MOD 3 BREX

Question 1

An adverse drug reaction is a noxious or unintended reaction which occurs at toxic doses. On the other hand, a medication error is any inevitable event that may lead to inappropriate drug use or patient harm.

A. The first statement is correct
B. The second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 1

D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 2

An ADR that is life-threatening:

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Lethal
D. NOTA

Answer 2

D. NOTA

Question 3

A drug interaction deemed “unlikely” lacks clinical evidence, whereas a “possible” drug interaction is supported by some data and may occur.

A. The first statement is correct
B. The second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 3

A. The first statement is correct

Question 4

A patient with a chronic medical condition receives a prescription for a medication with three refills. After taking the medication for a month, the patient returns to the pharmacy with the intention of obtaining a new supply. What is the key difference between “refill prescription” and “partial filling” in this scenario?

A. Refill prescriptions and partial filling are interchangeable terms referring to the same process.
B. Refill prescriptions involve obtaining a new supply of the complete medication without requiring a new prescription, while partial filling involves receiving a portion of the prescribed medication at abtime.
C. Refill prescriptions involve obtaining a completely new prescription, while partial filling allows the patient to receive a portion of the medication with each visit.
D. Both refill prescriptions and partial filling involve obtaining the entire prescribed medication at once.

Answer 4

B. Refill prescriptions involve obtaining a new supply of the complete medication without requiring a new prescription, while partial filling involves receiving a portion of the prescribed medication at abtime.

Question 5

Which of the following is/are considered “error-prone” abbreviations by the Institute for Safe
Medication Practice (ISMP)?

I. mg
II. mcg
III. IU
IV. cc
V. units

A. I
B. I, II
C. III, IV
D. III, IV, V

Answer 5

C. III, IV

Question 6

A written order and instruction for the use of specific drugs for in-patients:

A. Prescription
B. Medication order
C. Drug chart
D. Both A and B

Answer 6

B. Medication order

Question 7

Prescription drugs are regulated by the FDA through drug monographs, while legend drugs are regulated by the FDA through the New Drug Application (NDA).

A. The first statement is correct
B. The second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 7

B. The second statement is correct

Question 8

Which of the following is/are true about OTC drugs?

I. Children and teenagers who are recovering from a viral infection should not be given fenamatebderivatives
Il. Elderly patients are more at risk of developing NSAID-induced GI bleeding
Ill. There is no significant difference between infant drops and regular children medication
IV. Taking higher doses of acetaminophen can provide more relief, as well as toxicity

A. II
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 8

A. II

Question 9

In the administration of calcium chloride and phosphate intravenously, an interaction may result. Which of the following can be done to properly administer these two?

A. Add calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate consecutively. Mix thoroughly until homogeneity is observed.
B. Add calcium first, the other additives, then add the phosphate last. Thoroughly mix solution afternaddition.
C. The agents are incompatible together, so do not combine them but give them as separate
infusions.
D. NOTA

Answer 9

B. Add calcium first, the other additives, then add the phosphate last. Thoroughly mix solution afternaddition.

Question 10

Before placing a patient on IV fatty oil emulsions, the clinical pharmacist should confirm that the
patient does not have:

A. Lactose intolerance
B. Egg allergies
C. Sensitivities to bisulfite
D. AOTA

Answer 10

B. Egg allergies

Question 11

Which of the following FDA-approved Tallman lettering is appropriate?

A. dopamine and dobutamine
B. dopAMINE and dobutamine
C. DOpamine and DObutamine
D. DOPamine and DOBUTamine

Answer 11

D. DOPamine and DOBUTamine

Question 12

Administration Order on the licensing of establishments:

A. AO 55
B. AO 56
C. AO 62
D. AO 63

Answer 12

B. AO 56

Question 13

The following drugs are prohibited, except:

A. Cocaine
B. Amphetamine
C. Indian hemp and derivatives
D. NOTA

Answer 13

B. Amphetamine

Question 14

David, a 22-year-old college student was prescribed with Accutane for acne. As a pharmacist, what is the best advice for the patient?

I. Expect breakouts as this is the normal response.
Il. Increase exposure to sunlight to help dry the acne.
Ill. Avoid pregnancy since Vitamin A is teratogenic.

