Day Two Flashcards
(281 cards)
1
Q
What are gluconate and triclosan used for?
A
Handwashing agents
2
Q
What bacterium is considered the marker for intermediate sterilization?
A
M. tuberculosis
3
Q
What medication is used to treat bacteremias caused by Pseudomonas?
A
Gentamicin
4
Q
What two bacteria are found to play a role in ANUG?
A
Prevotella intermedia and Spirochetes
5
Q
What two bacteria are associated with most generalized cases of perio?
A
Prevotella intermedia and Eikenella corrodens
6
Q
What two bacteria are associated with most localized cases of perio?
A
AA and Capnocytophaga ochraceus
7
Q
Describe Lacobacillus:
A
Regular, non-sporing, gram-positive bacteria
8
Q
What bacteria is the main cause of smooth surface caries?
A
S. mutans
9
Q
What bacteria is the main cause of root caries?
A
Acinomyces
10
Q
What process describes change in the DNA of one bacterium by uptaking DNA that was from another, lysed bacterium?
A
Transformation
11
Q
What process describes change in DNA from viruses in bacteria?
A
Transduction
12
Q
What are the four stages of bacterial growth?
A
- Lag, 2. log, 3. Stationary and 4. Decline
13
Q
What is another term that describes peptidoglycan?
A
Murein
14
Q
What is the DNA region of prokaryotes called?
A
Nucleoid
15
Q
Where are endotoxins located?
A
In the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria
16
Q
What do Streptococcus, staphylococcus and Clostridium possess to spread throughout the body?
A
Hyaluronidase
17
Q
What bacteria has coagulase and phospholipase to convert fibrinogen to fibrin and to lyse RBCs?
A
S. aureus
18
Q
What bacteria has Lecithinase to destroy RBCs and other tissues?
A
C. perfringens
19
Q
What do Clostridium, Bacteroides, AA and Bacillus possess?
A
Collagenase
20
Q
What enzyme possessed by Strep and Staph enables the dissolving of blood clots?
A
Fibrinolysins
21
Q
What type of streptococci produces a zone of incomplete, green hemolysis, complete hemolysis and incomplete hemolysis?
A
Alpha = incomplete, Beta = complete and Gamma = none
22
Q
What protein seems to be connected to the virulence of a bacterial strain?
A
M protein
23
Q
What superantigen is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes?
A
Pyrogenic exotoxin A
24
Q
What bacteria causes strep throat, scarlet fever, erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, rheumatic fever, and acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A
Streptococcus Pyogenes
25
What group of Strep is the leading cause of neonatal pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis?
Group B Strep
26
What morphology do bacteroides, fusobacterium and prevotella have?
Gram-negative anaerobic rods
27
What morphology do Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Neisseria, Brucella and Legionella have?
Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
28
What exotoxin rapidly destroys tissues?
Exotoxin B
29
What toxin causes the rash of scarlet fever?
Erythrogenic toxin
30
What disease is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by variable weakness of voluntary muscles, which often improves with rest and worsens with activity and is an abnormal immune response?
Myasthenia gravis
31
What disease is similar to Myasthenia gravis, but is caused by a inadequate release of ACh instead?
Eaton-Lambert Syndrome
32
What term describes toxic accumulation of unconjugated billirubin in the brain and spinal cord?
Kernicterus
33
What is used by the body to absorb vitamin B12?
Intrinsic Factor
34
What is caused by a lack of Vitamin B 12?
Pernicious anemia
35
What type of anemia is Pernicious anemia?
Megaloblastic
36
What disorder is caused by a inherited lack of production of one of the four chains of amino acids that make up hemoglobin?
Thalassemias
37
What disease is a result of inadequate destruction of red bone marrow?
Aplastic anemia
38
What disorder results from displaced hemopoietic tissues and is causes severe anemia with normal cytic and chormic erythrocytes?
Myelophthisic anemia
39
What anemia is associated with iron deficiency?
Microcytic anemia
40
What is the most common type of necrosis?
Coagulative necrosis
41
What type of injury is associated with mononuclear inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages) and the production of fibrous connective tissue?
Chronic Inflammation
42
What cells are involved in an acute inflammation response?
