D801-1000 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What is the relationship between chance of error and • Sample size?
A
As sample size increases, the lower the chance of error.
2
Q
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Colorful, dramatic, extroverted, seductive, and unable to hold long-term relationships
A
Histrionic
3
Q
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • In a constant state of crisis, promiscuous, unable to tolerate anxiety-causing situations, afraid of being alone, and having intense but brief relationships
A
Borderline
4
Q
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Criminal behavior; lacking friends, reckless, and unable to conform to social norms
A
Antisocial
5
Q
Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Grandiose sense of self-importance; demands constant attention; fragile self-esteem; can be charismatic
A
Narcissistic
6
Q
In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for shaken baby syndrome”? What do you look for?
A
Look for broken blood vessels in the baby’s eyes.
7
Q
What case is known as “let nature take its course”?
A
Infant Doe. Generally, parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment, but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule.
8
Q
If the P value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?
A
Reject it
9
Q
What disorder is characterized by an alternating pattern of depressed mood with periods of hypomania for more than 2 years?
A
Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.
10
Q
What projective test asks the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the pictures, evaluating the conflicts, drives, and emotions of the individual?
A
TAT (Thematic apperception test)
11
Q
What has proved to be the best way to extinguish enuresis?
A
Bell pad
12
Q
What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the difference between the two groups?
A
Ordinal scale (e.g., faster/slower, taller/shorter)
13
Q
What is associated with prolonged lithium use?
A
Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)
14
Q
What scale has a true zero point, graded into equal increments, and also orders them?
A
Ratio scale
15
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Triangle
A
6 years old
16
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Cross
A
4 years old
17
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Diamond
A
7 years old
18
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Square
A
5 years old
19
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Circle
A
3 years old
20
Q
By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Rectangle
A
4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a diamond last: circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle)
21
Q
What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?
A
Antisocial personality
22
Q
What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?
A
Stanford-Binet Scale, developed in 1905, is useful in the very bright, the impaired, and children less than 6 years old.
23
Q
What type of foods should patients taking MAOIs avoid? Why?
A
Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, dried fish, sauerkraut, chocolate, avocados, and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.
24
Q
What form of anxiety, appearing at 6 months, peaking at 8 months, and disappearing by 1 year of age, is seen in the presence of unfamiliar people?
A
Stranger anxiety
25
What are the three stages that children aged 7 months to 5 years go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a long time?
1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
26
What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR, Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
27
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?
Birth defects, low birth weight (< 1500 g) with neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), and SIDS
28
Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects?
Moving objects, along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.
29
What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?
Alcoholics Anonymous
30
How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?
Long-term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.
31
What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?
Trazodone
32
What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade decision (legalization of abortion)?
The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.
33
What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning?
The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.
34
The proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened population who are identified as diseased refers to?
Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)
35
How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa?
At least 15%
36
True or false? According to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control.
False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.
37
What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?
Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)
38
What are the four exceptions to requirements for informed consent?
1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency
39
What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain before, after, or during sexual intercourse?
Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.
40
What type of bias is it when the sample population is not a true representative of the population?
Selection bias
41
In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a sleeping individual?
During stage 3 and 4 (remember, it is called deep sleep.)
42
What is the period between falling asleep and REM sleep called?
REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.
43
What case is best known for use of the "best interest standard"?
Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not apply because the patient had never been competent, so no one knew what the patient would have wanted. Therefore, the decision was based on what a "reasonable" person would have wanted.
44
What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
Disulfiram
45
According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?
Superego
46
What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?
Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.
47
What somatoform disorder is described as • Having a F:M ratio of 20:1, onset before age 30, and having 4 pains (2 gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?
Somatization disorder
48
What somatoform disorder is described as • La belle indifférence, suggestive of true physical ailment because of alteration of function?
Conversion disorder
49
What somatoform disorder is described as • Unrealistic negative opinion of personal appearance, seeing self as ugly?
Body dysmorphic disorder
50
What somatoform disorder is described as • Preoccupied with illness or death, persisting despite reassurance, lasting longer than 6 months?
Hypochondriasis (they will begin with "I think I have...")
51
What somatoform disorder is described as • Severe, prolonged pain that persists with no cause being found, disrupts activities of daily living?
Somatoform pain disorder
52
What statistical test compares the means of many groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an interval variable?
One-way ANOVA
53
What disease is described by the following characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics, average age of onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and association with increased levels of dopamine?
Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.
54
In Parkinson's disease, what area of the basal ganglia has a decreased amount of dopamine?
Substantia nigra
55
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids?
Enkephalins
56
What disorder, experienced more than half of the time for a 6-month period, is described as being fearful, worrisome, or impatient and having sleep disturbances, poor concentration, hyperactivity, and an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity?
Generalized anxiety disorder
57
What percent of sexual abuse cases are committed by family members?
50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators, although stepfathers also have a high rate.
58
Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal copper metabolism, and ceruloplasmin deficiency characterize what disease, which may include symptoms of dementia when severe?
Wilson's disease (Remember chromosome 13 and hepatolenticular degeneration)
59
To what does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?
School phobia
60
What is the term to describe the average?
