Diagnostic Imaging Flashcards

(281 cards)

1
Q

5 radio opacities

A

Air
Fat
Fluid (soft tissue)
Mineral (bone)
Metal

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2
Q

What colour is radio opaque

A

White

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3
Q

What happens to a structure furhter away from the imaging plate?

A

It is magnified

Structures closer to cassette appear smaller than those further away (like a hand in a shadow)

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4
Q

What colour is positive and negative summation?

A

Positive -> white, two soft tissue opacities = thicker and more opaque

Negative -> two gas opacities become darker

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5
Q

What is border effacement? **

A

AKA negative silhouette sign

Two structures with same opacity next to each other result in loss of border

Eg right middle lung lobe with soft tissue opacity due to fluid or abscess effacing border of the heart

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6
Q

What is border enhancement?

A

AKA positive silhouette sign

Silhouette of adjacent objects of the same opacity is enhanced when surrounded by a different tissue opacity (eg in a pneumothorax the heart looks more defined)

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7
Q

What is PLACE used for?

A

To assess quality

  1. Positioning
  2. Labelling
  3. Artifacts
  4. Collimation and centering
  5. Exposure
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8
Q

7 descriptive factors to describe abnormalities: (roentgen signs)

A

Size
Shape
Location/position
Margination
Number
Opacity
Function

SSLMNOF

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9
Q

What is a radiological diagnosis?

A

Diagnosis that can be made from 1 radiograph alone with no other info

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10
Q

What are the 7 possibilities for differential diagnosis?

A

DAMNITV

Degenerative
Anomalous/acquired
Metabolic
Neoplastic
Infectious, inflammatory, immune
Traumatic
Vascular

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11
Q

Steps to write a rad report

A
  1. Identify case - name, species, maturity
  2. Identify all views taken
  3. Evaluate radiographic quality
  4. Describe all radiographic abnormalites
  5. Conclusion (list radiologic diagnosis, list prioritised differential diagnosis)
  6. Consider further imaging procedures that would be of value
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12
Q

What is a bias error?

A

Expecting to find something

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13
Q

What is a searching error?

A

Not being systematic and thorough
Over reliance on pattern recognition

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14
Q

What is a recognition error?

A

Abnormalities recognised but given too much weight or not taken into account causing a misinterpretation of results

Over or under reading

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15
Q

What is a decision making error?

A

Which abnormalities are assumed to be important

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16
Q

What is an egocentric error?

A

Overestimating your personal grasp of the truth

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17
Q

How many orthogonal views should be taken?

A

Minimum of 2

eg ML and CrCd

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18
Q

What should radiographs of long bones include?

A

Proximal and distal adjacent joints

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19
Q

What should views of joints include?

A

1/3 of bone above and below

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20
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

Top or end of the bone

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21
Q

What is the metaphysis?

A

Just below epiphysis

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22
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Whole central part of bone

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23
Q

What is the physis?

A

growth plate - primary centre for ossification

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24
Q

What is the apophysis?

