Day One Flashcards
(277 cards)
1
Q
What factor is missing in classic hemophilia A?
A
VIII
2
Q
What factor is missing in hemophilia B (Christmas Disease)?
A
IX
3
Q
What factor is missing in hemophilia C (Rosenthal’s syndrome)?
A
XI
4
Q
What form of hemophilia is not sex-linked?
A
C
5
Q
What feature does a true hemophiliac display?
A
Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
6
Q
What disease is an autosomal dominant disease that causes a bleeding disorder?
A
Von Willebrand’s disease
7
Q
What is the cardinal sign of a pheochromocytoma?
A
Persistent or episodic hypertension
8
Q
What is the most common malignant tumor of childhood?
A
Neuroblastoma
9
Q
What is the key sign of EBV infection?
A
Lymphocytosis
10
Q
What test is used to find EBV?
A
Heterophile test
11
Q
What virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and hairy leukoplakia?
A
EBV
12
Q
What valve is the most commonly damaged heart valve?
A
Mitral valve
13
Q
What lesion is associated with rheumatic fever?
A
Aschoff body
14
Q
What is primary amyloidosis associated with?
A
Plasma cells
15
Q
What three country’s people are associated with hereditary amyloidosis?
A
Portugal, Sweden and Japan
16
Q
What is the first manifestation of amyloidosis?
A
Renal disease
17
Q
What is the most common cause of preventable blindness in underdeveloped areas of the world?
A
Trachoma
18
Q
What disease causes conjunctivitis and often affects newborns, adults in sexual contact, and adults in swimming pools?
A
Inclusion conjunctivitis
19
Q
What bacteria causes pinkeye?
A
Hemophilus aegyptius
20
Q
What is the medical term for dry eyes?
A
Keratoconjuctivitis Sicca
21
Q
What two enzymes are elevated in a case of acute pancreantitis?
A
Lipase and amylase
22
Q
What lesion is associated with Erythema multiforme?
A
Iris/target lesion
23
Q
What form of Erythema Multiforme is associated with large blisters and sloughing of the skin?
A
Toxic Epidermal necrolysis
24
Q
What is it called if tissues are grafted from an identical twin?
A
Isograft
25
What is the most uncommon site of infarcts?
Liver
26
What is delayed closure of two granulating surfaces referred to as?
Healing by second intention
27
What is the slow filling of a wound cavity or ulcer by granulations with subsequent cicatrization (scar formation)?
Healing by third intention
28
What system is composed of monocytes and macrophages?
Reticuloendothelial system
29
What disease is associated with a lack of glucocerebrosidase?
Gaucher's disease
30
What disease is associated with a lack of sphingomyelinase?
Niemann-Pick disease
31
What disease is associated with a lack of hexosaminidase A?
Tay-Sachs disease
32
What does TORCH stand for?
Toxoplasmosis, Other agents, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes simplex
33
What are the signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad)?
1. Elevated central venous pressure with neck vein distension, 2. Muffled heart sounds and 3. Pulsus paradoxus
34
What causes cor pulmonale?
Right sided congestive heart failure
35
What are the four elevated serum enzyme levels after a myocardial infarction?
1. Serum Glutamate Pyruvate Transaminase (SGPT), 2. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT), 3. Seurm Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) and 4. Creatine Kinase (CK)
36
What bacteria causes the most cases of infectious endocarditis?
S. Viridans
37
What valve is most likely to be infected in a case of infectious endocarditis?
Mitral valve
38
What is the most common cause of centrolobular emphysema?
Cigarette smoke
39
What is the most common cause of panlobular emphysema?
Familial antiproteinase deficiency
40
What term describes an irreversible, abnormal dilation of the bronchi caused by destruction of supporting structures by a chronic necrotizing infection?
Bronchiectasis
41
What term describes a shrunken and airless state of the lung, or a portion of it?
Atelectasis
42
What is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
Cystic Fibrosis
43
What disease is associated with hemangiomas of the retina and cerebellum, and has cysts in the liver, kidneys, adrenal glands and pancreas?
Von Hippel-Lindau disease
44
What term describes lung disease caused by prolonged inhalation of foreign material and cause fibrosis?