Mean
61
How does L-tryptophan affect sleep?
It increases REM and total sleep time.
62
Should information flow from the patient to the family or vice versa?
Your duty is to tell the patient, not the family. The patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't, not you.
63
Can parents withhold treatment from their children?
Yes, as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If illness is critical or an emergency, treat the child.
64
What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to prove?
Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has been defined)
65
What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers?
50%, with 50% of them having the child
66
What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4 sleep during major depression?
Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning awakening
67
What 11-amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)
68
True or false? In a positively skewed curve the mean is greater than the mode.
True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is less than the median is less than the mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution: the tail points in the direction of its name. positive skew tails point to the positive end of a scale.)
69
What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the next without any connection?
Loose association
70
What is the leading cause of school dropout?
Pregnancy
71
Name the four components of the narcoleptic tetrad.
1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.
72
What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived individuals?
Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep-deprived individuals.
73
What is the period between going to bed and falling asleep called?
Sleep latency
74
What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2 years?
Dysthymia, which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.)
75
What form of conditioning is defined as a new response to an old stimulus resulting in a consequence?
Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)
76
What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep?
TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep, and dopamine levels decrease during sleep.
77
Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus stops a behavior?
Punishment
78
Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?
Extinction
79
Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus reinforces a behavior?
Positive reinforcement
80
Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus reinforces a behavior?
Negative reinforcement
81
What is the formula to calculate IQ?
(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age
82
What happens to NE levels in • Major depression?
Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)
83
What happens to NE levels in • Bipolar disorder?
Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)
84
What law was adopted to shield physicians from liability when helping at the scene of an accident?
Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.)
85
What is the term for the number of new events occurring in a population divided by the population at risk?
Incidence rate
86
What is the term to describe inability to recall the past and possible assumption of a completely new identity?
Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)
87
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Pairing noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?
Aversive conditioning
88
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Forcing patients to confront their fears by being exposed to them until they are extinguished?
Exposure
89
What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from least to most), then teaching muscle relaxation techniques in the presence of those fears until the subject is not afraid anymore?
Systematic desensitization
90
Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of bias?
Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.
91
Regarding neuroleptics, what is the relationship between potency and anticholinergic side effects?
Inversely proportional: the higher the potency, the lower the anticholinergic side effects.
92
What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should be monitored with frequent blood drawing?
Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% develop this side effect.
93
True or false? Being college educated increases a man's risk of having premature ejaculation.
True; also, stressful marriage, early sexual experiences in the back of a car, and sex with a prostitute all increase the risk of premature ejaculation.
94
What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population?
Specific rate (e.g., men aged 55-60)
95
In what stage of psychosexual development, according to Freud, do children resolve the Oedipus complex?
Latency stage (6-12 years)
96
Where is lithium metabolized and excreted?
95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluid intake is essential.
97
At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death?
At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.
98
What are the three benzodiazepines that do not undergo microsomal oxidation?
Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo glucuronide conjugation, not via the cytochrome p450 system.
99
What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales testing for the presence and localization of brain dysfunction?
The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation, speech sound perception, rhythm, tactual, and category testing.
100
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Childlike behaviors, unorganized speech and behaviors, poor grooming, incongruous smiling and laughter, and the worst prognosis?
Disorganized schizophrenia
101
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic obedience, waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture?
Catatonic schizophrenia
102
What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur, auditory hallucinations, late onset, and the best prognosis?
Paranoid schizophrenia
103
If a patient cannot pay, can you refuse services?
No, you never refuse to treat a patient simply because he or she can't pay. You are a patient advocate.
104
Does alcoholism increase the rate of suicide?
Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population.
105
What is the term for the dementia characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function due to a cerebrovascular accident?
Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.
106
What is the term for the difference between the highest and the lowest score in a population?
Range
107
How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?
Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal
108
How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?
Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember, they come out of the blue.)
109
What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal, preference for inanimate objects, obliviousness to the external environment, lack of separation anxiety, and abnormalities in language development?
Autism. Head-banging, rocking, and self-injurious behaviors are also common in autism.
110
What major side effect of neuroleptics is characterized by pill rolling, shuffling gait, and tremors that abate during sleep?
Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.
111
If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are wrong, are you protected from legal liability?
Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to protect the child first, not worry about legal responsibility.
112
Can advance directives be oral?
Yes
113
Increased self-esteem, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, increased libido, weight loss, and erratic behavior are all symptoms of what disorder?
Bipolar disorder (manic-depressive disorder)
114
Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without children?
Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)
115
At what age does IQ stabilize?
From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.
116
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Nonfluent speech, telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired comprehension
Broca's aphasia
117
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat
Transcortical aphasia
118
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the statement (can't tell you what you said)
Conduction aphasia
119
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with telegraphic speech
Global aphasia
120
Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid, fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements
Wernicke's aphasia
121
What rare form of dementia is associated with personality changes and affects the frontal and temporal lobes?
Pick's disease
122
Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Naloxone or naltrexone
123
What rate is indicated by 1-specificity?
False-positive rate
124
When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4) occur, in the first or second half of sleep?
The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep.
