HTHSCI 1J03 > Culminating Deck Test #1 > Flashcards

Culminating Deck Test #1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Define isotope and radioisotope.

A

Isotope = atom with same # of protons and electrons, different # of neutrons.
Radioisotope = harmful isotope of an atom with an unstable nucleus. Decays spontaneously and can release radiation.

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2
Q

Group together the following terms: synthesis, decomposition, exergonic, endergonic, catabolic, anabolic.

A

Decomposition reactions are catabolic and exergonic.
Synthesis reactions are anabolic and endergonic.

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3
Q

What are the three body-mediated mechanisms of pH balance?

A
  1. respiratory excretion of CO2
  2. renal excretion of H+
  3. buffer systems
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4
Q

What are the three buffer systems?

A
  1. protein (amino acts as base, carboxyl group acts as acid)
  2. phosphate
  3. bicarbonate
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5
Q

What are the five types of proteins and their general function?

A

Structural = provide structural support ex. collagen, keratin.
Regulatory = hormones, neurotransmitters ex. insulin, substance P
Contractile = MSK ex. actin, myosin
Immunological = protects body from pathogens, ex. antibodies, cytokines
Transport = carry substances ex. albumin, hemoglobin
Catalytic = work as enzymes ex. amylase

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6
Q

What are the two carbohydrate-induced infant digestive disorders?

A

Lactose intolerance (lack of lactase), fructosemia (inability to break down fructose)

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7
Q

Describe the structure of fatty acids. What is the difference between saturated/unsaturated?

A

Fatty acids are HC chains with an alpha-end carboxyl group. Saturated = max # of hydrogen, all single bonds. Unsaturated = monounsaturated has one double bond, polyunsaturated has more than one.

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8
Q

What are sphingolipids? Sphingomyelins?

A

Type of lipid found in cell membranes, specifically nerve cells, brain tissue. Have an alcohol and amine attachment. Sphingomyelins help make up the lipids in myelin sheaths.

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9
Q

What is an eicosanoid? Name three/describe.

A

Fatty acids that signal cell and tissue functions. Derived from unsaturated precursor fatty acid, arachidonic acid.
1. leukotriene = inflammation
2. prostaglandins = vasodilation
3. thromboxane = clotting

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10
Q

What are glycerides? What are triglycerides, and what are their three functions?

A

Lipids that contain fatty acids and glycerol, react with glycerol to form ester bonds. Triglycerides have 1 phosphate/glycerol head, 3 fatty acids.
1. form membranes
2. act as surfactant
3. energy transfer in mitochondria

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11
Q

Describe the structure of steroids. What are the two types, and what are steroids derived from?

A

3 cyclohexanes, 1 cyclopentane. Sex and corticosteroids. Derived from cholesterol.

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12
Q

The bicarbonate buffer system occurs _____ in RBC’s and ____ in plasma. Which enzyme speeds up the reaction in RBC’s?

A

Quickly, slowly. Carbonic anhydrase.

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13
Q

Redo the chart of resp/met acidosis/alkalosis.

A

Resp acidosis = low pH, high CO2, normal HCO3, compensate by excreting H+, absorbing HCO3.
Met acidosis = low pH, normal CO2, low HCO3, compensate by hyperventilating.
Resp alkalosis = high pH, low CO2, normal HCO3, compensate by absorbing H+, excreting HCO3.
Met alkalosis = high pH, normal CO2, high HCO3, compensate by hypoventilating.

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14
Q

Why should aspirin be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Aspirin slows down the production and synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxane (vasodilation, clotting).

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15
Q

Name the acronym “APGAR.”

A

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration.

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16
Q

Name the three parts of a nucleotide and the nitrogenous base matching pairs.

A

Pentose sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate group.
Pyrimidines: cytosine 3H bond w/ guanine
Purines: adenine 2H bond w/ thymine, or in RNA, adenine 2H bond w/ uracil

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17
Q

What are the three (broad) steps to DNA replication?

A

Transcription, translation, polypeptide creation

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18
Q

Name 3 examples of mutagens and mutations.

A

Mutagens: alkylating agents, oxidizing agents, UV rays
Mutations: point, deletion, chromosomal translation

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19
Q

What are the three forms of transport across the cell membrane? Describe.

A

Passive = concentration gradient through diffusion.
Hydrostatic pressure = mech. force of water pushing against membranes.
Active = cellular energy used to drive substance against gradient

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20
Q

Name the function of proteasomes, lysosomes, and peroxisomes.

A

Proteasomes = break down faulty proteins in cells
Lysosomes = break down organelles/waste in or outside cell
Peroxisomes = break down toxins, high in liver.

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21
Q

What are the 4 fat soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, K

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22
Q

What does vitamin A do? Vitamin D?

A

A = eyes, epithelial
D = calcium homeostasis, hormones

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23
Q

What does vitamin K do? Folate?

A

K = clotting & stopping hemorrhage
Folate = creation/repair of DNA

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24
Q

What does thiamin do? Pyridoxine?

A

Thiamin = cellular respiration
Pyridoxine = metabolism of proteins/fats

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25
What does linoleic acid (omega fatty acids) do?
Reduces cholesterol, protects against heart disease/stroke, vascular issues.
26
What are the six functions of the liver?
Bile production, maintain glucose, protein catabolism/anabolism, vitamin storage, detoxifies drugs, conjugation of bilirubin
27
Which cells are apart of the innate vs. adaptive immune system?
Innate = phagocytes, NK cells Adaptive = lymphocytes (T/B)
28
What is the function of cyto/chemokines? What are the 2 network pathways?
Function = regulate immune response to injury/infection Pathways = redundant & complex
29
What do defensins and dermcidins do?
Secreted by cells on skin, bind to bacterial/fungal cell membranes, forming pores that allow toxins to drain out
30
How do dendritic cells connect the innate and adaptive immune systems?
Dendritic cells are phagocytes that will engulf a pathogen, present its antigen on its MHC (major histocompatibility complex), and head to the lymph nodes to present the antigen to lymphocytes.
31
What are the four lymphoid organs?
Thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
32
Where are B cells found in the lymph nodes? T cells? Macrophages?
B = primary lymphoid follicle T = paracortical area Macrophages = medullary cords
33
How do natural killer cells work? What do they release?
Target infected/cancerous cells. They use perforin to tear open the cell, granzyme to kill it. Release cytokines/chemokines.
34
What does tumor necrosis factor do? Interferon gamma?
TN = neutrophil activation IG = macrophage activation, T cell differentiation
35
What do the 2 interleukin cells do?
8 = neutrophil recruitment from blood 6 = tissue inflammation
36
What are three things special about the adaptive immune system?
It is specific, systemic, and has memory
37
What are the five phases of adaptive immune response?
1. antigen recognition 2. activation of lymphocytes (T/B) 3. antigen elimination 4. decline of effector cell function 5. memory development
38
What are 3 differences between T/B cells?
1. T cells are developed in the thymus, B cells in bone marrow 2. T cells have 1 recognition site, B has 2 3. T cells are always membrane bound, B cells can be membrane-bound or antibodies
39
What are 3 differences between MHC I and MHC II?
MHC I: on all nucleated cells, presents to CD8+ T cells, binds endogenously MHC II: found mostly on APCs, presents to CD4+ T cells, binds exogenously
40
What are the two types of CD4+ T cells? What do they do?
Th1: activate macrophages, produce CD8+ Th2: kill helminths via eosinophils/mast cells, activate B cells
41
What are the 5 classes of immunoglobin antibodies? Order them from most to least abundant.
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE.
42
Which immunoglobin transfers through milk? Placenta?
Milk = IgA, Placenta = IgG
43
Define autoimmunity, allergy, alloimmunity.
Autoimmunity = immune response misdirected at host's own tissues Allergy = immune response to environmental factor Alloimmunity = immune response to transfusion/transplant
44
Which immunoglobin class is produced (and from what cell) during an allergic reaction? What is activated?
IgE by B cells. Mast cells are activated to produce prostaglandins and histamine.
45
Name the 3 parts of blood and describe them.
RBC = no nucleus, carry O2 & CO2 WBC = nucleated, immune response Platelets = no nucleus, clotting
46
What is standard hematocrit? What causes higher/lower?
40-45%. Higher = altitude, dehydration, smoking. Lower = vitamin deficiency, anemia.
47
Make a chart of all blood types, antigens present on RBCs, and antibodies present.
A = A antigen, anti-B antibodies B = B antigen, anti-B antibodies AB = A & B antigens, no antibodies O = no antigens, anti-A, anti-B antibodies
48
Red blood cells cannot repair due to lack of _____. ________ in the liver/spleen/BM _______ worn out RBCs and break apart __________.
Organelles, macrophages, phagocytose, hemoglobin
49
When hemoglobin is broken down, what does globin contain? Heme?
Globin = amino acids Heme = iron, non-iron (biliverdin, bilirubin)
50
Where does bilirubin travel to, and what happens to it at that location?
Travels to liver, becomes conjugated with glucuronic acid to become bilirubin diglucuronide.
51
What happens to bilirubin diglucuronide in the large and small intestine?
Broken down into urobilinogen, becomes urobilin (urine) and stercobilin (feces).
52
Describe the structure of enveloped and unenveloped viruses.
Unenveloped = nucleic acids, capsid Enveloped = nucleic acids, capsid, glycoproteins, matrix proteins
53
What are the five ways a virus can enter the body?
1. ingestion 2. inhalation 3. injection (straight into blood) 4. sexual 5. placenta
54
What are the 3 methods an RNA virus can replicate in a host?
Direct: viral genome acts like mRNA ex. rubella. Independent: viral RNA is transcribed by viral RNA polymerase, but inside host ex. influenza Reverse transcription: ex. HIV
55
What is the virus life cycle when entering a host cell?
Attachment, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release
56
What are the four outcomes of viral infection?
1. lytic. virus leaves, cell dies 2. persistent. virus leaves, cell lives. 3. latent. lays dormant until triggered. 4. cancer.
57
Describe bacteria.
Bacteria are prokaryotes with no nucleus, have plasmids that carry genetic information, covered by a cell wall and lipids.
58
What are eukaryotes? Name three examples.
Cells with membrane-bound nuclei. Ex. fungi, protozoa, vertebrates.
59
Name the three structural arrangements of bacteria, and the three sub-group arrangements of the one type.
1. spirochetes 2. bacilli 3. cocci (staphylococci, diplococci, streptococci)
60
What is different about gram negative bacteria from gram positive bacteria?
Has a thinner peptidoglycan wall, periplasmic space, and an outer membrane containing endotoxic lipopolysaccharides. Does not have teichoic acid.
61
How are catalase and coagulase used with bacteria?
Catalase = breaks down H2O2 released by WBC to kill bacteria Coagulase = forms a blood clot around bacteria to stop immune cells
62
What do plasmids and bacteriophages do (together)?
These are extra-chromosomal DNA elements that replicate independent of genomic DNA, allow exchange between different types of bacteria.
63
What are virulence genes?
Virulence genes are contained by plasmids and produce toxins and enzymes, which contribute to antibiotic resistance.
64
Name the three strains of streptococci.
Alpha-hemolytic = green, partial hemolysis Beta-hemolytic = clear, complete hemolysis Gamma-hemolytic = red, no hemolysis
65
Name the 3 groups of streptococci and their corresponding strains.
Group A = strep, fever, necrotizing tissue. Beta-hemolytic. Group B = intestinal & vaginal flora. Beta-hemolytic. Group D = UTIs, endocarditis. Alpha, gamma-hemolytic.
66
What are the two strains of fungi? How do they replicate, and what diseases do they cause?
Yeast and branched filamentous. Yeast = budding & division, cause deep mycosis (internal organ damage) BM = spores, cause superficial mycosis (ex. athlete's foot)
67
Protozoa are ______, ______-celled animals that typically contain __________ on their cell structure. They can occur as free living organisms or as ________, and reproduce through _______ _______.
Eukaryotic, single, flagella, parasites, binary fission.
68
Helminths are multicellular ________ that parasite organs, especially ____. They have ______ reproduction, but the _____ ________ is specifically designed to combat their penetration. What are 2 forms of transmission?
Worms, GI, sexual, intestinal mucosa. 1. swallowing infective stages ex. eggs/larvae 2. larvae penetrating skin
69
How is the plasma membrane different in bacteria (prokaryotes) than eukaryotes?
No mitochondria in prokaryotes, PM performs ETC & oxidative phosphorylation. Also excretes hydrolytic exoenzymes.
70
What do hydrolytic enzymes do?
Helps bacteria digest food outside of their cell body.
71
What is the reference range?
Within 2 standard deviations from normal range
72
What is analytical variability? Biological variability?
Analytical = variation between 2 identical tests Biological = variation between 2 tests taken at different times
73
What is the difference between sensitivity and specificity?
Sensitivity = detects all people with disease, 100% sensitive test has no false negatives. Specificity = detects all people without disease. 100% specificity has no false positives.
74
What is the positive predictive value?
PPV = likelihood that the test, if positive, indicates the disease is actually present.

HTHSCI 1J03 (17 decks)

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