Wharton's duct 4. Postoperative scarring resulting in worsened limitation of tongue movement
56
STI screening guidelines in adolescent who is sexually active
G/C screening in ALL who are sexually active HIV screening in ALL who are sexually active and >15yo No pap until >21yo
57
what is Ankyloglossia?
abnormally short lingular frenulum | prevalence: 5-10%
58
what converts nitrate to nitrite
gram negative bacteria
59
what is considered a complicated UTI and therefore requires IV antibiotics (6)
``` Hemodynamically unstable High serum Cr Abdo mass Poor urine flow No clinical improvement 24h post Abx Fever not coming down 48h post Abx ```
60
When stimulant medications for ADHD are indicated what medication class is first line?
extended release preparations
61
children in foster care should have routine screening for what?
development mental health dental health sexually transmitted infections initial medical visit within 24 h of placement, a comprehensive follow-up visit within 30 days of placement
62
Are healthy children on a prolonged flight at risk for deep vein thrombosis?
No evidence that healthy children on a prolonged flight are at risk for deep vein thrombosis
63
how long should children with AOM wait before air travel?
children with AOM should wait two weeks before air travel
64
what is secondary enuresis?
Secondary enuresis = incontinence recurs after at least 6 months of continence - more common in boys
65
what are some recommendations for enuresis
Avoid caffeine-containing foods and excessive fluids before bed Void before bedtime Take out of diapers Include child in morning cleanup in non-punitive manner Preserve self-esteem** only treat if distressing to the child
66
melatonin can be helpful for which 2 populations
ADHD ASD may be helpful in epilepsy, neurodevelopmental disabilities and Angelman syndrome.
67
what is the dose of melatonin in children? adolescents?
2.5-3 mg in children | 5-10 mg in adolescents
68
how long does cps recommend for trial of stool softeners?
at least 6 months
69
neg things associated with helmet therapy for plagiocephaly? what is the maximum age for helmet therapy?
``` expensive 23h/d pressure sore, dermatitis max age for helmet therapy= 8 months Influences the rate of improvement of asymmetry but NOT its final outcome ```
70
what are the interventions of choice in most children with mild or moderate PP?
Repositioning therapy plus physiotherapy as needed are the interventions of choice in most children with mild or moderate PP.

CPS statements (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions