D201-400 Flashcards
1
Q
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh
A
Obturator nerve
2
Q
What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?
A
Median nerve lesion
3
Q
What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
A
Deltoid
4
Q
What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?
A
Inferior phrenic artery
5
Q
What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
A
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
6
Q
What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?
A
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
7
Q
What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?
A
CN IX and X
8
Q
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
A
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
9
Q
What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
A
Resorb CSF into the blood
10
Q
Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?
A
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
11
Q
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
A
Nucleus pulposus
12
Q
What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
A
Puborectalis
13
Q
What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus?
A
Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar
14
Q
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
A
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
15
Q
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Nasopharynx?
A
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
16
Q
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Oropharynx?
A
Glossopharyngeal nerve
17
Q
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Laryngopharynx?
A
Vagus nerve
18
Q
What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
A
Pia mater
19
Q
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?
A
Urinary trigone
20
Q
What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand?
A
Volkmann’s contracture
21
Q
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
A
Chordae tendineae
22
Q
What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?
A
Internal iliac nodes
23
Q
What bursa is inflamed in clergyman’s knee?
A
Infrapatellar bursa
24
Q
What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?
A
Psoas major
25
What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in bronchoconstriction?
Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve, results in bronchoconstriction, whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.
26
What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?
The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)
27
What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?
Subarachnoid hematoma
28
What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?
1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
29
What structure of the knee is described thus? • C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament
Medial meniscus
30
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents posterior displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia
Posterior cruciate ligament
31
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents adduction
Lateral collateral ligament
32
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia
ACL
33
What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents abduction
Medial collateral ligament
34
What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific.
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve, and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
35
What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.
36
From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived?
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
37
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis
Phallus
38
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Scrotum
Labioscrotal swelling
39
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland
Urogenital sinus
40
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Testes, seminiferous tubules, and rete testes
Gonads
41
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Ventral part of the penis
Urogenital folds
42
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Gubernaculum testes
Gubernaculum
43
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct
Mesonephric duct
44
Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
45
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?
6 weeks 10 weeks
46
What results when the palatine prominences fail to fuse with the other side?
Cleft palate
47
What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
Vitelline fistula
48
Where do the primordial germ cells arise?
From the wall of the yolk sac
49
What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?
Male pseudo-intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.
50
Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
51
During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?
Third week
52
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebral hemispheres
Proencephalon
53
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Midbrain
Mesencephalon
54
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebellum
Rhombencephalon
55
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Medulla
Rhombencephalon
56
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Diencephalon
Proencephalon
57
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Metencephalon
Rhombencephalon
58
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Telencephalon
Proencephalon
59
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Thalamus
Proencephalon
60
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Eye
Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative
61
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pons
Rhombencephalon
62
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Myelencephalon
Rhombencephalon
63
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pineal gland
Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative
64
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebral aqueduct
Mesencephalon
65
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Neurohypophysis
Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative
66
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Third ventricle
Proencephalon
67
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Hypothalamus
Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative
68
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Lateral ventricles
Proencephalon
69
What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy?
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
70
What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
71
How many oogonia are present at birth?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
72
What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
73
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Left umbilical vein
Ligament teres
74
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Foramen ovale
Fossa ovale
75
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Right and left umbilical arteries
Medial umbilical ligaments
76
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus arteriosus
Ligamentum arteriosum
77
What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus venosus
Ligamentum venosum
78
Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality?
Treacher Collins syndrome
79
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis
80
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the penis?
Hypospadia
81
What CN is associated with the • First pharyngeal arch?
CN V
82
What CN is associated with the • Second pharyngeal arch?
CN VII
83
What CN is associated with the • Third pharyngeal arch?
CN IX
84
What CN is associated with the • Fourth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
85
What CN is associated with the • Fifth pharyngeal arch?
None; it degenerates.
86
What CN is associated with the • Sixth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
87
What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
88
What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?
DiGeorge's syndrome
89
What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
The notochord
90
What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
91
Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial?
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
92
What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?
The second pharyngeal pouch and groove
93
How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
94
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Middle ear
First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
95
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
96
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus
Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
97
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Palatine tonsil
Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
98
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis?
Epispadia
99
True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place.
True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is menses.
100
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
Muscles of the internal eye
101
What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to incomplete recanalization?
Extrahepatic biliary atresia
102
What hormone, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum?
hCG
103
How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?
Four
104
All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age?
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
105
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
Truncus arteriosus
106
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium
Sinus venosus
107
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left ventricles
Primitive ventricle
108
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus
Bulbus cordis
109
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left atria
Primitive atrium
110
After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses, causing cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it termed?