A. I
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. I, II, III

Answer 14

A. I

Question 15

Mrs. Yap was admitted in a hospital. Supposedly, she was scheduled to take penicillin at 8PM, but
the nurse forgot to administer the drug. What medication error is observed in this situation?

A. Unauthorized drug
B. Omission error
C. Wrong time error
D. Wrong dose error

Answer 15

B. Omission error

Question 16

What is the reason why female patients are warned regarding the use of OCPs and antibiotics together?

A. Decreased OCP effect, increased antibiotic effect
B. Increased OCP effect, decreased antibiotic effect
C. Decreased OCP effect, unaffected antibiotic
D. Unaffected OCP, decreased antibiotic effect

Question 17

Which of the following is/are valid therapeutic use/s of drug interaction?

I. Giving aspirin with warfarin to enhance anticoagulation
Il. Giving multiple anti-hypertensive drugs to control hypertension
Ill. Taking ciprofloxacin with antacids to decrease GI intolerance to oral therapy

A. I
B. II
C. I, III
D. I, II, III

Answer 17

B. II

Question 18

The doctor prescribed Doxycycline to the patient. Which of the following medication/s will affect its absorption?

I. Warfarin
II. Antacid
III. Ferrous sulfate
IV. Vitamin C

A. I, IV
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 18

B. II, III

Question 19

To manage aspirin toxicity, what is the most appropriate solution?

A. Administer acetaminophen for pain relief
B. Administer acetylcysteine as antidote
C. Administer citric acid
D. Administer sodium bicarbonate

Answer 19

D. Administer sodium bicarbonate

Question 20

The following can decrease the clearance of another drug, except:

I. Sodium valproate
II. Grapefruit juice
III. Chronic alcoholism
IV. Carbamazepine

A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, III
D. II, IV

Answer 20

B. III, IV

Question 21

Ketoconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What interaction would possibly happen with its
topical preparation and another drug that is CYP2C9-metabolized?

A. Plasma concentration of the other drug will increase.
B. Plasma concentration of the other drug will decrease.
C. The metabolism of the other drug will increase.
D. No interaction is likely to happen.

Answer 21

D. No interaction is likely to happen.

Question 22

The following scenarios are false, except:

I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an acidic medium for it to appear in its hydrophilic form in a low pH environment.
Il. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in a basic medium for it to appear in its nonpolar form in a high pH environment
Ill. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with a low pH to facilitate absorption
Iv. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with a low pH to facilitate absorption

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV

Answer 22

C. II and III

Question 23

Synergism:

I. Sinemet
II. Bactrim
III. Piptaz
IV. Fansidar

A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. II, IV

Answer 23

D. II, IV

Question 24

Factors that decrease gastric-emptying rate:

I. Gastric ulcer
II. High-fat meal
III. Mild exercise
IV. Lying on the right side
V. Domperidone

A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. III, IV, V

Answer 24

A. I, II

Question 25

Spina bifida is what type of ADR? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D

Answer 25

D. Type D

Question 26

Specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to a person: A. Precaution B. Warning C. Contraindication D. AOTA

Answer 26

C. Contraindication

Question 27

Special care necessary for safe and effective use of the drug A. Precaution B. Warning C. Contraindication D. AOTA

Answer 27

A. Precaution

Question 28

Strong advice; statement of danger A. Precaution B. Warning C. Contraindication D. AOTA

Answer 28

B. Warning

Question 29

What is the significant interaction between Orlistat and a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Increase in the absorption of Orlistat B. Increase in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin C. Decrease in the absorption of Orlistat D. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin

Answer 29

D. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin

Question 30

Methyldopa causes aplastic anemia. Chloramphenicol causes hemolytic anemia. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 30

D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 31

FDA Pregnancy Category: Drug A has demonstrated adverse effects in animal studies, but there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women: A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

Answer 31

C. Category C

Question 32

What would happen if NSAIDs and anticoagulants were taken together? A. Increased metabolism of NSAIDs B. Reduced anticoagulant activity C. Increased GI bleeding risk D. Improvement in pain relief without affecting anticoagulation

Answer 32

C. Increased GI bleeding risk

Question 33

A physician mistakenly wrote hydroxyzine instead of hydralazine. Two days later, the patient experienced severe headache, fast heartbeat, and HPB. He immediately went to the hospital where they discovered the medication error. He was given hydralazine IV immediately, and his BP became normal. What is the medication error category? A. Category C B. Category D C. Category E D. Category F