A

Part of bone with physis, but unlike epiphysis does not have a joint

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25
What is the periosteum?
Membrane covering the outside of the bone
26
Endosteum
Membrane on the inner part of the bone
27
Trabeculae
Small fine lines on the ends of bones
28
What is intramembraneous ossification?
Ossification in fibrous tissue -> flat bones, skull and most facial bones Mesenchymal tissue replaced by bone Ossifies in embryo -> diaphysis then epiphysis Periosteum produces bone by intramembranous ossification Grow in length on the metaphysial side
29
What is endocondral ossification?
Ossification of preformed cartilage frame (cartilage replaced by bone) Typical long bone has 3 centres of ossification 1. Diaphysis (primary centre) 2. Epiphysis (secondary ossification centres)
30
What side of the physis do we see increased bone opacity?
Metaphyseal side
31
Primary centre of ossification
Diaphysis - growing and lengthening
32
Secondary centres of ossification
Epiphysis -> bone length Apophysis -> bone shape Small bones -> carpi, tarsi
33
Accessory centres of ossification
Sesamoid bones Focal areas of mineralisation near joints
34
What are sesamoid bones? What do they lack?
Small smooth rounded structures formed where tendons pass over a joint to reduce friction, protect and stabilse a tendon Usually one one surface is articular Lacks a periosteum
35
Where are accessory ossification centres (ossicles) normally found?
Many locations usually near joints or embedded in joint capsule Generally represent normal variants that need to be differentiated from pathology
36
Examples of an accessory ossification centre
Accessory caudal glenoid ossification centre -> Found in medium-large breed dogs and failure to unite can cause pain Clavicles -> ossified in 96% large dogs and all cats Pelvis -> acetabular rim craniodorsal margin may not fuse completely Os penis -> usually 1 but can develop 2+ centres Coronoid process - incomplete ossification associated with elbow dysplasia
37
2 normal radiographic features of bone
Nutrient foraminae -> in all long bones, location of major blood vessels and nerves supplying medulla Mach lines -> 2 cortical surfaces are superimposed causing optical illusion of a radiolucent line
38
2 types of joints
Synarthroses - not synovial (immovable joints like teeth to mandible) Diarthrosis - synovial (freely moveable like elbow, ankle, knee)
39
4 Standard projections for joints
1. Craniocaudal 2. Caudocranial 3. Mediolateral 4. CrMCdLO (craniomedial caudolateral oblique or CrLCdMO Flexed or extended, with traction or torsion
40
What is stress radiography for joints?
Applying force like compression, rotation, traction, shear and wedge
41
What is 5 alternative imaging for joints?
Arthrography Ultrasound MRI Contrast athrography - inject contrast medium to see cartilage joint (invasive hole in joint) Computed tomography
42
What does increased opacity indicate?
Productive or sclerotic changes
43
What does decreased opacity indicate?
Osteolysis or osteoporosis
44
5 ways bones react to disease
1. Increased opacity 2. Decreased opacity 3. Periosteal reaction (new bone) 4. Change in size or contour 5. Change in trabecular pattern
45
What is Wolff's law?
Bone responds to stresses placed on bone -> osteoblast and clast activity Remodelling - Periosteal, cortical, subchondral, endosteal and cancellous | Endosteum -> lines medulla inside bone Periosteum -> Lines outside
46
ABCDS for musculoskeletal evaluation
Alignment Bones Cartilage Devices Soft tissue
47
ABCDS -> alignment
Describe distal part relative to proximal part eg Lateral displacment of antebrachium relative to the humerus | Antibrachium - region from wrist to elbow
48
ABCDS -> bone Response of bone is limited to:
Response of bone is limited to: 1. Increased radio-opacity -> Sclerosis - increased density of bone OR apparent sclerosis (superimposition of bones) 2. Decreased radio-opacity -> seen after 7-10d. Osteomalacia (poor quality good quantity), osteopaenia (good quality, poor quantity) or osteolysis (abnormal focal area of bone resorption)
49
4 Roentgen signs of osteopaenia
Reduced bone opacity Cortical thinning Coarse trabeculae Loss of lamina dura around teeth | good quality, bad quantity of bone
50
In a diseased bone what is the usual response with decreased radio opacity?
Combination of lysis and sclerosis
51
Aggressiveness of bone lesion determined by looking at:
Location and distribution Presence of cortical disruption Pattern of lysis and production Type of periosteal reaction Rate of change of lesion Zone of transition
52
4 Factors involved in assessing location of lesion
General or diffuse -> metabolic or nutritional Whole limb -> disuse atrophy or neuropathy Focal or multifocal Symmetrical
53
Monostotic vs polystotic lesions
Monostotic -> primary bone tumours occur principally in the metaphyseal area. Can be cancerous or not cancerous Polostotic -> metastatic tumours often more than one bone involved usually within diaphysis. Spread from elsewhere to bone
54
Signs of cortical involvement
1. Thickened cortex 2. Thinned cortex 3. Broken cortex If no cortical involvment -> likely benign Look at both endosteal surfaces and periosteal
55
3 bone lysis patterns from least to most aggressive
1. Geographic 2. Moth eaten 3. Permeative
56
Describe geographic lysis
Uniformly destroyed with defined border Well demarcated, cortex expanded but not lytic Often benign
57
Describe moth eaten lysis and 3 things it could be caused by
Ragged borders, multiple areas of lysis 3-10mm in size Cortex irregularly eroded Bone tumours, multiple myeloma and osteomyelitis
58
Describe permeative lysis
ill defined and spreading through marrow space multiple pinpoint areas of lysis, cortex irregularly eroded most agressive Most likely bone tumour
59
Name 6 continuous periosteal reactions
Smooth and solid Codmans triangle Rough and solid Lamellar Brush border Pallisading
60
Name 3 interrupted periosteal reactions
Spicular Sunburst Amorphous
61
Causes of lamellar periosteal reaction
Single layer of new bone Onion skin -> trauma, infection
62
Which type of periosteal reaction is associated with malignancy?
Amorphous periosteal reaction Random deposition of new bone in soft tissue adjacent to lesions
63
What is codmans triangle?
Occur when bone lesions are so aggressive the periosteum is lifted off the bone Triangular cuff at edge of aggressive lesion formed due to periosteal elevation Caused by anything that lifts periosteum off the cortex both benign and aggressive - haematoma or fracture Not pathognomonic for a tumour
64
How long do destructive and productive changes take to be seen on radiograph?
Destructive -> 5-7d to be seen Productive -> 10-14d to be seen
65
What is a transition zone and what does it mean if it is abrupt or indistinct?
Appearance of region between lesions and adjacent normal bone Short and abrupt -> benign Indistinct -> aggressive
66
4 Features of benign lesions
1. Well defined border 2. Lack of soft tissue mass 3. Solid periosteal reaction 4. Geographic bone destruction
67
4 features of malignant lesions
1. Interrupted periosteal reaction 2. Moth eaten or permeative destruction 3. Soft tissue mass 4. Wide zone of transition
68
What density is cartilage?
Soft tissue density -> cannot see it on radiographs clearly
69
How do we assess cartilage on radiographs?
Soft tissue changes -> opacity changes, swellings, atrophy Subchondral bone destruction or sclerosis Narrowing of joint spaces, intra-articular fractures
70
3 causes of gas opacity changes
1. Laceration 2. Gas producing organism 3. Iatrogenic
71
3 causes of mineralisation
1. Dystrophic 2. Metastatic 3. Neoplastic
72
3 causes of opacity changes
1. Gas 2. Mineralisation 3. Foreign material
73
2 causes of enlargments in soft tissue
1. Intracapsular soft tissue swelling -> centred on a joint, soft tissue opacity effusion 2. Extracapsular soft tissue swelling -> away from joint or extends beyond joint, may obscure intra-capsular swelling
74
What are 2 tell tale aggressive locations?
Metaphyseal (primary bone tumour) Diaphyseal (metastatic bone tumours)
75
What does it suggest if the cortex is broken?
Aggression
76
What would the zone of transition be like in an aggressive lesion?
Indistinct, permeative, long zone of transition
77
What would the zone of transition be like in a non-aggressive lesion?
Sharp, distinctive short zone of transition
78
4 periosteal reactions suggesting an aggressive lesion
Indistinct, permeative, spiculated, amorphous
79
Periosteal reaction suggesting a non-aggressive lesion
Smooth continuous
80
4 bones in the carpus
Radiocarpal bone Intermediate Ulnar Accessory
81
What is horizontal beam radiography used for?
To see gas or fluid in the peritoneum If the animal is in pain to keep them still
82
What is stress radiography good for?
Aids in joint laxity Limb is stabilised above and below join or other area of interest Force is applied to joint and instability shown
83
Standard views of the scapula
Le to Rt Lateral CdCr May need two laterals: body and neck of scapula
84
Shoulder joint / scapula neck standard views
ML CdCr Optional: Flexed ML, CrCd or skyline (CrPrCrDiO)
85
3 ligaments attaching to shoulder joint
Biceps brachii tendon Transverse humeral ligament (medial) Glenohumeral ligaments (medial and lateral)
86
What is a skyline image?
CrPrCrDiO
87
Standard views of the humerus
ML CdCr Include proximal and distal joints in
88
Standard views of the elbow
ML Flexed ML CrCd
89
Special views of the elbow
Cr15degreesL - CdMO for a fragmented medial coronoid process and shows medial humeral condyle Cr15degreesM-CdLO for incomplete ossification humeral condyle fissures
90
Elbow ligaments
Lateral and medial collateral ligaments Annular ligament of radius Flexor carpi ulnaris
91
Cr15degreesL-CdMO view of elbow benefit
Improve visibility of medial coronoid process and medial humeral condyle
92
Standard views of the carpus
DPa ML
93
Special views of the carpus
Flexed ML Stressed extended Obliques
94
Manus standard views
Dpa ML Any oblique view to highlight specific digits and sesamoids
95
Special views of the manus
Stressed digit -> use porous tape or cotton wool to splay digits on ML view Compression
96
Pelvis standard views
Laterolateral Extended VD Optional flexed frog leg VD
97
Pelvis special views
any oblique to highlight specific area
98
Hip dysplasia views
Extended VD Penn hip
99
View of pelvis if one side positioned in front of the other
Right cranial left caudal oblique (left would be in front (cranial) here)
100
Important factors in VD extended coxofemoral view (hips)
Entire pelvis in including proximal tibia Must be symmetric = femurs parallel and patellae in middle of stifle (legs turned slightly in so patella superimposed over distal femur) Animal in dorsal recumbency, collimation includes lasat 2 lumbar vertebrae and patellas
101
3 ligaments in sacroiliac joint
Dorsal sacroiliac ligament Ventral sacroiliac ligament Sacrotuberous ligament
102
Hip joint features
Joint capsule Ligament of head of femur Transverse acetabular ligament
103
VD flexed frog leg process and reason
Good for fractures and can see degree of subluxation in hip dysplasia Dorsal recumbency Pelvic limbs flexed Collimation includes last 2 lumbar vertebrae, proximal femurs and tuber ischii
104
Penn hip method
1. Obtains OA readings from standard hip extended view 2. Obtains hip joint congruity readings from compressed view 3. Obtains quantitative measurements of hip joint laxity from distraction view Accurate in puppies as young as 16wks
105
What DI rating is unlikely to develop OA from hip dysplasia (penn hip)
DI <0.3 (femoral head comes out of joint by <30%) is unlikely to develop OA from hip dysplasia
106
Femur standard views
ML CrCd
107
Stifle standard views
ML CdCr or CrCd Flexed ML
108
5 ligaments of the stifle joint
1. Medial femoropatellar ligament 2. Tendon of quad femoris 3. Patellar ligament 4. Medial collateral ligament 5. Region of menisci (cranial and caudal cruciate ligament)
109
Skyline of patella view and its use
CrPrCrDiO Used to better visualise patella and trochlear groove Used in cases of medial or lateral luxating patella Often in horses for sagittal fracture of patella
110
Standard views tarsus
ML PlD DPl
111
Special views tarsus
Flexed ML Extended ML Relevant obliques for pathology Flexed DPl view (skyline)
112
For a horse with OCD what view of the tarsus is done?
Flexed ML
113
PlD view tarsus
Sternal recumbency leg stretched out behind caudally Easier to extend if dog has hip disease Rotate stifle internally
114
Pes (hind paw) views
ML DP Splayed same as front toes
115
5 causes of fractures
Trauma from external force Trauma from internal force Normal activity on diseased bone Stress protection/stress riser -> weakened bone at end of plate Defect in bone due to biopsy or surgery
116
3 Reasons for missing a fracture
Incorrect exposure, positioning, not enough views Non displaced fragments -> if hairline fracture suspected but not seen re-evaluate in 7-10d Confusion with physees and other mimics
117
What views should be taken to assess fractures
Several orthogonal views, obliques and stress views
118
5 normal causes of radiolucent lines
1. Nutrient foramen 2. Normal physes 3. Multipartite sesamoids/separate ossification centres 4. Mach lines (bone overlying bone) 5. Overlying fascial planes containing fat
119
9 steps in describing fractures
BTPDUJASP Bone involvement Type of fracture Physeal involvement Displacement, angulation Underlying bone pathology Joint involvement Age of fracture Soft tissue injuries + infection Presence of foreign material
120
Fracture types - incomplete/complete
