D601-800 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?
A
- Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids
2
Q
What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?
A
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.
3
Q
What are the three epidermal derivatives?
A
- Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
4
Q
What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called?
A
Stereocilia
5
Q
True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia.
A
True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area affected during hypoxia.
6
Q
What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
A
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
7
Q
Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?
A
In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
8
Q
What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cells?
A
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
9
Q
What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?
A
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
10
Q
What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?
A
The vagina
11
Q
What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall’s corpuscles, and absence of germinal centers and B cells?
A
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
12
Q
What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer’s patches to the gastrointestinal lumen?
A
M-cells
13
Q
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?
A
Chief cells
14
Q
What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum?
A
Thick skin
15
Q
What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?
A
Gap junctions
16
Q
What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
A
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
17
Q
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
A
Microvillus
18
Q
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
A
- Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
19
Q
What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
A
Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.
20
Q
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF?
A
Parietal cells (Remember, they secrete HCl, too.)
21
Q
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?
A
Chief cells
22
Q
What hormone, produced by the granulose cell, stimulates the endometrium to enter the proliferative phase?
A
Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.
23
Q
What cells of the nephron function as sodium concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?
A
Macula densa
24
Q
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
A
Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
25
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
Parafollicular C cells
26
True or false? The nucleus is the site of transcription.
True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as well as replication, occurs in the nucleus.
27
How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.
28
In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
Stratum spinosum
29
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechanoreceptors?
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
30
What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
Renin
31
What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?
Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third smooth muscle
32
What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?
Circumvallate papillae
33
What area of the lymph node contains germinal centers?
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
34
True or false? The gallbladder functions to produce bile.
False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water follows the sodium.
35
True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron.
True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.
36
In the alveoli, what cell type is • for gas exchange?
Type I pneumocytes
37
In the alveoli, what cell type is • responsible for producing surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
38
In the alveoli, what cell type is • part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
39
Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy?
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)
40
What is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei
Stratum lucidum
41
What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?
Ileum
42
What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas, encapsulation, germinal centers, and high endothelial venules?
Lymph nodes
43
What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?
Collecting ducts, which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.
44
What is the name of RER in neurons?
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis.
45
What hormone causes milk letdown?
Oxytocin
46
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
47
What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?
Melanocytes
48
If no fertilization occurs, how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate?
12 days after ovulation
49
What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?
Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
50
What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?
Vimentin
51
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
Filiform papillae
52
What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
53
What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary infections, and infertility?
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
54
What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
55
What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
56
Where do sperm go for maturation?
Ductus epididymis, which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.
57
When is the first arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)
58
What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?
PCT
59
What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin.
60
What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
61
What two areas of the skin do not contain sebaceous glands?
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.
62
Which of the following is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?
Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.
63
Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
64
What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and no encapsulation?
Peyer's patch
65
What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
66
What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
67
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Osteoclasts
68
What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for normal male development?
Inhibin, müllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen binding protein
69
What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?
Stratum granulosum
70
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
An internal elastic lamina
71
Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?
Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water. The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and emulsification of fats.
72
What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?
Paneth cells
73
What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney?
The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.
74
Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole?
Afferent arteriole
75
What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?
Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.
76
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
77
What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
78
What is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
79
What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
80
What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
Saltatory conduction
81
What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?
The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and 14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
82
A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
83
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
Sertoli cell
84
What histone binds two nucleosomes together?
H1 histones
85
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
Hydroxyapatite
86
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
87
Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
88
What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein?
Mitochondria
89
How do delusions, illusions, and hallucinations differ?
Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.
90
What syndrome is characterized by sweating, insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, cramps, delirium, and general restlessness secondary to MAOI and SSRI in combination?
Serotonin syndrome. It is also associated with high doses and MAOI and synthetic narcotic combinations (Ecstasy). Treatment consists of decreasing SSRI dosage, removing the causative agent, and giving cyproheptadine.
91
What is the legal age to be deemed competent to make decisions?
18 years old (except if emancipated)
92
With what stage of sleep is enuresis associated?
Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home.
93
When more than one explanation can account for the end result, what form of bias occurs?
Confounding bias
94
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, in the hippocampus, decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness?
Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness.
95
How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep?
By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep
96
What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?
Spearman correlation
97
What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and visual agnosia?
Klüver-Bucy syndrome
98
What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in female clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual men?
Transvestite fetishism
99
What disorder is described as having • Unconscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Somatoform disorder
100
What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation?
Malingering
101
What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?
Factitious disorder
102
What is the term for the ability of a test to measure something consistently?
Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or "precise")
103
What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia?
Small to medium-sized cerebral vessels
104
What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers?
Al-Anon
105
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Needing a highly structured environment with constant supervision?
Profound (I.Q. range < 20)
106
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Having the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training is usually not helpful?
Severe (range 20-34)
107
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Being self-supportive with minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally retarded)?
Mild (50-70)
108
What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need supervision?
Moderate (35-49)
109
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Taking others' beliefs, thoughts, and external stimuli and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done consciously, it is called imitation.)
Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)
110
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g., enuresis)
Regression
111
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)
Blocking
112
Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Psychic feelings converted to physical symptoms
Somatization
113
What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?
Premature ejaculation
114
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • See death as irreversible?
Concrete operations (6-12 years)
115
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Have abstract thinking?
Formal operations (> 12 years)
116
At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Lack law of conservation and be egocentric?
Preoperational (2-6 years)
117
Is it acceptable to lie, even if it protects a colleague from malpractice?
No, it is never acceptable to lie.
118
What happens to prevalence as duration increases?
Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence does not change.)
119
With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?
REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall.
120
What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased?
Specificity (it deals with the healthy)
121
In the elderly, what happens to total sleep time, percentage of REM sleep, and percentage of NREM sleep?
Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we age, but REM sleep remains relatively constant (20%) up to age 80, then begins to decline.
122
What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken?
Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness.
123
What is the primary risk factor for suicide?
Previous suicide attempt
124
What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?
IQ
125
What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical atrophy, decreased parietal lobe blood flow, and a decrease in choline acetyl transferase activity?
These are the gross pathologic changes associated with Alzheimer's disease.
126
What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual fantasies or desires?
Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
127
What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?
Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.
128
What antidepressant, which recently was approved for general anxiety disorder, inhibits the reuptake of NE and 5-HT?
Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)
129
What judgment states that the decision, by rights of autonomy and privacy, belongs to the patient, but if the patient is incompetent to decide, the medical decision is based on subjective wishes?
Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient, not the closest relative.
130
What ethnic group has the highest adolescent suicide rate?
Native Americans
131
What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in Alzheimer's disease?
Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and granulovascular changes in neurons
132
When does most REM sleep occur, in the first or second half of sleep?
REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.
133
What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the treatment of an overdose?
Flumazenil
134
What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene, attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life?
Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant, but the size, placement, erasures, and distortions are relevant.
135
What is the biochemical trigger for REM sleep?
Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)
136
What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient, then asks for recall of as many as possible?
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
137
What are the three characteristics of ADHD?
1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
138
Is suicidal ideation a component of normal grief?
It is rare with normal grief; however, it is relatively common in depression
139
In what stage of sleep is it easiest to arouse a sleeping individual?
During REM sleep
140
What scale separates things into groups without defining the relationship between them?
Nominal scale (categorical, e.g., male or female)
141
What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true values of the population lie within a given range?
Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population.
142
If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information, would you?
For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no, but if the information would do more harm than good, withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.
143
What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4, onset between the ages of 30 and 40, choreoathetosis, and progressive deterioration to an infantile state?
Huntington's chorea. (Death in 15-20 years, often via suicide.)
144
What percentage of children born to HIV-positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?
100%, with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year
145
Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age, peaks around 8 months, and decreases at 12 months.)
Separation anxiety
146
Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal, ADHD, and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
Clonidine
147
What chromosome is autism linked to?