Answer 33

C. Category E

Question 34

Which of the following effects of drug interaction will be most likely to occur between penicillin and probenecid? A. Penicillin blocks the passive tubular secretion of probenecid and decreases its half-life B. Penicillin blocks the active tubular secretion of probenecid and increases its half-life C. Probenecid blocks the passive tubular secretion of probenecid and decreases its half-life D. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion of penicillin and increases its half-life

Answer 34

D. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion of penicillin and increases its half-life

Question 35

Bisacodyl, upon co-administration with an antacid, would result to which of the following? A. Bisacodyl is absorbed first in the stomach before reaching the small intestines B. No effect in the absorption of Bisacodyl and increased absorption of antacid. C. Increased absorption of both antacid and Bisacodyl D. Decreased absorption of both drugs in the small intestines

Answer 35

A. Bisacodyl is absorbed first in the stomach before reaching the small intestines

Question 36

In the use of chloramphenicol, problems in what metabolic processes lead to Gray Baby Syndrome and aplastic anemia? A. Glucuronidation and glycine conjugation B. Acetylation and nitro reduction C. Glucuronidation and nitro reduction D. Methylation and acetylation

Answer 36

C. Glucuronidation and nitro reduction

Question 37

A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide that causes hemorrhagic cystitis: A. Amifostine B. MESNA C. Dexrazoxane D. Acrolein

Answer 37

D. Acrolein

Question 38

Responsible provision of drug therapy for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient's quality of life: A. Clinical Pharmacy B. Pharmaceutical care C. Rational drug therapy D. Pharmacology

Answer 38

B. Pharmaceutical care

Question 38

The following interventions aim to eliminate or reduce symptoms, except: A. Administering pain-relieving medications B. Performing surgery to address underlying issues C. Implementing complementary therapies for symptom relief D. Taking sleeping aids to alleviate episodes of insomnia in individuals

Answer 38

B. Performing surgery to address underlying issues

Question 39

One of the major functions of pharmaceutical care is to prevent the occurrence of identified drug-related problems. Which of the following is the best example for this function? A. Use of Naloxone for opioid overdosing B. Administration of IV D50W for a hypoglycemic patient C. Drug allergy screening before administering penicillin D. AOTA

Answer 39

C. Drug allergy screening before administering penicillin

Question 40

Which of the following drugs would require a prescription prior to dispensing? A. Biogesic® 500mg B. Ponstan® 250mg C. Voltaren® 50mg D. Both B and C

Answer 40

C. Voltaren® 50mg

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT considered a symptom? A. Fever B. Nystagmus C. Body pain D. Dizziness

Answer 41

B. Nystagmus

Question 42

Which of the following type of study is most appropriate when determining the relationship between a newly approved drug and ulcer based on records from 2011-2021? A. Cohort B. Prospective C. Retrospective D. Randomized controlled trial

Answer 42

C. Retrospective

Question 43

What is the meaning of "JNC" in the context of healthcare and medical guidelines? A. Joint National Commission B. Joint National Committee C. Joint Nuclear Cardiology D. Journal of National Cardiology

Answer 43

B. Joint National Committee

Question 44

According to RA 6675, generic substitution is allowed. Which of the following drugs can be interchanged when filling a medication order? A. Ventolin® and Atrovent® B. Dolfenal and Ponstan® C. Zocor and Lipitor® D. NOTA

Answer 44

B. Dolfenal and Ponstan®

Question 45

In conducting clinical trials, the following are true: I. Children and elderly populations can become subjects of the study Il. Serious adverse events can occur III. Blinded studies use placebo for comparison A. I, II B. II, III C. I, III D. I, II, III

Answer 45

D. I, II, III

Question 46

Healthy human volunteers are involved in what phase of clinical trials? A. Phase I B. Phase II C. Phase III D. Phase IV

Answer 46

A. Phase I

Question 47

A new test for HIV does not detect the presence of the virus in an infected patient. This is known as a: A. False-negative result B. True-negative result C. False-positive result D. True-positive result

Answer 47

A. False-negative result

Question 48

Which of the following diagnostic and laboratory tests are invasive? A. Urinalysis B. Fecalysis C. CSF collection D. Radiograph

Answer 48

C. CSF collection

Question 49

The NSAID with the shortest half-life is piroxicam. The NSAID to treat fever of malignancy is naproxen. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 49