Eisenmenger's syndrome
111
True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative.
True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are not a component of the gastrointestinal system.
112
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
113
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Urinary bladder and urethra
Urogenital sinus
114
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • External genitalia
Phallus, urogenital folds, and labioscrotal swellings
115
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Nephrons, kidney
Metanephros
116
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Median umbilical ligament
Urachus
117
True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.
TRUE
118
Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives.
1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.
119
Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
120
The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?
Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.
121
Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week?
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
122
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and spongiosum
Phallus
123
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Gartner's duct
Mesonephric duct
124
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii
Gonads
125
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper third of the vagina
Paramesonephric ducts
126
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia majora
Labioscrotal swelling
127
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia minora
Urogenital folds
128
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovarian and round ligaments
Gubernaculum
129
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Urinary bladder, urethra, greater vestibular glands, vagina
Urogenital sinus
130
What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of rotation?
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
131
What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and female external genitalia?
Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)
132
Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical signs of what?
Hydatidiform mole
133
True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to birth.
False. It closes just after birth because the change in pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.
134
At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte arrested?
Metaphase II
135
What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios, bile-containing vomitus, and a distended stomach?
Duodenal atresia
136
What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst?
A patent processus vaginalis
137
True or false? The respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.
True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
138
What is the name for failure of the allantois to close, resulting in a urachal fistula or sinus?
Patent urachus
139
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
The mouth
140
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
Spleen
141
What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other tissue types?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
142
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
143
True or false? For implantation to occur the zona pellucida must degenerate.
True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post fertilization!
144
What results when the maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence?
Cleft lip
145
What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
146
During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?
Third week
147
In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
Week four, and they remain dormant there until puberty.
148
What embryonic week sees the formation of the notochord and the neural tube?
Third week
149
What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel receives blood from both the right and left ventricles?
Persistent truncus arteriosus
150
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
151
Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
152
Which three CNs send sensory information to the solitary nucleus?
CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.
153
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion, resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion
Medial medullary syndrome
154
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Contralateral corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI
Medial pontine syndrome
155
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Slow-growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
156
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Occlusion of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral pain and body temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
157
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the body, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and hearing loss
Lateral pontine syndrome
158
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Posterior cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal tract signs, contralateral corticobulbar signs to the lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
159
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The midbrain?
CN III and IV
160
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper medulla?
CN IX, X, and XII
161
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • Pontomedullary junction?
CN VI, VII, and VIII
162
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper pons?
CN V
163
What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?
Accessory nucleus
164
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Supplies the muscles of mastication?
Motor nucleus of CN V
165
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face, scalp, dura, and the oral and nasal cavities?
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
166
What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Forms the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?
Mesencephalic nucleus
167
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The flocculonodular lobe?
The lateral vestibular nucleus
168
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The vermis?
The fastigial nucleus
169
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?
The interposed nucleus
170
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The intermediate hemispheres?
The dentate nucleus
171
What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are inhibitory neurons, and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.
172
What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?
CN III, IV, and VI
173
What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?
Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)
174
What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?
The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or loses balance when standing with eyes open. In a dorsal column lesion, patients sway with eyes closed. (Don't forget this one.)
175
Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
176
What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum, helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
177
What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
178
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
Ptosis (eyelid drooping), miosis (pupillary constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1-to T4 are obstructed.
179
What component of the inner ear • Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
Semicircular canal
180
What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
Semicircular duct
181
What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting changes in head position?
Utricle and saccule
182
What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Subacute combined degeneration, which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.
183
What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities related to a lesion in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus?
Wernicke's encephalopathy
184
Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?
MGB
185
Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
186
What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Syringomyelia
187
What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
188
Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?
White rami are preganglionic fibers, whereas grey rami are postganglionic fibers.
189
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
190
What CN transmits sensory information from the cornea?
CN V1, the occulomotor division of the trigeminal nerve, is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.
191
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
Lumbar splanchnics
192
Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems?
The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually synapsing with second sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the second neuron cell body sends its axons to synapse in the thalamus. The third sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary somatosensory cortex.
193
What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?
Accommodation
194
What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax, foregut, and midgut?
CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.)
195
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
196
What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are axons of all other sources and synapse on granule cells.
197
What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
CN III, VII, IX, and X
198
Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges and spinal cord project through a vertebral defect
Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
199
Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges project through a vertebral defect
Meningocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
200
Name the form of spina bifida. • An open neural tube lying on the surface of the back
Myeloschisis All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