Open -> gas or foreign material in site, bone beyond skin margins, infection risk Closed Complete or incomplete -> does it involve both cortices? Complete -> simple - 1 fracture line, transverse, oblique, spiral OR comminuted - 2 or more fracture lines, segmental (2 fracture lines isolating a segment) or butterfly fragments Incomplete -> one cortex involved Hairline -> thin fracture line, no disaplacement, full depth not involved Greenstick -> cortex broken on convex side Torus -> Cortex buckles on concave side
121
Rest of the fracture types
Avulsion - bony insertion of ligament/tendon involved (slab or chip fracture) Compression - often no line seen, bones impact into each other Fatigue or stress fracture - from repeat trauma Shearing fracture - abrasion type open fracture Condylar fractures - involve condyle and metaphysis Monteggia fracture - luxation of radial head with proximal ulnar fractures most likely from trauma, with types 1-5 based on degree of luxation of radial head
122
Physeal growth plate fractures - how are they classed?
Occur only in immature animals Classed according to degree of involvement of the epiphysis, physis and metaphysis Salter Harris fracture types are correlated to chance growth deformity occurs when the fracture heals -> 1-5 1 is best prognosis 5 is worst
123
Salter Harris fracture classes
1 -> through growth plate 2 -> through growth plate and metaphysis 3 -> through growth plate and epiphysis 4 -> through all 3 elements 5 -> crush injury of the growth plate
124
3 other factors of fracture assessment
Joint involvement - articular fractures need stable fixation Age of fracture - sharpness of bone edges Presence of foreign material
125
2 types of fracture healing, and factors to assess progress
Primary and secondary ABCDS -> alignment, bone, cartilage/joint, decide, soft tissue Post op rads taken at 2,4,6 weeks then monthly until healed
126
Stages of secondary healing
5-10d 10-20d >30d >90d
127
Characteristics of day 5-10 of fracture healing
Fragments lose sharp edge Demineralization Fracture widens
128
Characteristics of day 10-20 of fracture healing
Endosteal and periosteal callus Decrease size of fracture gap Fragments lose opacity
129
Characteristics of day 30 of fracture healing
Fracture line disappearing Callus bridges Remodeling
130
Characteristics of day >90 of fracture healing
Callus remodeling Cortex visible Remodeling continuity of medullary cavity
131
3 features of fracture healing
Bone continuity of cortex Calcified and ossified complete bridging callus No visible fracture line Usually healed 6-8wks later if adequately stabilised
132
Which type of healing is faster?
Secondary
133
Primary vs secondary healing times in 2yr old dog
Primary -> 5-12 months Secondary -> 2-3 months
134
Secondary healing time in 4wk old puppy vs 1yr old dog
Pup -> 2-3 weeks 1yr old -> 8-12 weeks
135
What is disuse osteopaenia?
Effects of non weight bearing especially if a cast is applied Cortical thinning Double cortical line Reduced bone opacity Coarse trabecular pattern
136
What causes lysis adjacent to implants?
Loosening or infection
137
6 factors affecting fracture healing
Blood supply Type of fracture Reduction of fracture Stability Age of animal Concurrent disease or infection
138
Radiographic signs of complications of fracture healing
No callus Exuberant callus Angulation or rotation of fragments Lysis at fracture margin and separation of fragments Zone of radiolucency around fixation devices within the bone Failure of implants Delayed union -> mostly due to instability
139
What is malunion?
Bone healing but in abnormal position Valgus Varus
140
Causes of infection in fracture healing
Open fracture Contamination Long surgical procedures Excessive tissue damage Foreign material
141
What can cause a fracture induced sarcoma?
A metal plate that has irritated bone and caused a reaction due to chronic movement
142
What is Metalosis ? What changes occur?
Chemolysis due to incompatible metals used for internal fixation which causes an osteolucent response around the implant resulting in loss of stability and implant failure. Osteolytic changes appear similar in appearance to early osteomyelitis
143
What is implant (hardware) failure?
Metal fatigue causing fractures of plates, screws or pins that causes instability and fraction non-union 
144
What can happen to young animals with traumatic incidents to antebrachium?
The physis can close prematurely causing angular limb deformities where one bone stops growing and one continues and bends. The distal ulna and radius are most commonly affected and it leads to joint incongruity
145
Structural changes that occur after premature distal ulna growth plate closure:
Shortened ulna Cranial and medial bowing of radius Valgus Deformity Humerus forced proximally Widening on humeral-ulnar joint
146
Structural changes during premature distal radius physis closure
Shortened radius Widened humeral-radial joint space
147
2 categories of a primary bone neoplasia
Malignant -> solitary, aggressive, often metaphyseal Benign -> less common, slow growing
148
Characteristics of secondary bone neoplasia
Metastatic Haematogenous spread, multiple aggressive lesions, Polyostotic distribution Diaphyseal commonly (nutrient foramen located here)
149
Is osteosarcoma malignant or benign? Where does it start?
Malignant -> also 85% of bone tumours Starts in metaphysis of long bone
150
Example of benign bone neoplasm
Osteoma - protruding cell mass with abnormally dense bone in the periosteum (skull and facial bones common)
151
4 types of primary bone neoplasia and their occurrence as a %
Osteosarcoma 85% (highly malignant) Chondrosarcoma 5-10% (malignant -> benign, diverse cartilage tumours) Fibrosarcoma <5% (produce fibrous tumour rather than bone) Haemangiosarcoma <5%
152
Where are osteosarcoma common?
In juveniles in the distal femur
153
Where does multiple myeloma occur?
Most common polyostotic malignant primary bone tumour Occurs in bone marrow Often originates in diaphysis
154
Where does lymphoma of bone occur?
In reticular cells, lymphoblasts and lymphocytes of middle aged patients
155
Where do malignant giant cell tumours occur?
Rare Extremities of long bones
156
3 things osteosarcoma could be associated with What doesn’t it cross?
A fracture site months-years later Internal fixation devices Chronic osteomyelitis at the fracture site The joint space
157
3 locations osteosarcomas occur
Proximal 1/3 of humerus, distal 1/3 of radius and ulna Distal 1/3 of femur and proximal 1/3 of tibia Proximal 1/3 of femur *rare* and distal 1/3 of tibia *rare*
158
Radiographic findings of osteosarcomas
Lots of lysis, monostotic, metaphyseal usually Lysis is aggressive and involves cortex Periosteal changes (sunburst, spiculated) Soft tissue swelling or pathological fractures both may be present Endosteal indentations resulting in cortical spike formations Codmans triangle
159
Features of benign bone neoplasia
No age, breed or site predilection Causes lameness only when pathological fracture occurs Geographic lysis, short transition
160
3 types of benign bone neoplasia
