DRILLS Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

The inhalant dose of amyl nitrate is 0.25
mL; express the dose in minims

A. 4.06
B. 3.5
C. 3.33
D. 2.55

A

4.06

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2
Q

Ives is a first year medical student. One day, she was opening the neck of the cadver. She picked up a bottle which she taught was her water canteen and accidentally drank the liquid. The liquid is usually used to prevent the polymerization of formalin. She kept the incident to herself (she was worried that her classmates who were elitists might make fun her). Two years later, she lost her eyesight. What was the poison?

A. Methanol
B. Acetone
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Chloroform

A

Methanol

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3
Q

How many grams of sodium chloride (mol wt 58.5) should be used to prepare 1 gallon of an isotonic solution?

A. 24
B. 34.1
C. 28
D. 32.6

A

34.1

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4
Q

A minimum of how many beds is required
in a hospital?

A. 10
B. 8
C. 6
D. 5

A

6

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5
Q

A 20-year old asthmatic patient has been treated with Theodur 500 mg.twice daily. Despite a good therapeutic steady state serum concentration of 60 ug/ml, the patient has brief episodes of bronchospasm several times a week. The physician would like to give the patient additional bronchodilator therapy with an oral beta-adrenergic agent. Which of the ff. drugs would be least desirable?

A. terbutaline
B. albuterol
C. metaproterenol
D. ephedrine

A

ephedrine

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6
Q

Which drug is most likely to cause an immune-mediated Type B adverse drug reaction?

A. Amlodipine
B. Acetaminophen
C. Carbamazepine
D. Metformin

A

Carbamazepine

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7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) is CORRECT?

A. TDM should be performed only when a patient experiences toxicity.

B. TDM is useful for all medications regardless of their therapeutic index.

C. TDM is most beneficial for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index.

D. Peak plasma concentration is always measured for drugs with a short half-life.

A

TDM is most beneficial for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a major side effect of clozapine requiring monitoring?

A. Pancreatitis
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Nephrotoxicity

A

Agranulocytosis

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9
Q

This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent
synthesis of clotting factors II, VIl, IX and X

A. Metoprolol
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Aspirin
D. Warfarin

A

Warfarin

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10
Q

Which of the following factors increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity?

A. Alkalosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperkalemia

A

Hypokalemia

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11
Q

A pharmacist needs to mix 80 g of a 4% sulfur ointment with 120 g of a 10% sulfur ointment. What will be the final percentage strength of sulfur in the mixture?

A. 7.6%
B. 0.08
C. 0.055
D. 0.062

A

7.6%

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12
Q

A secondary clinical laboratory can be found in what category of general hospitals?

A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Quaternary
D. Secondary

A

Primary

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13
Q

An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heart failure develops angina pectoris, her medications are adjusted to include furosemide, Digoxin, nitroglycerin, propranalol and potassium supplements. Shortly thereafter, she develops intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. What should the physicians do first?

A. begin sublingual ergotamine
B. discontinue nitroglycerin
C. discontinue digoxin
D. perform a temporal artery biopsy

A

discontinue nitroglycerin

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14
Q

A patient comes to you and asks for an antidiarrheal drug, Attapulgite. Upon interviewing the patient, you learn that she has hyperacidity and is currently on Esomeprazole therapy. As a pharmacists, what would you advise?

I. that attapulgite has adsorptive property and can decreased the effectiveness of esomeprazole
II. that the interval between the administration of these drug should be long
III. that the patient should take Ranitidine, instead of esomeprazole

I only
I, II and III
III only
I and II

A

I and II

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15
Q

An important advantage of using dopamine in cardiogenic shock is that dopamine:

A. produces dose-dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion
B. will not increase blood pressure
C. has not effects on alpha and beta receptors
D. will not cross blood-brain barrier and cause CNS effects

A

produces dose-dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion

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16
Q

A 35-mL aliquot was obtained from a mixture of 98% unknown solution. If half the sample is diluted to 100 mL, what is its final concentration?

A. 0.28
B. 0.0294
C. 17.5%
D. 0.343

A

17.5%

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17
Q

What is the dose of a drug for a 6-year old child if the average adult dose is 1 1/2 grains?

A. 1/2 gr
B. 1/2 mg
C. 1/2 g
D. 1/2 mcg

A

1/2 gr

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18
Q

A formula for a dermatological cream calls for 15 g of an emulsive blend consisting of Tween 20 and Span 40. If the required HLB is 11.70 how many grams of each emulsifier should be used in emulsifying the cream?