Pneumoconioses
45
What is the most common and most serious pneumoconiosis?
Silicosis
46
What is the medical term for coal miner's disease?
Anthracosis
47
What bacteria typically causes pneumonia in healthy individuals?
Strep Pneumoniae
48
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children?
Respiratory viruses
49
What are ascites?
Excess fluid in the space between membranes lining the abdomen and the abdominal organs
50
What are the most common source of massive hematemesis in alcoholics?
Esophageal varices
51
What causes the appearance of esophageal varices that erode and bleed profusely?
Portal hypertension
52
What is the most important sign of portal hypertension?
Splenomegaly
53
What disease is associated with esophageal webs?
Iron deficiency anemia
54
What word describes permanent damage to the brain in newborn infants from excessive bilirubin?
Kernicterus
55
What Hepatitis virus is NOT an RNA virus?
Hep B
56
Which Hep virus is associated with another exclusively?
Hep D (associated exclusively with Hep B)
57
What disease is caused by a localized death of tissue followed by a full regeneration of healthy bone tissue?
Osteochondroses
58
What disease is associated with old men not being able to wear their hats anymore?
Paget's disease
59
What disease is associated with hyperparathyroidism and is characterized by a decreased serum phosphorus level and an increase in serum calcium and alkaline phosphatse?
Von Recklinghausen's disease
60
What disease tends to raise serum acid phosphatase levels?
Prostate cancer
61
What is generalized edema also known as?
Anasarca
62
What type of heart failure results in peripheral edema?
Right-sided heart failure
63
What type of heart failure results in pulmonary edema?
Left-sided heart failure
64
What does pitting edema typically represent?
An acute disease process
65
What is the clotting of blood within an artery or vein called?
A thrombosis
66
What is an alteration in epithelial lining that results in platelet aggregation called?
A thrombus
67
What is the name given to a blood clot that moves through the bloodstream?
Embolus
68
What is the term given to inflammation of a vein?
Phlebitis
69
What is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock?
Blood loss
70
What is the main factor in the case of all shock?
Reduced cardiac output
71
Metabolic acidosis occurs during which stage of shock?
Progressive stage
72
What is the other name for osteopetrosis?
Albers-Schonberg disease
73
What disease is known to cause massive splenomegaly?
Myelofibrosis
74
What disease is the opposite of anemia and results in too many RBCs?
Polycythemia Vera
75
What disease is a chronic, idiopathic disease characterized by bone marrow fibrosis and massive splenomegaly?
Myelofibrosis
76
What are the three major organs damaged by chronic hypertension?
Kidneys, heart and brain
77
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
Kidney disease
78
What two arteries are most affected by arteriosclerosis?
Aorta and Coronary artery
79
What is a small molecule that is not antigenic, but that can interact with antibodies called?
Hapten
80
What is the name of the antibody-binding site on an antigen?
Epitope
81
What is the immunoglobulin that is present in the highest concentration in the blood in a healthy individual?
IgG
82
What is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta?
IgG
83
What is the second most abundant immunoglobulin, occurs in body secretions and is synthesized by plasma cells in the GI, respiratory and urinary tracts?
IgA
84
What immunoglobulin is rare, is present on the membranes of many circulating B-cells and has an unknown function?
IgD
85
What is the largest immunoglobulin, is the first antibody produced to infection and is a powerful activator of the complement system?
IgM
86
What immunoglobulin is responsible for Type I hypersensitivity reactions, tightly binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils and protects external mucosa?
IgE
87
What type of immunity are B cells responsible for?
Humoral
88
What is the most potent anaphylatoxin?
C5a (C5a>C3a>C4a)
89
What is the most frequently used laboratory test for the detection of antigens?
Immunofluorescence
90
What type of hypersensitivity deals with complement activation?
Type III hypersensitivity
91
Activation of which C protein is considered the alternative pathway?
C3
92
Where are Complement proteins synthesized?
Mainly in the liver
93
What Complement proteins make the MAC?
C5b, C6, C7, C8 and C9
94
What activates killer cells?
IL-2
95
What does penicillin do to kill bacteria?
Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
96
What organelle contains catalase?