Osteoma (face bump) Osteochondroma - grows until phyis closes Enchondroma - expanding medullary tumour Bone cysts
161
Osteoma description
dense cortical bone with smooth periosteal reaction
162
Enchondroma description
Common benign intramedullary cartilaginous neoplasm Trabeculae +/- radiolucent centre may be seen Ddx - bone infarcts Circles of new bone laid down, puts pressure on cortex
163
Features of bone cysts
Expansile fluid filled radiolucent lesions in diaphysis/metaphysis of long bone Well demarcated transition zone Cortical thinning - path fractures
164
Bone infarcts - where, what
Osteonecrosis in the metaphysis most commonly, can be diaphysis Symmetrical or multiple infarcts Shell like new bone formation and sclerosis with creeping, wavy margin Discrete calcification and periostitis may also be seen
165
What is an osteochondroma and what is the new bony growth in an osteochondroma called?
Osteocartilagenous exostosis Multiple osteochondromatosis (multiple tumours) Osteochondroma -> most common benign tumour of bone, occurs where cartilage being converted to bone. Grow until physis closes Can be of viral cause in cats
166
What is synovial osteochondromatosis?
Benign proliferative disease of the synovium with cartilage metaplasia, resulting in multiple intra-articular loose bodies Ranges from synovial tissue to firm nodules of bone forming cartilage Can occur idiopathic or secondary to osteoarthritis | Metaplasia -> conversion of one tissue type to another
167
Common sites for metastatic bone neoplasia
Diaphysis or metaphyseal Usually affects the diaphysis of long bone (but can be any bone) Femur, humerus, vertebrae + ribs
168
Generally Where do metastatic bone neoplasia occur? What is their appearance?
Downstream from blood vessel of primary area it started (often starts in lungs) Aggressive and may be lytic and/or proliferative, often in older animals with no breed specifically Eg multiple myeloma
169
Example of a type of metastatic bone neoplasm
Multiple myeloma characteristically lytic with punched out appearance Monoclonal gammopathy Atypical plasma cell proliferation in bone marrow Often vertebrae and ribs can be elsewhere
170
Primary site for metastatic squamous cell carcinoma
Tonsillar
171
Bone tumour and bone infection similarity
Both aggressive
172
What would a solitary, aggressive metaphyseal lesion be?
Primary bone tumour eg osteosarcoma
173
What are two things that happen with chronic infection in bone? (osteomyelitis)
Sequestrum -> increased mineral opacity Involucrum -> irregular thickening of cortex of dead bone
174
Two types of osteomyelitis
Fungal or bacterial Both infection of bone
175
What is bacterial osteomyelitis normally secondary to? and what symptoms are present?
an open wound - an extension from soft tissue injury, a puncture site, open fracture, surgical procedure Osteomyelitis is inflammation of bone or marrow due to infection normally Pain, fever, swelling, leukocytosis, fistulous tracts
176
Differences between bacterial osteomyelitis and bone tumours - location, periosteal reaction
Osteomyelitis -> typically not metaphyseal, can be anwhere, not as aggressive as a bone tumour, can involve more than one bone, most have pallisading periosteal reaction (not spiculated like tumours) and may have small gas opacities
177
What are the causes of bacterial osteomyelitis?
Occaisonally bacteraemia, haematogenous spread (usually in skeletally immature animals) Bacterial endocarditis, neonatal umbilical infection
178
What are the lesions like of haematogenous bacterial osteomyelitis?
Lytic, productive or mixed - depends on virulence of organism and immune system of animal
179
Characteristics of fungal osteomyelitis - location, population it affects, origin
Mycotic Geographic distributions Young, large breed dogs (uncommon in cats) Haematogenous in origin Usually in metaphysis of long bones but can be diaphysis Can cross joints - polyostotic
180
3 common fungal agents causing osteomyelitis in australia
1. Aspergillosis - immune compromised german shepherds 2. Actinomcyes - from grass seed migration to vertebrae 3. Cryptococcus Can be confused with tumours - look for systemic illness and fever
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2 types of protozoan bone infections and signs
Leishmanisasis Hepatozoonosis (rare) fever, weight loss, muscle atrophy, ocular discharge, pain
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Radiographic lesions of protozoan infections
Limited to periosteum Irregular profliferation or smooth Polyostotic (multiple bones) aggressive lesions
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Acute radiographic signs of osteomyelitis
First leions seen at 7d when lysis/periosteal reaction occurs - proliferative and moderate aggression - can extend down shaft of diaphysis Lysis of cortical and medullary bone Diffuse soft tissue swelling
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Chronic radiographic signs of osteomyelitis
Sclerotic margin around lytic areas Sequestrum formation Periosteal proliferation may or may not be present Soft tissue swelling
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6 differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis
Neoplasia Bone cyst Delayed fracture union as a result of instability Hypertrophic osteodystrophy Secondary hypertrophic osteodystrophy Medullary bone infection
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2 types of subungal tumours
Squamous cell carcinomas - most common. Seen in large breed black dogs Malignant melanomas
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A type of subungal infection
Pododermatitis
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Common factors between subungal infection and tumours
Both can occur in manus or pes at equal frequency Both aggressive bone lesions with bone lysis
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Location of non-aggressive vs aggressive lesions
Non -> anywhere Aggressive -> metaphysis (primary bone tumour) or diaphyseal (metastatic bone tumor)
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Bone destruction type of non-aggressive vs aggressive lesions
Non -> geographic Aggressive -> permeative
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Cortical disruption of non-aggressive vs aggressive lesions
Non -> none Aggressive -> broken or not seen, path fractures
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Zone of transition of non-aggressive vs aggressive lesions
Non -> sharp, distinct Aggressive -> Indistinct, permeative, long zone of transition
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Periosteal reaction of non-aggressive vs aggressive lesions
Non -> smooth continuous Aggressive -> Interrupted, variable, spiculated, amorphous
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What is hypertrophic osteopathy? What is it caused by?