Basophils, mast cells and platelets
43
What is the scientific term for pus?
Exudate
44
What WBC predominates the cellular phase of an acute inflammation?
PMN
45
What cell marks the transition from acute to chronic inflammation?
Macrophages
46
What leukemia is the most common in children?
ALL
47
What leukemia is the most malignant?
AML
48
What leukemia is the least malignant?
CLL
49
What leukemia has two stages and is always fatal?
CML
50
What are large purpura spots called?
Ecchymoses
51
What disease is caused by a deficiency in platelets, leads to multiple bruises, petechiae, and hemorrhage into tissue?
Thrombocytopenic purpura (Werlhof's disease)
52
What disease is a severe disease caused by a low platelet count due to thrombosis in terminal arterioles and capillaries of many organs?
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura
53
What is the most common cause of bleeding disorders?
Thrombocytopenia
54
What vitamin does Dicumarol interfere with?
Vitamin K
55
What does cirrhosis of the liver have to do with delayed blood clotting?
Patients with cirrhosis have less prothrobin in the blood and don't have as good of clotting
56
What is Bernard-Soulier disease?
A hereditary platelet adhesion disorder
57
What leukemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosomes?
CML
58
What two types of leukemia are the most common in adults?
AML and CLL
59
What disease is characterized by mild to massive bleeding from an arterial vessel due to a tear in mucosa of the cardia or lower esophagus with vomiting or bright colored blood?
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
60
What disease is associated with difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids and is a nerve disorder that disrupts peristalsis?
Achalasia
61
What are Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's signs used to detect?
Tetany
62
What tetany-detecting sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve above the mandibular angle and testing the twitch of the upper lip?
Chvostek's sign
63
What tetany-detecting sign is checked by applying a blood pressure cuff to the patient's arm and checking for a spasm in the thumb?
Trousseau's sign
64
What is trisomy 18 better known as?
Edward's syndrome
65
What is trisomy 13 better known as?
Patau's syndrome
66
What syndrome affects men and women equally and is a hereditary disease where many small lumps called juvenille polyps appear in the GI tract, has melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa, and don't have an increased risk of cancer from polyps?
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
67
What syndrome is associated with polyps along with tumors of the CNS?
Turcots syndrome
68
What disease is associated with pigmentation, cirrhosis of the liver, degeneration of the basal ganglia, green pigment in the periphery of the cornea and problems metabolizing copper?
Wilson's disease
69
What is the most severe immunodeficiency disease that causes a failure of stem cells to differentiate properly and results in the patient having neither B nor T lymphocytes?
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)
70
What disease is associated with immunodeficiency, eczema and only affects boys?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
71
What disease is associated with a strange gait, visible dilation of blood vessels, and proneness to infections?
Ataxia-telangiectasia
72
What disease is an immunodeficiency where there is tons of IgE and repeated bacterial infections?
Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job Syndrome)
73
What immunodeficiency is associated with no IgG and is sex linked?
X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)
74
What causes Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?
Mutation of B-cell protein tyrosine kinase
75
What does a lack of folic acid cause?
Anemia
76
What does a lack of Vitamin B1 cause?
Pins-and-needles sensation, especially in the feet
77
What does a lack of Vitamin B2 cause?
Sore tongue and cracks at the edge of mouth
78
What does a lack of Vitamin B12 cause?
Anemia, pins-and-needles sensation
79
What does a lack of Vitamin C cause?
Weakness, bleeding gums
80
What does a lack of Vitamin D cause?
Bone thinning
81
What does a lack of Protein cause?
Tissue swelling
82
What is the name of the rare condition where infection of the intestine causes malabsorption, causes skin darkening, inflamed and painful joints and diarrhea?
Whipple's disease
83
What test is used to detect E. Coli, Vibrio Cholerae, and Staph. aureus?
ELISA
84
What defines an endemic?
Infection constantly present at low levels in a specific population
85
What is the most common cause of encephalitis?
Viral infection
86
What disease is a overwhelming, rapidly-progressing infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
Waterhous-Friderichsen syndrome
87
What happens in the first stage of Syphilis?
Non-painful chancre emerges
88
What happens in the second stage of Syphilis?
Maculopapular rash and condyloma lata
89
What happens in the third stage of Syphilis?