B. The second statement is correct

Question 50

Rofecoxib® was withdrawn from the market due to its hepatoxicity. Doxorubicin is notorious for causing cardiotoxicity. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 50

B. The second statement is correct

Question 51

Tachypnea: A. Higher than normal respiratory rate B. Rapid decrease of drug response C. Higher than normal heart rate D. Slowness of movement and reflexes

Answer 51

A. Higher than normal respiratory rate

Question 52

What is the PT-INR target for patients with prosthetic heart valves? A. 2-3 B. 3-5 C. 2.3-3.5 D. <5

Answer 52

C. 2.3-3.5

Question 53

The following statements refer to PMC, except: I. Aka medical record II. Written summary of all medicines taken, including OTC and complementary medicines Ill. Assist to understand and manage medicines IV. Used as basis for drug therapy plan A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

Answer 53

C. II and III

Question 54

The following conditions have a high fluid requirement, except: A. Blood loss B. Febrile patients C. Renal failure D. GI loss

Answer 54

C. Renal failure

Question 55

Which of the following is given to Black patients with hypertension but without diabetes / CKD? A. CCB, Thiazide B. CCB, Thiazide, ACEI/ARB C. ACEI/ARB D. Thiazide, ACEI/ARB

Answer 55

A. CCB, Thiazide

Question 56

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances does not predispose a patient taking digoxin to toxicity? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypomagnesemia

Answer 56

C. Hypocalcemia

Question 57

Administration into the joint space is referred to as: A. Intrathecal B. Intra-articular C. Intrasynovial D. Epidural

Answer 57

B. Intra-articular

Question 58

Megaloblastic anemia causes pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia causes megaloblastic anemia. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 58

B. The second statement is correct

Question 59

Product of hemolysis: A. AST B. Bilirubin C. Albumin D. LDH

Answer 59

B. Bilirubin

Question 60

Which parameter is increased during acute bacterial infections? A. Polymorphonuclear cells B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils

Answer 60

A. Polymorphonuclear cells

Question 61

What are the microvascular complications of DM? I. Retinopathy II. Cardiomegaly III. Nephropathy A. I B. II C. I, III D. I, II, III

Answer 61

C. I, III

Question 62

Patients with right-sided heart failure may experience these symptoms, except: A. Ascites B. Hepatomegaly C. Shortness of breath D. Edema

Answer 62

C. Shortness of breath

Question 62

NYHA functional limitation class wherein a person manifests symptoms of heart failure with less than ordinary exertion is under: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

Answer 62

C. Class III

Question 63

Which of the following is/are correctly matched? I. Chloramphenicol - aplastic anemia II. Methyldopa - pernicious anemia III. ASA - hemolytic anemia A. I B. I, II C. II, III D. I, II, III

Answer 63

A. I

Question 64

A prescription is to be taken as follows: ● 1 tab qid the first day ● 1 tab tid the second day ● 1 tab bid x 5d ● 1 tab qd thereafter How many tablets should be dispensed to equal a 30-day supply? A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50

Answer 64

C. 40

Question 65

Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine-containing substances and MAOIs? A. Large amounts of NE can cause severe headache and hypertension B. Non-metabolism of pressor amines C. Large amounts of NE stored can cause severe hypotension D. Phenelzine should not be taken concomitantly with cheese

Answer 65

C. Large amounts of NE stored can cause severe hypotension

Question 66

Which of the following types of diabetes has been previously classified as “insulin-dependent DM?” A. Type I DM B. Type II DM C. Gestational DM D. Juvenile DM

Answer 66

A. Type I DM

Question 67

Which of the following drugs is safe to use in the third trimester of pregnancy? A. APAP B. Warfarin C. Captopril D. Aspirin

Answer 67

A. APAP

Question 68

In HIV-AIDS, what are significantly decreased? A. CD4 or cytotoxic T-cells B. CD4 or helper T-cells C. CD8 or cytotoxic T-cells D. CD8 or helper T-cells

Answer 68

B. CD4 or helper T-cells

Question 69

A 48-year-old female with a GFR of 40 mL/min is most likely to exhibit which characteristics? I. High creatinine clearance II. High serum creatinine III. Elevated cystatin C IV. Severely decreased GFR A. I, III B. II, III C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