Increased periosteal bone formation in long bones - starts distal and moves proximal Mostly metatarsus and metacarpus Caused by cardiopulmonary disease or neoplasia (pulmonary or intra-abdominal)
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Signs of hypertrophic osteopathy
Increased blood to extremities Periosteal new bone formation (brush border to palisading) on digits and progressively extends proximally Swollen extremities, lameness Secondary to thoracic disease
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6 types of epiphyseal disorders
Osteochondrosis Ununited anconeal process Fragmented medial coronoid process Hip dysplasia Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head Epiphyseal dysplasia
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What is osteochondrosis AKA
Developmental orthopaedic disease
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What is the cause of osteochondrosis?
Dysfunction of endochondral ossification (cartilage doesnt ossify properly and becomes thickened instead) May necrose and cause cartilage flap -> Osteochondritis dessicans (OCD)
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Who and where does osteochondrosis normally affect?
Large breed dogs 4-10 monthsold Bilateral Shoulder (most common), elbow, stifle, tarsus, retained endochondral cartilage core (ulna), ununited anconeal process ## Footnote focal area of endochondral ossification causing cartilgae thickening that can necrose, cause fissure, become a fragment seen on rads
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radiographic signs of osteochondrosis
Subchondral bone defect Subchondral sclerosis (more bone laid down) Calcified glap of cartilage free in joint (OCD, joint mouse) Joint effusion and widened joint Sometimes see gas in shoulder joint
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Population affected by elbow osteochondrosis and location in elbow
Males more than females 5-10 months old large breeds Get a subchondral defect of the medial condyle and subchondral sclerosis elbow (medial humeral condyle) is the second most common location after the shoulder
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Lesions seen in stifle osteochondrosis
Lateral condylar surface more commonly affected Defect or flattening in articular surface Subchondral swelling Mineralised flap Secondary osteoarthritis
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Lesions seen in tarsus osteochondrosis
Medial trochlear ridge (talus) most common Widening of joint space Flattened trochlear ridge Subchondral sclerosis Caudal mineralised flap Secondary osteoarthritis Tarso-crural effusion
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4 causes of elbow dysplasia
Genetics overnutrition joint incongruity Specific joint disorders -> ununited anconeal process, fragmented medial coronoid process
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Ununited anconeal process -> breed, when it should be fused by, radiographic view
German shepherds - large breed dogs have separate anconeal ossification centre 5 months Bilateral 30% Males 2x more likely Flexed ML view of the elbow
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Radiographic findings of ununited anconeal process
Radiolucent line separating anconeal process from olecranon after 20 weejs Line irregular and of variable width Ends on either side of physis sclerotic, secondary osteoarthritis
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Fragmented medial coronoid process -> breed, age, radiographic view
Medium - large breeds Males 4-6 months of age cranio15 degree lateral caudomedial oblique
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Fragmented medial coronoid process radiographic signs
ML -> sclerosis in interosseous space between proximal ulna and radius Degenerative changes (osteophytic) on anconeal process and medial epicondyle Rare to see actual fragment
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Hip dysplasia - who, bilateral or unilateral, underlying process
Large dogs but also small dogs and cats Inherited, not present at birth - develops due to joint laxity leading to abnormal hip development and secondary osteoarthritis Usually bilateral but can be unilateral
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Normal hip joints description
Deep cup shaped acetabulum Smooth circular margin femoral head >2/3 of head in dorsal rim Parallel joint space Narrow femoral neck
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Changes in HD in order of appearance
1. Subluxation of 1 or both femoral heads 2. Perichondral enthesophytes 3. Remodelling of femoral head and neck 4. Remodelling of the acetabulum 5. Sclerosis of subchondral bone of femoral head and acetabulum
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Abnormal radiographic findings of HD
Shallow acetabulum Flattening and subluxation of femoral head Thickened femoral necks Subchondral sclerolsis Enthesophytes - bony spur arising from pulling of tendons or ligaments forming "morgans line"
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What is the norberg angle?
Measurement made from extended limb VD Number represents laxity -> normal more than 105, abnormal less than 90, borderline in between
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How does the feline coxofemoral joint differ from that of a dog?
It has shallower acetabulum reflected in the norberg angle being 92.4
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Who does aseptic necrosis of the femoral head affect? | Legg-Calves Perthes disease
Small young dogs -> terriers, poodles, chihuahua 3-10 months old Not in cats -> but analagous condition called capital physeal dysplasia in cats
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What is aseptic necrosis of the femoral head
Femoral head loses blood supply and becomes necrotic can subluxate and then get degenerative changes
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Initial and then progressive radiographic signs of aseptic necrosis of the femoral head
Unilateral or bilateral coxofemoral oesteoarthritis Intially -> lysis of femoral head, mottled pattern of patchy lysis due to bone necrosis Progresses to -> femoral head collapse, changes in opacity and remodelling of femoral neck Finally -> joint remodels to a shallow acetabulum, wide joint space, DJD, muscle atrophy
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What is epiphyseal dysplasia?
Incomplete ossification of humeral condyles leading to humeral condylar fractures with normal exercise The other elbow can have fissure lines and coronoid process fragmentation too so check this
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Who does epiphyseal dysplasia affect?
Hereditary in spaniels, pure and cross bre Mostly males
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When should the humeral condyles be ossified by?
84d