Microbodies
97
What two enzymes are likely to be missing in anaerobic bacteria?
1. Superoxide demutase and 2. catalase
98
What is the function of superoxide demutase?
Catalyzes the destruction of O2 free radicals
99
What type of bacteria live on teeth supragingivally?
Gram-positive bacteria
100
What is usually the first colonizer of plaque?
S. sanguis
101
What is a common phenolic compound used as an antimicrobial and antigingivitis agent?
Listerine
102
What type of compound seems to be best at reducing/eliminating bad breath?
Quaternary ammonium compounds
103
What bacteria is implicated in causing ANUG?
Prevotella intermedia
104
What three messengers are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway?
1. Prostaglandins, 2. Prostacyclin and 3. Thromboxanes
105
What is the major compound from which prostaglandins and their derivatives are made from?
Arachidonic acid
106
What form of arthritis is found in middle-aged women most frequently?
Osteoarthritis
107
What forms in osteoarthritis that is unique?
Bony spur formation
108
What disease is a disease of childhood that causes lesions in the bones or lungs and is most common in the skull, mandible and spine?
Eosinophilic granuloma
109
What disease affects infants age 2 or under, is fatal, causes skin rashes, and tumefactions over bones?
Letterer-Siwe syndrome
110
What disease causes exophthalmos, diabetes insipidus, and bone destruction?
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
111
What type of hypersensitivity reaction do immune complex diseases fall under?
Type III hypersensitivity
112
What is the prototype immune complex disease?
Serum sickness
113
What disease is a serious blood vessel disease where small and medium sized arteries become swollen and damaged when attacked by immune cells?
Polyarteritis nodosa
114
What type of hypersensitivity is caused by cytotoxic reactions caused by antibodies reacting antigens of the host's own cells?
Type II
115
What type of hypersensitivity is caused by immune complexes activating complement and PMNs and produces acute inflammation?
Type III
116
What type of hypersensitivity is caused by cellular, cell-mediated, delayed, or tuberculin-type reactions caused by sensitized T-lymphocytes?
Type IV
117
What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Hypocalcemia of chronic renal disease
118
What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Adenoma
119
What are the three main manifestations of hyperparathyroidism?
1. Osteoporosis, Central giant cell granulomas, and metastatic calcifications
120
Which disease is associated with increased melanin production?
Addison's disease
121
What disease is known as bronzed disease and is caused by accumulation of hemosiderin throughout all the body?
Hemochromatosis
122
What disease has chronic, relapsing inflammation that produces recurring mouth sores, skin blisters, genital sores and swollen joints?
Behcet's syndrome
123
What disease is an inflammation of joints and tendons and is accompanied by inflammation of the eye's conjunctiva and mucous membranes?
Reiter's syndrome
124
What disease is a chronic inflammation of large arteries?
Temporal arteries
125
What disease is a connective tissue disorder that is characterized by the inflammation of the spine and large joints, resulting in stiffness and pain?
Ankylosing spondylitis
126
What disease is associated with the deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase and leads to mental retardation, blindness, convulsions and death by age four?
Tay-Sachs disease
127
What disease is very rare and results from a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase and is characterized by glycolipid accumulation in body tissues?
Fabry's disease
128
What disease results from a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase and leads to an accumulation of glucosylceramide in storge compartments of the cells?
Gaucher's disease
129
What term describes coughing up blood?
Hemoptysis
130
What is the result of a lack of vitamin E?
Neurological dysfunction
131
What is vitamin B3 deficiency known as?
Pellagra
132
What is vitamin B1 deficiency known as?
Beriberi
133
What term is given to a particularly severe episode of asthma?
Status asthmaticus
134
What gland is likely dysfunctional should a patient be diagnosed with acromegaly?
Anterior pituitary gland (growth hormone)
135
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
136
What is extreme hypothyroidism called in adults?
Myxedema
137
What is severe hypothyroidism called in children?
Cretinism
138
What type of disease is neurofibromatosis?
Autosomal dominant disorder
139
What three signs are associated with neurofibromatosis-1?
1. Multiple birthmarks, 2. Multiple neurofibromas and 3. Lisch nodules in the eyes
140
What sign is associated with neurofibromatosis-2?