Answer 69

B. II, III

Question 70

Which of the following laboratory tests would be helpful in the diagnosis of MI? I. Albumin II. Creatine kinase MB III. Troponin IV. Lactic dehydrogenase A. II, III B. III, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 70

C. II, III, IV

Question 71

A value of less than 200 mg/dL is desirable when measuring a patient’s level of: A. Total cholesterol B. TAGs C. HDL D. LDL

Answer 71

A. Total cholesterol

Question 72

Indicative of rapid GI transit and malabsorption syndrome: A. Black stool B. Gray stool C. Hard stool D. Watery stool

Answer 72

D. Watery stool

Question 73

Hematocrit measures: A. The total number of blood cells per volume of blood B. The number of RBC of volume of blood C. The percentage of RBC per volume of blood D. The weight of RBC per volume of blood

Answer 73

C. The percentage of RBC per volume of blood

Question 74

Which of the following hormones is detected in the urine of pregnant women? A. Menotropin B. Urofollitropin C. Human chorionic gonadotropin D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

Answer 74

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 75

Pharmacist A received a prescription of Atorvastatin. What parameter should be monitored by the patient due to an adverse effect of this drug? A. Liver function test B. Blood glucose level C. Kidney function test D. Blood pressure

Answer 75

A. Liver function test

Question 76

“Gold standard” for myocardial infarction: A. Troponin I B. AST C. LDH I and II D. CK-MB

Answer 76

A. Troponin I

Question 77

Which of the following is/are true about IV glutathione? I. It affects the production of melatonin Il. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy III. It is also approved by FDA Philippines for skin lightening, as long as the process done by a licensed professional A. II B. III C. I, II D. I, II, III

Answer 77

A. II

Question 78

Patient XYZ was prescribed with Alendronate. The following should be advised by the pharmacist, except: I. Take in sitting down position Il. Take 30 mins after breakfast III. Take with plain water only A. I B. II C. I, II D. I, III

Answer 78

B. II

Question 79

Which of the following drugs is considered the safest, given their ED50 and TD50 values? A. Drug P: ED50 = 20 mg, TD50 = 100 mg B. Drug Q: ED50 = 25 mg, TD50 = 75 mg C. Drug R: ED50 = 15 mg, TD50 = 30 mg D. Drug S: ED50 = 30 mg, TD50 = 50 mg

Answer 79

A. Drug P: ED50 = 20 mg, TD50 = 100 mg

Question 80

The following statements are true regarding central vein nutrition, except: I. There is low blood flow II. Used for non-irritating drugs III. Used for hypotonic solutions IV. Used for isotonic solutions A. II B. II, III C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 80

D. I, II, III, IV

Question 81

Arrange the steps in mixing the components of a TPN solution: I. Mix thoroughly and hang it on the drip stand II. Add electrolytes and trace elements in the port III. Press the upper left chamber (glucose) to mix with the lower chamber (amino acids) IV. Add vitamins V. Press the upper right chamber (lipid) to mix with the lower chamber A. V, II, III, IV, I B. III, II, V, IV, I C. II, I, IV, V, III D. IV, III, II, V, II

Answer 81

B. III, II, V, IV, I

Question 82

Phase 1 clinical trial specifically evaluates the drug’s: A. Safety B. Efficacy C. Rare adverse reactions D. Common adverse events

Answer 82

A. Safety

Question 83

The following routes completely by-pass the FPE, except: A. Intravenous B. Transdermal C. Intra-arterial D. Rectal

Answer 83

D. Rectal

Question 84

A study design employed to determine the associational relationship between condition and risk factor: A. Case-control B. Cohort analysis C. Meta analysis D. Cross-sectional analysis

Answer 84

A. Case-control

Question 85

Which of the following statements is true about acetaminophen? A. Acetaminophen is not safe for pregnant and lactating mothers B. Acetaminophen, like aspirin, has anti-inflammatory action C. Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized via glucuronidation to its inactive metabolite D. The antidote for acetaminophen toxicity is NAPQI

Answer 85

C. Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized via glucuronidation to its inactive metabolite

Question 86

Kernicterus is an albumin-induced brain dysfunction in babies. It is caused by chloramphenicol use. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 86

D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 87

Which of the following drugs are most likely to be subjected with therapeutic drug monitoring? I. Phenytoin II. Gentamicin III. Warfarin IV. Carbamazepine A. I, II B. I, II, III C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 87