Gumma appears and neurologic symptoms are evident
90
What is the best treatment for Syphilis?
Parenteral Penicillin G
91
What is the name of the warty soft tissue enlargement caused by HPV?
Condyloma acuminatum
92
Salpingitis is associated with infection from which type of bacteria?
Chlamydia
93
What medication interferes with Influenza A's ability to attach and uncoat?
Amantadine
94
What typically results from a bacterial infection (WBC-wise)?
Leukocytosis
95
What typically results from a viral infection (WBC-wise)?
Leukopenia
96
Describe rubella:
A member of togavirus that is enveloped with an icosahedral nucleocapsid and negative-stranded, double stranded RNA genome
97
What are the consequences of a congenital rubella syndrome for the baby?
Malformation of the heart, eyes and brain
98
What term describes condensation of cell nucleus with chromatin clumping?
Pyknosis
99
What term describes shrinkage of cell nuclei and condensation of the chromatin?
Karyopyknosis
100
What term describes the fragmentation of the cell nucleus and chromatin?
Karyorrhexis
101
What disease causes the kidney to fail to develop and creates cysts deep within the kidney?
Medullary cystic disease
102
What disease causes the kidneys to appear spongy and dilates the urine-containing tubules of the kidneys?
Medullary sponge kidney
103
What syndrome has symptoms of proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia and edema?
Nephrotic Syndrome
104
What sign would suggest pyelonephritis?
WBCs in urine
105
What sign would suggest nephritic syndrome?
RBCs in urine
106
What symptom would accompany infarction of the kidney?
Few RBCs in urine
107
Glomerulonephritis often follows an infection by which type of bacteria?
Streptococcus
108
What term describes a malignant neoplasm's growth in which there is no differentiation to suggest a particular cell type?
Anaplasia
109
What neoplasm exhibits prickle cells and keratin pearls?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
110
What is the key difference in histology between malignant lymphomas and Hodgkin's disease?
Reed-sternberg cells are present in Hodgkin's disease
111
Where is the most likely place to develop malignant neoplasms in the GI tract?
Colon/rectum
112
What are the most common pelvic tumors?
Uterine fibroids
113
What type of tumor includes Chondrosarcomas, Malignant giant cell tumors, Osteogenic sarcomas and parosteal osteogenic sarcomas?
Osseous tumors
114
What type of tumor includes Chordoma, Ewing's sarcoma and fibrosarcomas?
Nonosseous tumors
115
What bone tumor is the most common, occurs usually in males between age 10 and 30, and occur in the most often in the femur?
Osteogenic Sarcoma
116
What bone tumor occur most often in females ages 30-40, occurs in the distal femur, and develops on the surface of bone?
Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma
117
What bone tumor occurs in males ages 30-50 most often, occurs in the pelvis, proximal femur, ribs and shoulder girdle, and develops from cartilage?
Chondrosarcoma
118
What bone tumor is usually found in females ages 18-50, arises in long bones, and most often arises in the knee area?
Malignant giant cell tumor
119
Where does breast cancer typically surface?
The left breast in the upper, outer quadrant
120
What is the most common cause of a clinically palpable mass in women 28-44?
Fibrocystic disease
121
Where does multiple myeloma arise?
Plasma cells
122
What is the key radiographic evidence of a case of multiple myeloma?
"Punched out" radiolucencies
123
What is key evidence of multiple myeloma found in the urine?
Bench Jones protein
124
What pathology is related to SCCs and occurs in the pilosebaceous glands?
Keratoacanthomas
125
What pathology appears as small, red-to-brown bumps that result from an accumulation of fibroblasts?
Dermatofibromas
126
What skin pathology is associated with hyperkeratosis and pigmentation of the skin around the axilla, neck, flexures and anogenital regions?
Acanthosis nigricans
127
What passes through the optic canal besides the optic nerve?
The ophthalmic artery
128
What passage does CN I pass through?
Cribiform plate perforations of the Ethmoid bone
129
What passage does CN XII pass through?
Hypoglossal canal of the occipital bone
130
What passage does the carotid artery and sympathetic nerves pass through?
Carotid canal of the temporal bone
131
What passage does the nasolacrimal duct pass through?