Hearing loss
141
What is the most common form of hyperthyroidism?
Graves disease
142
What disease is a cause of hyperthyroidism and is found in the elderly?
Plummer's disease
143
What is damaged to cause diabetes insipidus?
Hypothalamus
144
What type of calcification is seen in hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules and is the process by which organic tissue becomes hardened by physiologic deposit of calcium salts?
Dystrophic calcification
145
What calcification describes calcification occurring in nonosseous, viable tissues and occurs particularly in hyperparathyroidism and hypervitaminosis D?
Metastatic Calcification
146
What calcification occurs in excretory or secretory passages as calculi?
Pathologic Calcification
147
What calcification creates a thin layer of calcification around lymph nodes?
Eggshell calcifications
148
What is the presence of calcification in or under the skin called?
Calcinosis
149
What is the most common cause of the common cold?
Rhinovirus
150
What type of virus causes mumps?
An RNA paramyxovirus
151
What type of virus causes influenza?
Orthomyxoviruses
152
What virus causes Reye's syndrome in children?
Influenza B
153
What virus causes measles?
A rubeola RNA paramyxovirus
154
What oral manifestation is indicative of measles?
Koplik's spots
155
What type of virus causes German measles?
Rubella RNA virus
156
What two types of virus are most likely to cause pharyngitis?
1. Adenoviruses and 2. Coxsackieviruses
157
What feature is unique regarding Influenza A's genome?
It is segmented
158
What family do coxsackieviruses belong to?
Picornavirus
159
What do group A coxsackieviruses cause (2)?
Hand-foot-and-mouth and herpangina
160
What do group B coxsackieviruses cause (3)?
Pleurodynia, myocarditis and pericarditis
161
What areas do group A coxsackieviruses have a predilection for (2)?
Skin and mucous membranes
162
What areas do group B coxsackieviruses have a predilection for (4)?
Heart, pleura, pancreas and liver
163
What virus has a similar mode of replication to that of the coxsackievirus?
Poliovirus
164
What is the best-known retrovirus?
HIV
165
Which DNA virus is unusual in that it does not perform transcription inside the nucleus?
Poxviruses
166
What is the cytopathic effect?
The fact that viruses affect certain cell types more than others
167
What group of retrovirus causes cancers?
Oncovirus
168
What group of retrovirus do HIV and AIDS fit under?
Lentivirus
169
What is negative polarity?
When RNA has the opposite sequence of mRNA
170
What term is given to bacterial toxins that are weakened to not have any detrimental affect on the host but still elicit an immune response are called?
Toxoids
171
What are the three roles of adjuvants?
1. Enhance antibody response, 2. Enhance uptake of the antigen and 3. slow down absorption and increase effectiveness of vaccines
172
What is responsible for the primary symptoms of shock?
Histamine
173
Contact dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
174
Hay fever, asthma and anaphylaxis are part of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
175
Autoimmune hemolytic anemias, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and Goodpasture disease are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
176
Lupus, rheumatoid arthritis and most cases of glomerulonephritis are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type III
177
Contact hypersensitivity, Tuberculin hypersensitivity and granulomatous hypersensitivity are what type of hypersensitivity?
Type IV
178
What is damaged in Addison's disease?
Outer layer of the adrenal glands
179
What disease is a catastrophic adrenal insufficiency and vascular collapse due to hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal cortex?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
180
What causes S. aureus to be potent during food poisoning?
Protein A
181
Where does amebiasis affect in the body?
Large intestines
182
Where does giardiasis affect in the body?
Small intestines
183
Where does Trichomoniasis affect in the body?
Urethra
184
What protozoan infects the colon?
Balantidium coli
185
How do humans acquire Toxoplasmosis gondii?
Eating cysts in undercooked meat
186
What is the name of a fungal asexual spore?
Conidium
187
What is the most effective anti-mycotic agent?
Griseofulvin
188
What is the name of a fungal infection that occurs in poorly controlled diabetes?
Mucormycosis
189
What fungal infection is particularly dangerous in immuno-compromised patients?
Cryptococcus
190
What type of fungus produces aflatoxins?