D. I, II, III, IV

Question 88

Cerebellar function is assessed using this test: A. Romberg’s test B. Doll’s test C. Rinne’s test D. Snellen’s test

Answer 88

A. Romberg’s test

Question 89

A routine blood test carried out on babies a few days after birth to detect phenylketonuria: A. Mantoux’s test B. Coomb’s test C. Guthrie’s test D. Doll’s test

Answer 89

C. Guthrie’s test

Question 90

Which disease is not included in the newborn screening test? A. Congenital hypothyroidism B. Galactosemia C. MSUD D. NOTA

Answer 90

D. NOTA

Question 91

Stenosis means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage

Answer 91

D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage

Question 92

Costochondritis means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage

Answer 92

A. Inflammation of the sternum

Question 93

Ischemia means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage

Answer 93

B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue

Question 94

Schlerosis means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage

Answer 94

C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity

Question 95

Marasmus occurs when protein deprivation is relatively greater than the reduction in total calories. It is commonly seen in developing countries in children after weaning, when their diet consists predominantly of carbohydrates. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 95

D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 96

Medications that may be left at the patient’s bedside: A. NGT for angina B. Insulin C. Digitalis D. Oral nitrates

Answer 96

D. Oral nitrates

Question 97

What is the appropriate dose-adjusting approach for a patient with hypoalbuminemia? A. Increase the drug dosage to compensate for reduced protein binding. B. Maintain the standard drug dosage since albumin does not impact drug metabolism. C. Decrease the drug dosage to avoid potential toxicity. D. Switch to an alternative drug with less protein binding.

Answer 97

C. Decrease the drug dosage to avoid potential toxicity.

Question 98

Warfarin, when taken together with green leafy vegetables, results to which of the following? I. Increase PT-INR II. Decrease PT-INR III. Risk of bleeding IV. Risk of thrombosis A. I, III B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, IV

Answer 98

D. II, IV

Question 99

The following statements correctly describes heparin, except: I. Subcutaneous administration may not require monitoring. II. Monitored via aPTT III. Monitored via PT-INR IV. Inhibits clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X A. I, II B. I, III C. II, IV D. III, IV

Answer 99

D. III, IV

Question 100

A clinical pharmacist is involved in implementing an antimicrobial stewardship program in a healthcare setting. What is a potential strategy to address challenges related to antimicrobial resistance? A. Prescribing prophylactic antibiotics routinely B. Implementing antimicrobial cycling or rotation C. Promoting the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics as a first-line treatment D. AOTA

Answer 100

B. Implementing antimicrobial cycling or rotation

Question 101

Methacholine, a direct-acting parasympathomimetic, is used in Tensilon test. Bethanechol, on the other hand, is used in Spirometry test. A. The first statement is correct B. The second statement is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

Answer 101

D. Both statements are incorrect

Question 102

After chronic administration of an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, a high concentration of this parameter may be observed: I. CK-BB II. CK-MM III. ALT IV. AST A. III, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 102

C. II, III, IV

Question 103

Patient Z went to the doctor and complained about tingling and neuropathic pain in her hands and feed. Blood tests revealed that she has macrocytic anemia. Which of the following drugs would probably be given to the patient? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Folic acid C. Iron dextran D. A and B

Answer 103

A. Cyanocobalamin

Question 104

Common clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism: A. Hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia B. Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia C. Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia D. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

Answer 104

D. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

Question 105

This anticoagulant acts by inactivating thrombin: A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine

Answer 105

A. Heparin

Question 106

The symptoms of BPH are caused by: A. Relaxation of bladder muscle B. Shrinkage of the prostate gland C. Relaxation of the prostate gland D. Pressure exerted by the prostate gland on the urethra

Answer 106

D. Pressure exerted by the prostate gland on the urethra

Question 107

A patient complains of burning pain in his stomach between meals, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Upon diagnosis, it was confirmed that he was suffering from peptic ulcer disease. The doctor plans to give Prilosec®, but he found out that the patient is taking Zocor® as maintenance. What could possibly be the effect of co-administration of these two drugs? A. Hyperglycemia B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Hypertension D. Bleeding

Answer 107

B. Rhabdomyolysis

Question 108

Intrinsic factor produced by the stomach is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin? A. Biotin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Riboflavin D. Ascorbic acid

