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National Boards Part 1 > Day Four > Flashcards

Day Four Flashcards

(103 cards)

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1
Q

What duct is the main pancreatic duct?

A

Duct of Wirsung

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2
Q

What is the accessory pancreatic duct?

A

Santorini’s duct

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3
Q

What is the major sublingual duct?

A

Bartholin’s duct

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4
Q

What is the embryonic duct that develops into the deferent duct in males?

A

Wolffian’s duct

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5
Q

In which ligament does the pancreas lie?

A

Lienorenal ligament

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6
Q

What do the delta cells of the pancreas do?

A

Secrete somatostatin

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7
Q

What type of pancreatic cell releases secretory granules containing digestive enzymes?

A

Acinar cells

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8
Q

What type of ions are secreted by the pancreas to combat the acidity of the stomach?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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9
Q

Which anterior pituitary hormone controls the production and secretion of hormones called glucocorticoids by the cortex of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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10
Q

What hormone initiates ovarian follicle development and secretion of estrogens in the ovaries in females and stimulates sperm production in males?

A

Follicle-Stimulating hormone (FSH)

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11
Q

What hormone stimulates secretion of estrogen by ovarian cells in women that results in the formation of the corpus luteum and secretion of progesterone and stimulates interstitial cells of the testes to secrete testosterone in males?

A

Lutenizing hormone (LH)

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12
Q

What type of salivary gland is purely mucous secreting?

A

Buccal glands

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13
Q

What type of salivary gland is purely serous?

A

Parotid

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14
Q

What type of cells only release cell products from membrane bound secretory granules?

A

Merocrine

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15
Q

What type of cell releases product plus a small portion of cytoplasm?

A

Apocrine

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16
Q

What cell type releases an entire cell with the product?

A

Holocrine

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17
Q

Where are “simple” glands found?

A

Sweat glands

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18
Q

Where are “complex” glands found?

A

Pancreas

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19
Q

What shape are sweat glands?

A

Tubular

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20
Q

What shape are sebaceous and mammary glands?

A

Acinar

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21
Q

What shape are the major salivary glands?

A

Tubuloacinar

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22
Q

What type of nerve cell is present in the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Unmyelinated

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23
Q

What are the two neurotransmitters released from the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Oxytocin and Vasopressin (ADH)

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24
Q

What structure do nerves that innervate the pituitary gland pass?