Aspergillus
191
What can aflatoxins cause in humans?
Hepatic carcinoma
192
What is the treatment of choice for Coccidioidomycosis?
Amphotericin B
193
What enzyme is produced in the kidneys and activates angiotensin?
Renin
194
What releases aldosterone, releases vasopressin, stimulates thrist centers in the brain and facilitates norepinephrine release?
Angiotensin II
195
What are respiratory enzymes that undergo alternative reduction and oxidation?
Cytochromes
196
What molecule has similar functions to histamine?
Seratonin
197
What molecule is a potent vasodilator, mediates pain, and is produced by kallikrein?
Bradykinin
198
Which AA is used to synthesize serotonin?
Tryptophan
199
Where is the largest amount of serotonin concentrated?
Intestinal mucosa
200
What are cytokines?
Soluble mediators that play a role in immunity
201
What two antibiotic families affect the cell wall?
1. Penicillin and 2. Cephalosporin
202
What two antibiotic families affect the synthesis of bacterial DNA?
1. Quinolone and 2. Metronidazole
203
What four antibiotic families affect the synthesis of bacterial proteins?
1. Tetracycline, 2. Erythromycin, 3. Clindamycin and 4. Chloramphenicol
204
What family of antibiotics targets bacterial metabolic pathways?
Sulfonamides
205
How do Amphotericin B and Nystatin work to kill fungi?
Impair Ergosterol Synthesis
206
What danger accompanies taking Amphotericin B?
Kidney toxicity
207
How does Clindamycin work?
It blocks 50S ribosomal subunits
208
What is unique about Cefaclor?
It is broad spectrum
209
What penicillin is used if a bacteria has penicillase production?
Methicillin
210
What two antibiotics are typically prescribed for treatment of rickettsia?
1. Tetracycline and 2. Chloramphenicol
211
What is the prophylactic prescription of Amoxicillin for adults?
2.0 grams of Amoxicillin one hour before the procedure
212
What is the prophylactic prescription of Amoxicillin for children?
50 mg/kg orally 1 hour prior to appointment
213
What is the prophylactic prescription of Clindamycin for adults?
600 mg orally 1 hour before appointment
214
What is the prophylactic prescription of Clindamycin for children?
20 mg/kg
215
What is the prophylactic prescription of Cephalexin for adults?
2.0 g
216
What is the prophylactic prescription of Cephalexin for children?
50 mg/kg
217
What is the prophylactic prescription of Azithromycin for adults?
500 mg
218
What is the prophylactic prescription of Azithromycin for children?
15 mg/kg
219
A medium-sized enveloped virus with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double-stranded DNA?
Herpes virus
220
What virus is the Tzanck smear used for identification?
HSV 1
221
What suppresses the synthesis of varicella-zoster and HSV and diminishes new lesion formation?
Adenosine arabinoside
222
What are the largest and most complex animal viruses?
Poxviruses
223
What is the scientific name of small pox?
Variola
224
What virus is used to vaccinate against small pox?
Vaccinia
225
What enzyme do poxviruses carry that many viruses use in the host cell?
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
226
Acute respiratory infections, acut contagious conjunctivitis, and pharyngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis are all symptoms of what virus family?
Adenovirus
227
Describe the shape and genome of adenoviruses.
Naked, icosahedral nucleocapsid with double-stranded linear DNA
228
What family of viruses does polio belong to?
Enteroviruses
229
Describe the shape and genome of reoviruses.
Unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented doubled stranded RNA genome
230
What three groups of viruses fit in reoviruses?
1. Reoviruses, 2. Rotaviruses, and 3. Arboviruses (Colorado tick fever virus)
231
What two illnesses are created by reoviruses?
1. Minor respiratory tract and 2. Gastroenteritis
232
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children age 2 and under?
Rotaviruses
233
What term describes a stable, nondisruptive relationship between a bacteriophage and a bacteria?
Temperate phage
234
What term describes a bacterium with a temperate phage?
A lysogenic bacterium
235
What phage infects E. coli?
T4
236
What growth curve describes lytic reproduction?
One-step growth curve
237
What is the name of the time period where a bacteriophage invades the bacterium but where there are no complete infective phage particles?