125
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Disappearance of alpha waves, appearance of theta waves
Stage 1
126
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Delta waves
Stage 3 and 4
127
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sawtooth waves, random low voltage pattern
REM
128
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Alpha waves
Being awake
129
Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sleep spindles, K-complexes
Stage 2
130
What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
131
True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of overall dopamine activity.
True. PIF is dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular system.
132
What is the term for failure to give up infantile patterns of behavior for mature ones?
Fixation (arrested development)
133
Is masturbation considered an abnormal sexual practice?
No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with normal sexual or occupational function.
134
Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?
Flurazepam
135
In the classical conditioning model, when a behavior is learned, what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?
Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)
136
What is the most abundant neuron in the cerebellum?
The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid, which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.
137
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection.
Dissociation
138
Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.
Rationalization
139
Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered, not redirected).
Acting out
140
Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff flows downhill).
Displacement
141
Fact without feeling (la belle indifférence)
Isolation of affect
142
Replacing normal affect with "brain power"
Intellectualization
143
Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot something!)
Repression
144
Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior
Undoing
145
Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious, you're just rude)
Passive-aggressive
146
A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling (e.g., arguing all the time with someone you are attracted to when your feelings are not known)
Reaction formation
147
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Odd, strange; has magical thinking; socially isolated, paranoid, lacks close friends; has incongruous affect
Schizotypal
148
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Socially withdrawn, seen as eccentric but happy to be alone
Schizoid
149
Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions
Paranoid
150
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cross-sectional studies?
Chi-square.
151
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cohort studies?
Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)
152
What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Case control studies?
Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)
153
If a patient asks you a question and you do not know the answer, do you tell a white lie or simply not respond?
Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked.
154
True or false? There is a strong positive correlation between IQ and academic achievement.
True. IQ correlates well with education and academic achievement but is not a predictor of success.
155
What is the term for headaches, inability to concentrate, sleep disturbances; avoidance of associated stimuli; reliving events as dreams or flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event beyond the normal range of expectation?
Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 month.)
156
What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than 30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?
Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)
157
What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?
Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)
158
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • In the population?
Crude mortality rate
159
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per population?
Cause-specific mortality rate
160
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per all deaths?
Proportionate mortality rate
161
What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease?
Case fatality rate
162
Does being a female physician increase or decrease the risk of suicide?
Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.
163
Are sexually abused females more likely to have learning disabilities than the general population?
Yes, by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners, being overweight, and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.
164
What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates?
Lead-time bias (remember, patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)
165
The probability that a person with a positive test result is truly positive refers to what value?
Positive predictive value
166
Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference?
Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g., the USMLE).
167
True or false? A patient can refuse a feeding tube.
True. It is considered medical treatment, so it can be withdrawn or refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.)
168
What are the CAGE questions?
Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)
169
What type of scale is graded into equal increments, showing not only any difference but how much?
Interval scale (a ruler, for example)
170
With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?
Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.
171
What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity?
False-negative rate
172
What drug is being given to HIV-positive mothers during labor and to the children after birth to decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission?
Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used, cutting the rate from 20% to 10%.
173
What is the name of depression and mania alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period?
Rapid cycling bipolar disorder
174
Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and desynchronization), saccadic eye movements, ability to dream, and sexual arousal are all associated with what general pattern of sleep?
REM sleep. Remember, awake brain in a sleeping body.
175
What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium?
Epstein-cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve
176
What is the triad of NPH?
Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet, wacky, wobbly)
177
True or false? Only men have refractory sexual periods.
Sad but true. Some women can have multiple successive orgasms.
178
In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the sick role?
Münchhausen's syndrome (factitious disorder)
179
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Preparing for an upcoming event
Anticipation
180
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Helping others without expecting any return
Altruism
181
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all defense mechanisms)
Sublimation
182
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually remember it)
Suppression
183
Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Easing anxiety with laughter
Humor
184
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Speech; critical for personality, concentration, initiating and stopping tasks (do one thing and begin a new without completion of the first), abstract thought, and memory and higher-order mental functions
Frontal lobe
185
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Language, memory, and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus infects here commonly)
Temporal lobe
186
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Intellectual processing of sensory information, with the left (dominant) processing verbal information, the right processing visual-spatial orientation
Parietal lobe
187
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Initiation and control of movements
Basal ganglia
188
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Skill-based memory, verbal recall, balance, refined voluntary movements
Cerebellum
189
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Important for REM sleep; origin of NE pathway
Pons
190
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Motivation, memory, emotions, violent behaviors, sociosexual behaviors, conditioned responses
Limbic system
191
Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Recall of objects, distances, and scenes; visual input processed here
Occipital lobe
192
What is the degree to which two measures are related? Does it imply causation?
Correlation. No, correlation does not imply causation.
193
What is the most common form of dementia?
Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT). (Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias seen in patients 65 years old.)
194
What is the only drug that does not have an intoxication?
Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)
195
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are comfortable with their own person and agree with their sense of self?
Ego syntonic
196
What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their sense of self?
Ego dystonic
197
Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life?
Triazolam
198
What statistical test compares the means of groups generated by two nominal variables by using an interval variable?
Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.
199
What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot?
Recovery and death
200
What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use?
REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.