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6 physeal disorders
1. Physeal (growth plate) trauma 2. Rickets 3. Feline femoral capital physeal dysplasia 4. Endochondral osteodystrophy 5. Retained cartilagenous core 6. Osteochondroma
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What does physeal trauma cause?
Closure of a growth plate prematurely causing bowing of other bone that still grows eg radius or ulna
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What is rickets?
Excessive growth of physeal cartilage, a result of endochondral ossification failure on the metaphyseal side of the physis Occurs in animals not getting enough nutrition and physis keeps widening
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What is feline femoral capital physeal dysplasia and who does it affect?
Young male cats - heavy and desexed <6mo Spontaneous capital physeal separation - usually unilateral, dysplasia of chondrocytes in growth plate
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Radiographic signs of feline femoral capital physeal dysplasia
Capital separation, osteolysis+ sclerosis of femoral neck Apple core appearance of femoral neck
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1 diaphyseal disorder
Panosteitis
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Panosteitis - who does it affect, what is it
Unknown cause - could be viral, not inflammatory Affects large breed dogs - male german shepherds between 5-12 months of age, unexplained painful lameness shifting from one leg to the other Present in one or more tubular bones of appendicular skeleton Thumb print like appearance
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Radiographic signs of panosteitis
Increased intra-medullary radio-opacity Loss of trabecular pattern - hazy opacity Diffuse granular appearance of increased opacity (thumbprints) Endosteal bone thickening Smooth periosteal new bone Near nutrient foramen Eventually normal remodelling
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2 metaphyseal disorders
1. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy 2. Congenital bone cysts
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Hypertrophic osteodystrophy - who it affects, what it is
Rapidly growing large dogs 2-7 months old Cause unknown Metaphyses of long bones swollen and painful, inflammatory response that is self-limiting with fever and diarrhoea sometimes seen translucent zone appears in metaphysis parallel and adjacent to the physis then new periosteal bone deposited all the way around metaphysis (flaring and sclerosis of the metaphysis) Soft tissue swelling and premature closure of physis may occur
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Which bones does hypertrophic osteodystrophy affect?
Distal radius and ulna May also affect axial skeleton
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What is retained endochondral cartilage core?
A failure of endochondral ossification that most commonly affects the distal ulnar physis. Common in large breeds Can retard growth of ulna resulting in radius curvus and valgus deformity Physis is normal Bilaterally symmetrical
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What are congenital monostotic bone cysts?
Slow expansile lesions of metaphysis with smooth margins, firm non painful swelling and pathological fractures Benign and slow growing but weaken cortex Large and giant breeds
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What is an osteochondroma? Where is it normally?
Abbherant growth centre causing focal outgrowth of bone that grows until physes close Often on distal ulna impinging into normal radius Benign | Causes feline leukaemia virus in cats Inherited in dogs
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Where are osteochondroma on vertebrae and ribs?
Peri-metaphyseal periosteal location
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3 congenital generalised bone disorders
Dwarfism - many disorders in here Osteopetrosis Scottish fold osteodystrophy
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2 acquired nutritional bone disorders
Nutritional hyperparathyroidism Hypervitaminosis A
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1 congenital or acquired bone disorder
Renal hyperparathyroidism
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2 types of dwarfism syndromes
Disproportionate or proportionate
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Disproportionate dwarfism characteristics
Part of skeleton reduced Skull and spine unaffected, limbs shortened Dashies Short legged, chondrodystrophoid changes in long bones
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Proportionate dwarfism syndromes and examples in dogs and cats
Entire skeleton reduced in size - toy poodles Dogs - hypopituitary/hypothyroid german shepherds Cats - mucopolysaccharidosis -> siamese eg, it is a genetic lysosomal storage disease with abnormal facial appearance, cloudy corneas
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What is chondrodysplasia?
Dwarfism syndrone inherited - normal in dashies bone development and physeal closure times are same as in non-chondrodystrophic animal Abnormal in labs, alaskan malamute Appendicular bones are short, tubular and bowed with widened metaphysis Vertebrae are sqaure
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What is congenital epiphyseal dysplasia?
A dwarfism syndrome Hypothyroidism and low growth hormone levels Patchy ossification in epiphysis - stippled Beagles
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What is osteochondral dysplasia?
Disorders of development of bones Metatarsals short and misshapen Severe osteoarthritis Scottish folds
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What is the cause of osteopetrosis? What do we see?
Congenital rare hypervitaminosis D with excess bone formation and increased opacity in medulla Thickened cortices Bones are brittle and fracture easily
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What is secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism?
Failure of osteoid to calcify due to Ca:P imbalance or vitamin D deficiency Osteopaenia due to osteomalacia -> decreased radio-opacity of bone, cortical thinning, prominant trabeculae, soft bones, metaphyseal bone remains with good well mineralised opacity
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What syndrome does renal secondary hyperparathyroidism cause in dogs?
Rubber jaw
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Who does hypervitaminosis A affect?
Cats with liver rich diet Causes periarticular bone formation and ankylosis (fusion of bones) of affected joints -> kangaroo cats
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Causes of monoarticular joint problems
Trauma, neoplasia, septic
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Causes of multi-articular lameness