A. 5g Tween 20 and 10g Span 40
B. 7.5g Tween 20 and 7.5g Span 40
C. 2.5g Tween 20 and 12.5g Span 40
D. None of the above

A

7.5g Tween 20 and 7.5g Span 40

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19
Q

The focal point about which all activities of the hospital revolves:

A. administrator
B. physician
C. governing board
D. patient

A

patient

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20
Q

In the stomach, which drug would exist in
its non-ionized form?

I. Aspirin
II. Dextroamphetamine
III. Chlorpheniramine

I and II
I only
III only
I, II and III

A

I only

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21
Q

Which parameter is best for adjusting
aminoglycoside dosing in critically ill
patients?

A. White blood cell count
B. Liver function tests
C. Creatinine clearance
D. Serum albumin

A

C. Creatinine clearance

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22
Q

A pharmacist preparing an IV admixture
notices that furosemide precipitates when
mixed with a strongly acidic solution. What
is the likely reason?

A. chelation with acidic components
B. oxidation of furosemide
C. hydrolysis of furosemide
D. pH-dependent solubility

A

pH-dependent solubility

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23
Q

A patient is to receive 260 mcg of a drug 4
times a day for 14 days. How many 1/250
grain tablets must be dispensed?

A. 58
B. 66
C. 46
D. 56

24
Q

A young male patient who is receiving
medication for hypertension complains of
mental depression, tremors and rigidity of
limbs, and impairment of sexual function.
This patient is most likely being treated with:

