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Neuro Exam 1 - JLJ > Development of Orofacial Structures > Flashcards

Development of Orofacial Structures Flashcards

1
Q

What embryological layer is the neurocranium derived from?

A

Mesenchyme

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2
Q

What does the neurocranium give rise to?

A

Bones that enclose the brain and cartilaginous/membranous components

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3
Q

What embryological layer does the viscerocranium give rise to?

A

Mesenchyme

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4
Q

What does the viscerocranium give rise to?

A

Bones that comprise the facial skeleton and cartilaginous/membranous components

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5
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

Mesenchymal origin without cartilage formation; neovascularization occurs; osteoblasts deposit osteoid (to form bone and osteocytes)

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6
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

Preexisting cartilaginous model (long bones); primary ossification centers appear in diaphysis; chondrocytes hypertrophy and matrix calcifies

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7
Q

What are the cartilaginous parts of the neurocranium?

A

Occipital bone, body of sphenoid bone, ethmoid bone, and petrous and mastoid parts of temporal bone

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8
Q

What are the membranous parts of the neurocranium?

A

Calvaria (frontal and parietal bones)

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9
Q

What are the cartilaginous parts of the viscerocranium?

A

Neural crest cells give rise to bones and connective tissue

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10
Q

What are the membranous parts of the viscerocranium?

A

Maxillary prominence, squamous part of temporal bone, maxilla, and zygomatic bone

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11
Q

What skeletal structures come from the 1st pharyngeal arch?

A

Malleus and incus

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12
Q

What skeletal structures come from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

A

Stapes, styloid process of temporal bone, and lesser horn of hyoid

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13
Q

What skeletal structures come from the 3rd pharyngeal arch?

A

Greater horn of hyoid

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14
Q

What skeletal structures come from the 4th pharyngeal arch?

A

Laryngeal cartilage (except epiglottis)

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15
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

Premature fusion of cranial sutures

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16
Q

What is scaphocephaly and what is it characterized by?

A

Premature fusion of the sagittal suture; characterized by long, narrow, wedge shaped cranium; most common

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17
Q

What is brachycephaly and what is it characterized by?

A

Premature fusion of entire coronal suture; characterized by high, tower-like cranium

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18
Q

What is plagiocephaly and what is it characterized by?

A

Premature fusion of one side of coronal suture; characterized by twisted and asymmetric skull

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19
Q

What is trigonocephaly and what is it characterized by?

A

Premature fusion of frontal (metopic) suture

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20
Q

What is derived from the frontal nasal prominence?

A

Forehead and dorsum/apex of the nose

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21
Q

What is derived from the lateral nasal prominence?

A

Alae of nose

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22
Q

What is derived from the medial nasal prominence?

A

Nasal septum, ethmoid bone, and cribriform plate

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23
Q

What is derived from the maxillary prominence?

A

Upper cheek and upper lip

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24
Q

What is derived from the mandibular prominence?