Polyarthritis, geriatric osteoarthritis
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9 radiographic signs of joint disease
1. Increased synovial mass 2. Altered thickness of the joint space 3. decreased or increased subchondral bone opacity 4. Subchondral cyst formation 5. Altered perichondral bone opacity, enthesophytes or osteophytes 6. Mineralisation of joint soft tissues 7. Intraarticular calcified bodies 8. Joint luxation/subluxation 9. Joint malformation
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Causes of decreased subchondral bone
Inflammatory exudates or infectious arthritis Developmental -> disease where cartilage does not ossify
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Causes of widened joint space
Early in disease -> synovial effusion Ligament damage also
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Cause of narrowing joint space
Cartilage erosion
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Where is perichondral bone?
Where synovium merges with articular cartilage
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Causes of decreased subhondral bone opacity
Inflammatory exudates Infectious arthritis can also extend into subchondral bone
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Causes of increased subchondral bone opacity
Degenerative joint disease (benign joint disease)
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What is an osteophyte?
New bone formation at periarticular margins will be right near joint - otherwise it is an enthesophyte
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Causes of increased perichondral bone opacity
Ossification of fibrocartilage on chondrosynovial junction produces enthesophytes (new bone formation from traction at osseous attachments) that can incorporate into the joint capsule this happens in osteoarthritis
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Causes of decreased perichondral bone opacity (at the chondrosynovial junction)
Inflammation of the synovial membrane causes the adjacent bone to appear irregular Immune mediated diseases and villonodular synovitis
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3 causes of large accumulations of articular or periarticular calcific material
osteochondroma in joints of dogs and cats pseudo-gout (calcium pyrophoshate deposition disease) intra-meniscal calcificiation and ossification in cats stifles
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What are joint mice? what are the 3 catagories?
Intra-articular calcified bodies not all are free in the joint 1. Avulsed fragment of articular or periarticular bone 2. Osteochondral components of a disintegrating joint surface 3. Small synovial osteochondromas
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Who suffers with medial luxation of the patella?
Toy dogs and devon rex cats
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What is the most common joint problem? What are its causes?
Osteoarthritis - DJD increases with age Usually secondary, but primary in older patients Old age Secondary to developmental disorder - hip dysplasia, elbow dys. Aquired - trauma, post joint infection
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Progressive radiographic signs of DJD
Synovial effusion compressing the intrapatellar fat pad and displacing caudal fascial planes caudally Periarticular enthesopathy and osteophytes
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Progressive changes of DJD
Narrowing of joint space Sclerosis of subchondral bone Osteophytes Enthesophytes Complete ankylosis (final stage)
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Osteoarthritis in cats features
Tend to produce exuberant periarticular new bone Intra-articular mineralisation is more common
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Two types of polyarthritis
Erosive -> immune mediated - IgG auto-antibodies. Swelling seen, narrow joint spaces, joint effusion, subluxation, destruction of articular bone Non-erosive -> dogs, immune mediated. Radiographs only show intracapsular sweling and in severe cases OA
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Most commonly affected joints of erosive arthritis (rheumatoid)
Carpus Tarsus Phalanges
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Cause of non-erosive polyarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosis in dogs and cats - anaemia, nephropathy, pericarditis, skin disease
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4 types of immune mediated feline polyarthropathy
1. Periosteal proliferative polyarthritis - most common form, young male cats extremities and systemic illness 2. Rheumatoid arthritis (erosive form in older cats) 3. SLE - antinuclear antibodies in blood, no distinct rad signs 4. Idiopathic polyarthritis -> myeloproliferative disease association (no distinct rad signs). Needs bone marrow biopsy
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Initial signs of septic arthritis
Non-specific to any effusive non-erosive joint disease Synovial effusion, increased synovial mass and widened joint space
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What can septic arthritis spread from?
An associated osteomyelitis
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Progressive radiographic signs of septic arthritis
Diminished radiolucent joint space (destruction of articular cartilage) Subchondral bone destruction (more severe than OA) Advanced -> weight bearing surfaces collapse
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Types of septic arthritis
Physeal Epiphyseal Synovial Tarsal bones Carpal bones
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2 most common neoplasias of joints
Synovioma Synovial cell carcinoma
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Neoplasia of joints vs primary bone tumours
Neoplasia of joints affects the bone either side of the joint and are primarily lytic Bone tumours dont
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Most commonly affected joints for synovial cell carcinoma
Uncommon in dog and rare in cat Stifle and elbow
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4 radiographic signs of severe sprains
1. Periarticular soft tissue swelling 2. Avulsion fractures at points of attachment of ligaments, tendons and capsules to bone 3. Signs of joint instability or subluxation 4. Spatial derangement of osseous components of the joint
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Signs of cruciate ligament injury
Enthesopathy at the insertion of the cranial cruciate ligament on the cranial aspect of the tibial plateau Intracapsular soft tissue swelling Thickening of medial joint capsule
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Bicipital tendinopathy signs
Large breeds Intermittent weight bearing front limb lameness Focal mineralised bodies (osteophytes) near greater tubercle Remodeling of supraglenoid tubercle