A

Infundibulum

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25
Pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia are all parts of what structure?
Adenohypophysis (Ant. pituitary), these derive from oral ectoderm
26
Pars nervosa and the infundibulum are parts of what structure?
Neurohypophysis (Post. pituitary), these derive from neuroectoderm in the floor of the diencephalons
27
What type of cell releases thyroglobulin?
Follicle cells of the thyroid
28
What ell releases calcitonin?
Parafollicular (AKA C cells)
29
What is the name of the narrow canal that connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during development?
Thyroglossal duct
30
What does colloid store?
Thyroglobulin
31
What is the name of T4?
Thyroxine
32
What is the name of T3?
Triiodothyronine
33
How do metabolically active thyroid cells stain differently than inactive cells?
Active stain basophilic and nonactive stain acidophilic
34
What is the order of layers in the adrenal glands?
(from outside to inside) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and ona reticularis
35
What layer of the adrenal gland produces aldosterone?
Zona glomerulosa
36
What layer of the adrenal gland produces cortisol?
Zona fasciculata
37
What layer of the adrenal gland produces small amounts of cortisol and DHEA?
Zona reticularis
38
What two hormones are produced by the thymus?
Thymopoietin and Thymosin
39
What cell type is found in all other salivary glands other than the parotid glands?
Serous demilunes
40
What duct is associated with the submandibular duct?
Wharton's duct
41
What two hormones do the alpha cells of the anterior pituitary gland secrete?
GH (from Somatotropes) and Prolactin (from Latotropes)
42
What four hormones are produced by beta cells of the anterior pituitary gland?
1. ACTH (Corticotropes), 2. FSH (Gonadotropes), 3. LH (Gonadotropes) and 4. TSH (Thyrotropes)
43
What two portions of the anterior pituitary gland have no proven function in mammals?
Pars intermedia and pars tuberalis
44
What mineral is the most important in promoting development of the thymus gland?
Zinc
45
What is the array of microtubules found in the core of cilia and flagella called that has a 9 + 2 pattern?
Axoneme
46
What type of cell produces testicular fluid?
Sertoli
47
What type of cell produces testosterone?
Leydig cells
48
What is the other name for ctyoplasmic inclusions?
Metaplasm
49
What is the name of the watery, transparent material that is the primary component of animal cells?
Protoplasm
50
What is the progenitor of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla?
Neural crest cells
51
What two cells release heparin into the blood?
Basophils and Mast cells
52
What cell produces albumin, fibrinogen and prothrombin clotting factors?
Hepatocytes
53
What is the function of the nucleolus?
Synthesize rRNA
54
What part of the ER produces steroids?
Smooth ER
55
What chemical reaction can be used to separate DNA from RNA?
Feulgen Reaction
56
What type of cell is found in the internal ear, taste buds and olfactory epithelium?
Sustentacular cells
57
Where are globular cells found?
Transitional epithelium (kidney, water, bladder, etc.)
58
Where are prickle cells found?
Stratum spinosum of epidermis
59
Where are purkinje cells found?
Cerebellar cortex
60
What are the two main types of fibers that make up intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles?
1. Nuclear bag and 2. Nuclear chain
61
What enzyme is the major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
HMG-CoA reductase
62
What two nitrogen compounds enter the urea cycle?
Ammonia and aspartate
63
What is hydrolyzed to create urea in the urea cycle?
Arginine
64
Where does the urea cycle occur?
Almost exclusively in the liver
65
What typically causes death in liver disease?
Inability of the body to perform the urea cycle
66
Where do the first two reactions of the urea cycle occur?
Mitochondria
67
Besides muscles, what other organ uptakes free glucose from the blood?
Brain
68
What enzyme only functions when blood glucose is high?
Glucokinase
69
What enzyme is very similar to glucokinase?
Hexokinase
70
What are the three regulatory enzymes of glycolysis?
1. Hexokinase, 2. Phophofructokinase and 3. pyruvate kinase
71
What factor does Heparin prevent the activation of?
Factor IX (Christmas factor)
72
What causes vasodilation, secretion of HCl, Bronchoconstriction, decreased blood pressure and increased vascular permeability?
Histamine
73
What receptors mediate the typical allergic and anaphylactic responses to histamine?
H1 receptors
74
Which receptors mediate increase of gastric acid and pepsin to histamine?
H2 receptors
75
What enzyme interferes with the action of serotonin in the brain?
Lysergic acid diethylamide
76
What is absorbed by simple diffusion across the small intestine mucosa?
Free fatty acids
77
What process allows fructose absorption?
Facilitated diffusion
78
What releases mucous secretion into the stomach and gastrin into the blood?
Pyloric glands
79
Cholecystokinin, Secretin and Gastrin are all used for what purpose?
They are the most important stimuli of pancreatic secretion
80
Which vitamin is Thiamin?
B1
81
What is the purpose of Riboflavin (B2) in the diet?
Acts as an essential coenzyme in many oxidation-reduction reactions involving carbhydrate metabolism
82
What makes pantothenic acid important?
It is a component of CoA
83
What is the purpose of vitamin B6 (Pyridine)
Balances hormonal changes in women and assists the immune system with the growth of new cells
84
What is unique about Cobalamin (B12)?
It is not immediately excreted like other water-soluble vitamins, but instead is stored in the liver. Deficiency results in pernicious anemia.
85
What leads to pellagra?
A lack of niacin
86
What role does folacin play in the body?
It helps the body form red blood cells, is essentia for the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidine, and aids in the formation of genetic material
87
What effect does a vitamin A deficiency have on teeth?
Creates problems with enamel formation
88
What effect does a vitamin C deficiency have on teeth?
Collagen synthesis problems result in dentin defects
89
What is important to know about vitamin E (tocopherol)?
It prevents free radicals, benefits in prevention of heart disease and cancer, has an RDA expressed in mg equivalents, and is the least toxic of all fat-soluble vitamines
90
What is the most toxic fat-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin D
91
What is Cholecalciferol?
Inactive form of Vitamin D
92
What is 1,2-dihydroxycholecalciferol?
The active form of Vitamin D that regulates Ca in plasma
93
What is 7-dehydrocholesterol?
The precursor to Vitamin D that is synthesized to Cholecalciferol when the dermis is exposed to sunlight
94
What is the pathway of activation of 7-dehydrocholesterol?
7-dehydrocholesterol -> Cholecaliferol in dermis -> 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in liver -> 1,25-dihydroxycholecalcierol in kidneys
95
What nutrient is a constituent of active tissue compounds, cartilage and tendons?
Sulfur
96
What nutrient acativates enzymes involved in protein synthesis?
Magnesium
97
What mineral is a constituent of vitamin B12
Cobalt
98
What metal is a constituent of enzymes associated with iron metabolism and nerve function?
Copper
99
What vitamin requires intrinsic factor to be absorbed?
B12
100
What metal is a part of the active cytochrome oxydase?
Copper
101
What vitamin has the highest RDA for the 25-50 age group?
Vitamin C
102
What is required for the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malnyl-CoA and is an intermediate in the fatty acid synthesis cycle?
Biotin
103
What protein can inactivate biotin?
Avidin

National Boards Part 1 (5 decks)

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