Eclipse period
238
What is the longer time period called between the phage's injection of genome into the bacterium and ends with the first assembled virus emerging extracellularly?
Latent period
239
What are the six steps of viral reproduction?
1. Attachment, 2. Penetration, 3. Synthesis, 4. Assembly, 5. Maturation and 6. Release
240
Mumps, measles, RSV and parainfluenza viruses all fit into which viral family?
Paramyxoviruses
241
Describe the shape and genome of paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses:
Enveloped, single-stranded, negative-stranded RNA viruses
242
What is the key difference between paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses?
Orthomyxoviruses have segmented genomes
243
What effect do paramyxoviruses have on host cells?
Syncytia formation (formation of multinucleated giant cells)
244
Where does HSV 2 lay dormant?
Lumbar/sacral sensory ganglion
245
Where does EBV take up latency?
B lymphocytes
246
What type of vaccine is the streptococcus pneumonia vaccine?
Capsular polysaccharide vaccine
247
Meningitis and pneumonia are both treated with which type of vaccine?
Capsular polysaccharide vaccine
248
Diphtheria and tetanus are both treated with which type of vaccine?
Toxoid vaccine
249
Whopping cough, typhoid fever and cholera are treated with which type of vaccine?
Killed bacteria vaccines
250
TB, tularemia and Q fever are all treated with which type of vaccine?
Live attenuated bacterial vaccines
251
Smallpox, yellow fever, measles, mumps, rubella, polio and chickenpox are all treated by what type of vaccine?
Attenuated live virus
252
Polio (2), influenza, rabies and hep A are all treated by what type of vaccine?
Inactivated virus
253
What type of vaccine treats Hep B?
Purified HBsAg: Recombinant HBsAg
254
RSV, Flu A and B, parainfluenza, measles, mumps, rubella, hep C, rabies and HIV are all what type of virus?
RNA enveloped viruses
255
Enteroviruses, Rhinoviruses, Reoviruses, Hep A and Picornaviridae are what type of virus?
RNA non-enveloped viruses
256
HSV, Poxviruses and Hep B are what type of viruses?
DNA enveloped
257
Adenoviruses, Papillomaviruses and parvoviruses are what type of viruses?
DNA non-enveloped
258
Which T-cell product stimulates the growth of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells is?
IL-3
259
What releases IL-1 and what does it cause?
Macrophages, Stimulation of T cells and antigen-presenting cells. Promotes hematopoiesis.
260
What releases IL-2 and what does it cause?
Activated T cells, Proliferation of activated T cells
261
What releases IL-3 and what does it cause?
T lymphocytes, Growth of blood cell precursors
262
What releases IL-4 and what does it cause?
T cells and mast cells, B cell proliferation and IgE production
263
What releases IL-5 and what does it cause?
T cells and mast cells, Eosinophil growth
264
What releases IL-6 and what does it cause?
Activated T cells, Synergistic effects with IL-1 of TNF-alpha
265
What releases IL-7 and what does it cause?
Thymus and bone marrow stromal cells, Development of T cell and B cell precursors
266
What releases IL-8 and what does it cause?
Macrophages, Chemoattracts neutrophils
267
What releases IL-9 and what does it cause?
Activated T cells, Promotes growth of T cells and mast cells
268
What releases IL-10 and what does it cause?
Activated T cells, B cells and monocytes, Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses
269
What is the name of the rheumatoid arthritis that occurs in young people?
Still's disease
270
What arthritis are osteophytes associated with?
Osteoarthritis
271
What phase of bacterial growth is best to use bactericidal products?
Log phase
272
What is the most common form of adverse epithelial reactions found in health care workers?
Irritation dermatitis
273
According to Spaulding's Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a critical instrument be sterilized?
Sterilization and holding in sterilized state
274
According to Spaulding's Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a semi-critical instrument be sterilized?
High level disinfection
275
According to Spaulding's Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a non-critical instrument be sterilized?
Immediate/low level disinfection
276
What is atopy?
The genetic tendency to develop classic allergic diseases
277
What is the minimum required temperature to kill spore-forming bacteria?
121 C (250 F)