A. Propranolol
B. Guanethidine
C. Gabepentin
D. Reserpine

25
What is the mechanism of action of apixaban? A. Platelet aggregation inhibition B. Vitamin K antagonism C. Factor Xa inhibition D. Direct thrombin inhibition
Factor Xa inhibition
26
A unit dose package can be defined as a: A. package containing the exact dose of drugs to be administered to a patient at a specific time B. bottle containing enough medication for 24 hours C. package containing enough medication for the nest three doses D. None of the above
package containing the exact dose of drugs to be administered to a patient at a specific time
27
A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate intervention? A. Increase warfarin dose to compensate for resistance. B Continue the same dose and recheck INR in a week. C. Hold warfarin for 1-2 doses and recheck INR. D. Administer vitamin K and stop warfarin permanently
Hold warfarin for 1-2 doses and recheck INR.
28
When used to treat angina, nifedipine is much more likely than verapamil and diltiazem to cause: A. hypokalemia B. cardiac arrythmias C. tachycardia D. bronchopasm
cardiac arrythmias
29
An order calls for 500mL of a solution of potassium sulfate to be made so that it contains 10 mEq of potassium sulfate. How many grams of potassium sulfate is required to prepare the solution? A. 0.495 B. 0.44 C. 0.87 D. 4.44
0.87
30
Among the diuretic agents, which of the following has no changes in NaHCO3 in urine? I. Furosemide II. Ethacrynic acid III. Indapamide I and II II only I, II and III I only
I and II
31
Which of the following drugs requires monitoring for QT prolongation? A. Lisinopril B. Azithromycin C. Metformin D. Ibuprofen
Azithromycin
32
Which of the following drug interactions is clinically significant? A. Losartan and paracetamol B. Atorvastatin and amoxicillin C. Warfarin and ciprofloxacin D. Metformin and omeprazole
Warfarin and ciprofloxacin
33
The mechanisms of action of felodipine include which of the ff? I. Inhibits calcium ions from entering the "slow channels" or select voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during depolarization II. Relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation III. Increases myocardial oxygen delivery in patients with vasospastic angina I and II I only I, II, III II and III
I, II, III
34
Which of the following drug pairs is contraindicated due to a pharmacodynamic interaction? A. Sildenafil and nitroglycerin B. Nifedipine and grapefruit juice C. Warfarin and fluconazole D. Digoxin and amiodarone
A. Sildenafil and nitroglycerin
35
A pharmacist needs to prepare 250 mL of a 5% w/v dextrose solution. How many grams of dextrose are required? A. 50 g B. 12.5 g C. 25 g D. 5 g
B. 12.5 g
36
The purpose of the pharmacy and therapeutics committee are: A. Advisory and planning B. Planning and formulary management C. Planning and educational D. Advisory and educational
Advisory and educational
37
A critically ill patient requires a bolus dose of heparin at 70 units/kg, followed by an infusion of 15 units/kg/hr. If the patient weighs 85 kg and the IV bag contains 25,000 units in 500 mL, what volume should be given as the initial bolus? A. 128 mL B. 200 mL C. 85 mL D. 119 mL
119 mL
38
A diabetic patient on insulin therapy experiences frequent hypoglycemic episodes. What is the best intervention? A. Adjust insulin regimen based on glucose patterns. B. Increase carbohydrate intake at all meals. C. Discontinue insulin immediately. D. Switch to a sulfonylurea.
Adjust insulin regimen based on glucose patterns.
39
A chemotherapy order for a 65-kg patient requires a dose of 4 mg/m2 of a cytotoxic drug. If the patient has a body surface area (BSA) of 1.8 m2, how many mg of the drug should be administered? A. 7.2 mg B. 130 mg C. 14.4 mg D. 250 mg
7.2 mg
40
A 55-year old patient with a 5-year history of angina and a recent myocardial infarction is admitted to the hospital because of malignant hypertension. Diazoxide should not be used in this patient because A. it is likely to cause orthostatic hypotension B. of its slow onset of activity C. of its cardiostimulating effects D. it tends to increase uric acid levels
of its cardiostimulating effects
41
What is the therapeutic effect of digoxin in Purkije system? A. Decrease in QT interval B. Increase in refractory period C. Decrease in refractory period D. Increase in PR interval
Decrease in refractory period
42
A pharmacist attempts to weigh 80 mg of sodium carbonate on a balance having a sensitivity requirement of 4 mg. Calculate the maximum potential error in terms of percentage. A. 0.03 B. 0.04 C. 0.02 D. 5%
5%
43
What are the antihypertensive mechanisms of actions of indapamide? I. Temporary increase in glomerular filtration rate II. Direct arteriolar vasodilation through Ca2+ channel blockade III. Decreases total body sodium I and II I, II, III I only II and III
II and III
44
Ticarcillin may be preferred to carbenicillin for patients with congestive heart failure and hypertension because it: A. does not include hypokalemia B. has broad spectrum than does carbenicillin C. contains less sodium than does carbenicillin D. is usually given in smaller doses than is carbenicillin
is usually given in smaller doses than is carbenicillin
45
What is the main reason why tetracyclines should not be dispensed with calcium supplements? A. It forms insoluble chelates, reducing bioavailability B. It increases the excretion of tetracyclines C. It enhances the absorption of tetracyclines D. It increases the risk of hepatotoxicity
It forms insoluble chelates, reducing bioavailability
46
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) requires vancomycin therapy. What is the best approach to dosing? A. Increase the dose but maintain normal dosing intervals. B. Use standard dosing without adjustment. C. Use a loading dose followed by normal maintenance dosing. D. Reduce dose interval and monitor trough levels.
Reduce dose interval and monitor trough levels.
47
A pharmacist prepares a prescription requiring a dilution from a 1:500 stock solution to obtain 200 mL of a 1:2500 solution. What volume of the stock solution is required? A. 40 mL B. 100 mL C. 50 mL D. 80 mL
40 mL
48
One teaspoonful is equivalent to: A. 10 mL B. 20 mL C. 15 mL D. 5 mL
5 mL
49
A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What is the risk of cross-reactivity? A. Nearly 100% B. 10-20% C. Less than 1% D. 30-50%
Less than 1%
50
The following are classifications of a hospital, except: A. Ownership B. Type of services C. Location D. Bed capacity
Location
51
Calculate the Body Mass Index (BMI) for a person weighing 6 ft. 6 inches in height and weighing 240 lb. A. 26 B. 28 C. 25 D. 27
28
52
Which of the following iron preparations is not available in an oral dosage form? A. ferrous sulfate B. ferrous gluconate C. iron dextran D. ferrous fumarate
iron dextran
53
A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. What is a major potential adverse effect? A. Liver failure B. Hypoglycemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
54
In what order should the physical examination proceed. A. head, vital signs, ears, eyes, skin B. vital signs, skin, head, eyes, ears C. eyes, head, ears, skin, vital signs D. ears, eyes, head, skin, vital signs
vital signs, skin, head, eyes, ears
55
Convert 104°F to centigrade. A. 50C B. 40C C. 30C D. 20C
40C