Chromosome 15
148
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables that go together in the same direction?
Positive correlation
149
What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables with no linear relation to one another?
Zero correlation
150
What type of correlation is defined as • One variable that diminishes in the presence of the other?
Negative correlation
151
When the results of a test are compared to findings for a normative group, what form of reference does the objective test use?
Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students in the class will pass)
152
What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result of chance?
Null hypothesis (what you hope to disprove)
153
What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?
Anhedonia
154
What is the term for involuntary constriction of the outer third of the vagina to prevent penile penetration?
Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.
155
What is the term for the same results achieved again on testing a subject a second or third time?
Test-retest reliability
156
At what age does a child develop • Endogenous smile?
At birth (reflex)
157
At what age does a child develop • Exogenous smile?
8 weeks (response to a face)
158
At what age does a child develop • Preferential smile?
12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)
159
Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?
Id
160
What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked, acetaldehyde builds up, and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.
161
What type of questions should you begin with when a patient seeks your medical opinion?
It is best to begin with open-ended questions, allowing patients to describe in their own words what troubles them. You can then move to closed-ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.
162
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • On a set time schedule?
Fixed interval
163
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • After a set number of responses?
Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)
164
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • Varying in time?
Variable interval
165
What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • Varying in the number of responses?
Variable ratio If it is based on time, it is an interval, and if it is based on the number of responses, it is a ratio.
166
At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?
Phallic stage (4-6 years)
167
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 130
Very superior (<2.5% of the population)
168
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 110 to 119
High average
169
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 80 to 89
Low average
170
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 70 to 79
Borderline
171
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 90 to 109
Average
172
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • Below 69
Mentally disabled
173
What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 120 to 129
Superior
174
At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?
Stage 4
175
Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Case control studies?
Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence, but they can determine causal relationships.
176
Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Cross-sectional studies?
Cross-sectional studies determine prevalence, not incidence or cause and effect.
177
Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Cohort studies?
Cohort studies determine incidence and causality, not prevalence.
178
Can a physician commit a patient?
NO!! Remember, only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).
179
What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?
1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get in trouble.)
180
What is the term for the number of individuals who have an attribute or disease at a particular point in time?
Prevalence rate
181
What is the term for the degree to which a test measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity (remember, reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity)
182
What Freudian psyche component is described as • The urges, sex aggression, and "primitive" processes?
Id (pleasure principle)
183
What Freudian psyche component is described as • The conscience, morals, beliefs (middle of the road)?
Superego
184
What Freudian psyche component is described as • Reality, rationality, language basis?
Ego
185
What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?
Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors increases with chronic alcohol abuse)
186
What is the term for new made-up words?
Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted, "Necessity obliges us to neologize." (Abnormal use of neologisms is known as neolalism.)
187
What rate removes any difference between two populations, based on a variable, to makes groups equal?
Standardized rate
188
Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical treatment?
Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come and go as they please.
189
What is the term for any stimulus that increases the probability of a response happening?
Reinforcement
190
Does REM deprivation interfere with performance on simple tasks?
No, but it does interfere with performing complex tasks and decreases attention to detail. (Be careful post call!)
191
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Gets others to assume responsibility, is subordinate, and is fearful of being alone and caring for self
Dependent
192
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Orderly, inflexible, perfectionist; makes rules, lists, order; doesn't like change, has a poor sense of humor, and needs to keep a routine
Obsessive-compulsive
193
Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Sensitive to criticism, shy, anxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd
Avoidant
194
What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual contact?
Sexual aversion disorder
195
What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Dopamine receptors?
Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have them, but otherwise healthy persons do not.
196
What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?
Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them, but schizophrenics do not.
197
What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization), muscle contractions, and lack of eye movement or mental activity?
NREM sleep. Remember awake body, sleeping brain
198
Is spousal abuse a mandatory reportable offense?
No, it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses.
199
What is the key issue surrounding teenagers' maturation?
Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.
200
What is the relationship between chance of error and • Standard deviation?
As the standard deviation increases, the greater the chance of error.