Lacrimal canal of the maxilla and lacrimal bones
132
What two CNs pass through the internal acoustic meatus?
CN VIII and CN VII
133
Where does the facial nerve leave the temporal bone?
It emerges through the stylomastoid foramen
134
What attaches to the lingula of the mandible?
Sphenomandibular ligament
135
What set of canals are always present in the incisive foramen?
Foramina of Stenson
136
What set of canals may be present in the incisive foramen?
Foramina of Scarpa
137
What foramen allows the spinal accessory nerve to pass?
Jugular foramen
138
What forament allows the passage of the V-2 nerve?
Rotundum
139
What forament allows the passage of the V-3 nerve and lesser petrosal nerve?
Ovale
140
What does the foramen magnum allow to pass through it?
Medulla oblongata, vertebral arteries and spinal accessory nerve (?)
141
What forament allows the passage of the middle meningela artery and vein?
Spinosum
142
What forament allows the passage of the emissary vein in fetal life?
Cecum
143
Where does the abducent nerve enter the orbit?
The Superior orbital fissure
144
What does the superior orbital fissure allow to pass?
The trochlear nerve, the oculomotor nerve, the abducent nerve the V-1 nerve and the superior ophthalmic vein
145
What two structures pass through the petrotympanic fissure?
The chorda tympani and anterior tympanic artery
146
What two nerves pass through the foramen lacerum?
Greater and deep petrosal nerves
147
What three structures pass through the inferior orbital fissure?
1. Maxillary nerve, 2. Inferior ophthalmic veins and 3. sympathetic nerves
148
What is the fate of the ductus venosus found in the fetus?
It forms the ligamentum venosum near the liver after birth
149
What is the fate of the umbilical vein after birth?
Forms the round ligament of the liver
150
What is the fate of the ductus arteriosum after birth?
Becomes the ligamentum arteriosum
151
What is the fate of the umbilical arteries?
Become the lateral umbilical ligaments
152
Where is the hepatic portal vein in relation to the bile duct and proper hepatic artery?
Posterior
153
Where is the hepatic portal vein in relation to the epiploic foramen?
Anterior
154
What two veins merge to form the hepatic portal vein?
Splenic and superior mesenteric veins
155
What three veins of the digestive tract are drained by the hepatic portal vein?
Posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal vein, right gastric vein and left gastric vein
156
How much blood does the hepatic portal vein carry compared to the hepatic arteries?
Twice as much
157
Where does the thoracic duct drain?
Between the left internal jugular and subclavian veins
158
What two structures does the thoracic duct ascend between in the thorax?
The aorta and azygos veins
159
Which joint allows one to nod their head?
Atlanto-occiptial joint
160
Which joint allows one to shake their head?
Atlanto-axial joint
161
What classification of joint describes synovial joints?
Diarthroses (freely movable)
162
What type of joint is an immovable joint?
Synarthroses
163
What type of joint is a slightly-movable joint?
Amphiarthorses
164
Where is the primary taste area of the brain?
Parietal lobe
165
Where is the primary smelling area of the brain?
Temporal lobe
166
Where is the somatosensory association area?
Parietal lobe
167
Regarding the branches of the vagus nerve, which side ends up anterior and which side ends up posterior?
LARP
168
Which CN innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle?
Facial nerve (CN VII)
169
What CN innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle and the mylohyoid muscle?
V-3
170
What nerve innervates the geniohyoid muscle?
First cervical nerve (C1)
171
What innervates all the infrahyoid muscles except the thyrohyoid muscle?
The ansa cervicalis (C1, C2 and C3)
172
What nerve supplies the thyrohyoid muscle?
C1 fibers from CN XII
173
What nerve arises from the geniculate ganglion?
Greater petrosal
174
What branch of the facial nerve provides taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Chorda tympani
175
Where do taste fibers of the posterior one-third of the tongue receive innervation?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
176
What is typically injured should a patient be unable to cry?
Greater petrosal nerve
177
What two divisions are there of the vagus nerve's sensory component?
1. Superior ganglion and 2. inferior ganglion
178
What does the superior ganglion of the vagus nerve innervate (2)?