A

Chin, lower lip, and cheek

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25
What are the 5 facial primordia? When do they appear? What do they do?
2 maxillary prominences, 2 mandibular prominences, and 1 frontonasal prominence; appear during week 4; surround stomodeum
26
The 5 facial primordia are separated from the primordial pharynx by the oropharyngeal membrane. When does this rupture?
Around day 26
27
Describe the mandibular prominences
Lower jaw and lip are the first parts of the face to form; oropharyngeal membrane disintegrates and the medial ends of the mandibular prominences merge; incomplete fusion results in chin dimple
28
Describe maxillary prominences
Gives rise to upper lip, maxilla, and secondary palate; grow medially and merge laterally with mandibular prominences; the primordial lips and cheeks are invaded by mesenchyme from PA2 and this gives rise to facial muscles
29
Describe the frontonasal prominence
Surrounds ventrolateral part of forebrain and gives rise to forehead, rostral boundary of stomodeum and nose
30
What are nasal placodes?
Bilateral oval thickenings of surface ectoderm on the inferolateral portion of frontonasal prominence; proliferation causes horse-shoe shaped elevations called medial and lateral nasal prominences; these elevations result in formation of nasal pits (primordial nares)
31
Describe the median nasal prominence
Shifted towards midline with medial growth of maxillary prominences; regulated by PDGFRA; fusion results in formation of inter maxillary segment (philtrum)
32
Describe the lateral nasal prominence
Separated from maxillary prominence by nasolacrimal groove; merges with maxillary prominence by end of week 6
33
What is the auricular primordia?
6 auricular hillocks form around the 1st pharyngeal groove; development of the mandible pushes ears from neck to side of the head at the level of the eyes
34
While on your NICU rotation, you are called to the delivery room to evaluate a newborn who is in respiratory distress. Upon arriving to the delivery room, you notice that the baby is using accessory muscles in order to breathe. In addition, you notice that the baby demonstrates nasal flaring. From which structure did the flaring part of the baby’s nose develop?
Lateral nasal prominence
35
Which signaling molecule is responsible for development of both mandibular processes and removing webbing from the hands/feet?
BMP
36
Mesenchyme from medial and lateral nasal prominences induce nasal pits to become deeper. These are called what?
Primordial nasal sacs
37
What is the primordial choanae?
Connection between nasopharynx and nasal cavity
38
What is the nasal conchae?
Divided into superior, middle, and inferior turbinate; these become inflamed with rhinitis
39
What is the olfactory epithelium?
Specializes into olfactory nerve; loss of smell can occur about 10 years prior to the onset of symptoms of Parkinson’s disease
40
Palatogenesis occurs in 2 stages. Between what week does this occur and when is the critical period?
Occurs between weeks 6-12; critical period is end of week 6 to the beginning of week 9
41
What is the primary palate?
Fusion of medial nasal prominences to form the median palatine process; located between maxillary prominences; forms premaxillary part of maxilla
42
What is the secondary palate?
Develops from lateral palatine processes (palatal shelves); mesenchymal projections extending from internal aspects of maxillary prominences
43
What is the final palate?
Bone extends from the maxillae and palatine bones into lateral palatine processes to form the hard palate; posterior portions don’t ossify (becomes soft palate and uvula)
44
What is the palatine raphe?
Line of fusion in final palate
45
What is the incisive fossa in the hard palate a remnant of?
Nasopalatine canal
46
What is the nasal septum?
Downward growth of internal parts of merged medial nasal prominences; fuses with lateral palatine processes anterior to posterior
47
What is the most common craniofacial malformation?
Cleft lip and palate
48
What causes cleft lip and palate?
Defects in fusion; can be unilateral or bilateral, but unilateral cleft lip on the left is most common
49
What environmental factors can cause cleft lip and palate?
Antiepileptic drugs, smoking, binge drinking, folate deficiency, and obesity
50
What is choanal atresia?
Associated with bony abnormalities of the pterygoid plates and midfacial growth abnormalities; presents as upper airway obstruction, noisy breathing, or cyanosis that worsens during feeding and improves with crying
51
Choanal atresia can also be part of what other syndromes?
Treacher-Collins, CHARGE, Kallman, or VACTERL syndromes
52
What part of the tongue is called the oral part?
Anterior 2/3
53
Describe oral part of tongue development
Medial lingual swelling (median tongue bud) appears at the end of 4th week; 2 lateral tongue swellings (distal tongue buds) develop on either side of medial lingual swelling; induced by mesenchyme from PA1
54
Where does the copula of the pharyngeal part of the tongue come from?
Ventromedial part of PA2
55
Where does the hypopharyngeal eminence of the pharyngeal part of the tongue come from?
Ventromedial part of PA3 and PA4 *this eminence overgrown the copula*
56
What happens at the terminal sulcus?
Fusion of oral and pharyngeal parts of the tongue
57
What innervates the mucosa of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Lingual branch of V3
58
What innervates the taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Chorda tympani (VII)
59
What innervates the taste buds of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
IX
60
What innervates the musculature of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
XII
61
What innervates the mucosa and taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
IX
62
What innervates the musculature of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
XII
63
What innervates the sensation to the pharynx?
X
64
What innervates the palatogglossus muscle?
X
65
What is glossoschissis?
Bifid tongue
66
What is ankyloglossia?
Short frenulum; can present with problems breastfeeding and speaking
67
What is macroglossia?
Associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann and Down Syndromes mucopolysaccharidoses
68
What is the dental laminae?
U-shaped bands of oral epithelium that follow the curves of the primitive jaws
69
How many different tooth buds are there?
10
70
Odontogenesis is induced by what?
Communication between neural crest cells and oral epithelium
71
What is the cap stage?
Tooth bud becomes cap shaped when invested by mesenchyme
72
What does a tooth bud consist of?
Enamel organ, dental papilla, and dental follicle/sac
73
What do extodermal cells from the dental lamina give rise to?
Enamel
74
The outer cell layer of the enamel organ is lined by what?
Outer enamel epithelium
75
The inner cell layer of the enamel organ that lines the papilla is lined by what?
Inner enamel epithelium
76
What makes up the internal part of the tooth (the dental papilla)?
Dentin and pulp
77
What is the dental follicle/sac?
Mesenchyme surrounding dental papilla and enamel organ; also cementum
78
What is the bell stage?
Enamel organ becomes bell shaped due to differentiation of enamel
79
What are odontoblasts?
From dental papilla cells next to inner enamel; predentin calcifies to become dentin
80
What are ameloblasts?
Inner enamel epithelium that differentiates in response to dentin production; produces enamel
81
What is the epithelial root sheath?
Fusion of inner and outer enamel epithelium; root dentin produced by odontoblasts
82
What is the pulp?
Central dental papilla
83
What is the cementum?
Inner cells of dental sac that form cementoblasts
84
What is the periodontal ligament?
Outer cells from the dental sac
85
What is tooth eruption?
Root of tooth and crown erupt through the oral epithelium; mandibular teeth erupt first; the deciduous root is resorbed by odontoclasts (osteoclasts); the crown and upper root are shed
86
When do deciduous permanent teeth appear?
About 10 weeks
87
When do tooth buds for permanent teeth mostly appear?
Fetal period
88
How many teeth make up the permanent dentition?
32

Neuro Exam 1 - JLJ (17 decks)

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