1. Meningeal -> dura mater, 2. Auricular -> auricle, external auditory meatus
179
What does the inferior ganglion of the vagus nerve innervate (2 groups)?
All muscles of the pharynx (except stylopharyngeus muscle) and all muscles of the soft palate (except tensor veli palatini)
180
What innervates the stylopharyngeus muscle?
The glossopharyngeal nerve
181
What innervates the tensor veli palatini?
V-3
182
The superior laryngeal nerve divides into two branches - what are they?
1. Internal laryngeal nerve and 2. External laryngeal nerve
183
What does the internal laryngeal nerve innervate?
Mucous membranes above the vocal folds
184
What does the external laryngeal nerve innervate?
Cricothyroid muscle
185
What nerves form the greater splanchnic nerve?
T5-T9
186
What nerves form the lesser splanchnic nerve?
T10-T11
187
What nerve forms the least splanchnic nerve?
T12
188
Where does the greater splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?
Crura of the diaphragm, celiac ganglion
189
Where does the lesser splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?
Crura of the diaphragm, aorticorenal ganglion
190
Where does the least splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?
Enters abdomen with sympathetic trunk to end in the renal plexus
191
What type of fibers make up the thoracic splanchnic nerves and celiac plexus?
Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers
192
What innervates the palatoglossus muscle?
The pharyngeal plexus
193
What innervates the ciliary ganglion?
Oculomotor nerve
194
What innervates the Pterygopalatine ganglion?
Facial nerve via greater petrosal nerve and nerve of the pterygoid canal
195
What innervates the submandibular ganglion?
Facial nerve, via chorda tympani and lingual nerve
196
What innervates the otic ganglion?
Glossopharyngeal nerve via tympanic branch and lesser petrosal nerve
197
What nerve innervates the levator palpebrae superioris?
Oculomotor
198
What nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation of the ciliary muscles of lens and sphincter muscles of pupil?
Oculomotor
199
What nerve innervates the superior oblique muscles of the eye?
Trochlear
200
What does the abducens nerve innervate?
The lateral rectus muscle of the eye
201
What does the trochlear nerve innervate?
Superior oblique muscle of the eye
202
What nerve is primarily responsible for the gag reflex?
CN IX
203
What nerve does the auriculotemporal nerve derive from?
CN V-3
204
What levels does the superior cervical ganglion cover?
C1-C3
205
Which rami connect the the sympathetic trunk to every spinal nerve?
Gray rami
206
Which rami are only found between levels T1 and L2?
White rami
207
What is the only cranial nerve to emerge dorsally to the aspect of the brainstem?
Trochlear nerve
208
What provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Lingual nerve (V-3 branch)
209
What provides taste for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Chorda tympani nerve
210
What provides sensory innervation to the anterior and lateral parts of the neck?
Transverse cervical nerve
211
What spinal nerves make up the phrenic nerve?
C3-C5
212
What spinal nerves make up the cervical plexus?
C1-C4
213
What spinal nerves make up the brachial plexus?
C5-C8 and T1
214
What spinal nerves make up the lumbar plexus?
L1-L4
215
What nerves make up the sacral plexus?
L4-L5 and S1-S4
216
What are the three cords of the brachial plexus
Posterior, lateral, and medial
217
What branches of the brachial plexus make up the median nerve?
The medial and lateral cords
218
What are the two main branches of the lumbar plexus?
Femoral and Obturator nerves
219
What is the main branch of the sacral plexus?
The sciatic nerve
220
Which recurrent laryngeal nerve separates from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and loops posteriorly around the aortic arch and ascends through the superior mediastinum to enter a groove between the esophagus and trachea?
Left recurrrent laryngeal nerve
221
Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve split?
Right subclavian artery
222
What do the recurrent laryngeal nerves innervate?
All the muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid
223
What innervates the cricothyroid?
The external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
224
What canal does the hypoglossal nerve pass through to leave the skull?
The hypoglossal canal
225
Where does the spinal accessory nerve exit the skull?
The jugular foramen
226
What muscle is a landmark for finding the glossopharyngeal nerve?
Stylopharyngeus muscle
227
What nerve innervates the carotid sinus and carotid body?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
228
What two muscles are innervated by the mylohyoid nerve?
Mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscle
229
What gives sensory innervation to a small area of skin on the external ear and taste buds on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
The geniculate ganglion
230
How is taste conveyed from the palate?
Through the palatine nerves to the greater petrosal nerve
231
What types of nerves are found in the dental pulp?
Sympathetic and afferent
232
Where in the digestive tract does the vagus nerve stop innervation?
Left colic flexure
233
What supplies parasympathetic innervation below the left colic flexure?
The pelvic splanchnic nerves
234
What is the corticospinal tract?
The largest descending tract of the spinal cord
235
What are the fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus?
The largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord
236
With exception of microglia, where do all neuroglia derive from?
Ectoderm
237
What type of cell is in charge of lining the ventricles of the brain and propelling the cerebrospinal fluid with ciliary motion?
Ependymal cells
238
What forms myelin sheaths in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
239
What is the role of microglial cells?
Immune cells of the CNS - like macrophages
240
What are afferent nerves generally for?
Sensation
241
What are efferent nerves generally for?
Motor
242
What separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum?
Tentorium cerebelli
243
Where is the substantia nigra located in the brain?
In the midbrain
244
What is the name of protective dura mater that guards the sella turcica?
Diaphragma sellae
245
What is the purpose of the choroid plexus?
Forms CSF
246
What opening allows the two lateral ventricles and the third ventricle to communicate?
Foramina of Monro
247
What openings are present in the fourth ventricle?
The foramen of Luschka and the foramen of Magendie
248
What ventricles are enlarged should obstruction occur of the cerebral aqueduct?
Two lateral and third ventricles
249
What space is entered into in a spinal tap?
Subarachnoid space
250
What is the eventual end of the spinal cord meninges referred to as?
Filum terminale
251
What do cell bodies in the posterior horn primarily relay?
Sensations
252
What do cell bodies in the anterior horn primarily relay?
Voluntary motion and reflex
253
Growth of which type of tissue causes the embryo to fold during the fourth week?
Neural
254
What type of nerve fibers are associated with proprioception?
A-alpha
255
What type of nerve fibers are associated with touch?
A-beta
256
What type of nerve fibers are associated with pain and temperature?
A-delta
257
Where does the overlap of actin and myosin filaments occur?
A band
258
Where does actin occur only in the sarcomere?
I band
259
What is present in the M band?
Only myosin
260
What is present in the Z band?
Only actin
261
What is the H zone?
The area where only myosin is present
262
What two muscles form a sling around the angle of the mandible?
The masseter and the medial pterygoid
263
What effect does damage to the pharyngeal plexus of nerves have on the uvula?
It deviates contralaterally
264
What muscle is attached to the alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible as well as the pterygomaxillary ligament and pterygomandibular raphe?
Buccinator
265
What innervates the temporalis muscle?
V-3
266
What innervates the muscles of the soft palate (with one exception)?
CN IX and X
267
What innervates the tensor veli palati muscle?
V-3
268
What three structures pass through the aortic opening?
1. Aorta, 2. Thoracic duct and 3. Azygos vein
269
What three structures pass through the esophageal opening?
1. Esophagus, 2. Right vagus nerve and 3. left vagus nerve
270
What two structures pass through the caval opening?
1. Inferior vena cava and 2. Right phrenic nerve
271
What innervates the other respiratory muscles besides the diaphragm?
The intercostal nerve
272
What is the function of the external intercostal muscles?
Raise ribs during inspiration
273
What is the function of the internal intercostal muscles?
Depress ribs during exhalation
274
What is the function of the subcostal muscles?
Raise the ribs during inspiration
275
What is the function of the transverse thoracic muscles?
Pull ribs downward during expiration
276
What protein covers actin binding sites during rest?
Tropomyosin
277
What protein is a small molecule attached to each tropomyosin?
Troponin
278
When one of the lateral pterygoid muscles is not functioning, what effect will this have on protrusion?
Ipsilateral deviation
279
What connective tissue layer envelopes the entire skeletal muscle layer?
The epimysium
280
What type of smooth muscle has gap-junctions?
Single-unit
281
What two arches are formed by the anterior and posterior pillars of the fauces?
1. Palatoglossus arch and 2. Palatopharyngeal arch