Answer 108

B. Cyanocobalamin

Question 109

Microcytic anemia: I. Folic acid deficiency II. Iron deficiency III. Cyanocobalamin deficiency A. I B. II C. I, III D. I, II, III

Answer 109

B. II

Question 110

For a hospital to be considered a medium-scale hospital, the minimum bed capacity shall be: A. 50 B. 100 C. 500 D. 1000

Answer 110

C. 500

Question 111

A patient with a poorly managed hypertension is now struggling from a stroke. If a patient is rehabilitated to improve their state, the level of prevention is: A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Primordial

Answer 111

C. Tertiary

Question 112

Birthing homes belong to what type of facility? A. Primary care facility B. Secondary care facility C. Therapeutic facility D. Specialized outpatient facility

Answer 112

A. Primary care facility

Question 113

The service generally under the supervision of a licensed physician who has basic interest in hematology: A. Central supply B. Radiology C. Anesthesia D. Blood bank

Answer 113

D. Blood bank

Question 114

Maternal and neonatal service is the specialty of which of the following hospitals in the Philippines? A. Philippine General Hospital B. Philippine Heart Center C. Quezon Institute D. Fabella Memorial Hospital

Answer 114

D. Fabella Memorial Hospital

Question 115

Code cards located at nursing units and clinics are used primarily for what purpose? A. Securing PRN medications for individual patients B. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergencies C. Availability of unit doses for 24-hour medications D. Securing controlled substances in the hospital

Answer 115

B. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergencies

Question 116

Which of the following needles has the smallest diameter? A. 30G x ½ in B. 21G x 2 in C. 23G x 1 in D. 27G x ¼ in

Answer 116

A. 30G x ½ in

Question 117

The first recognized representative of the pharmaceutical profession: A. Community pharmacist B. Hospital pharmacist C. Manufacturing pharmacist D. Industrial pharmacist

Answer 117

B. Hospital pharmacist

Question 118

A patient who was hospitalized and is currently admitted for two weeks later develops pneumonia. This is classified as: A. Primary infection B. Secondary infection C. Nosocomial infection D. Superinfection

Answer 118

C. Nosocomial infection

Question 119

Most biologic drugs are sensitive to all of the following, except: A. Heat B. Agitation C. Stainless steel D. Light

Answer 119

C. Stainless steel

Question 120

Alternative drug for resuscitation: A. Digoxin B. Epinephrine C. Amiodarone D. Morphine

Answer 120

C. Amiodarone

Question 121

Unit used for the internal diameters of catheters: A. French B. Gauge C. A and B D. NOTA

Answer 121

A. French

Question 122

Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications? I. Temperature II. Air velocity III. Particle count IV. Relative humidity A. I, IV B. II, III C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 122

A. I, IV

Question 123

Based on USP, what is the BUD for water containing oral preparations at controlled room temperatures? A. No longer than 7 days B. No longer than 14 days C. No longer than 24 days D. No longer than 30 days

Answer 123

B. No longer than 14 days

Question 124

Which of the following should be made available as regular stock items at the hospital pharmacy for pediatric in-patients? I. Infant formula for newborn babies Il. Preparations with flavors to cater to preference of patient Ill. Oral liquid formulations such as drops and suspensions IV. Various preparations of food supplements A. I, II B. II, III C. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 124

B. II, III

Question 125

When one or more sterile products are added to an IV fluid for administration: A. TPN B. IV solution C. IV admixture D. Infusion

Answer 125

C. IV admixture

Question 126

Which of the following compounded sterile products should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood? A. Antibiotics B. NTG C. Cisplatin D. TPN

Answer 126

C. Cisplatin

Question 127

TPNs should be protected from light because they contain: A. Fats B. Carbohydrates C. Electrolytes D. Vitamins

Answer 127

D. Vitamins

Question 128

PhilPSP stands for: A. Philippine Professional Standards for Pharmacists B. Philippine Pharmacy Standards for Practice C. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists D. Philippine Practice Standards for Professionals

Answer 128

C. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists

Question 129

The purpose of the pharmacy and therapeutics committee are: I. Advisory and planning II. Manages the formulary system III. Advisory and educational A. III B. I, II C. II, III D. I, II, III

Answer 129

D. I, II, III

Question 130

Who is not qualified to be a member of the PTC? A. Hospital administrator B. Gastroenterologist C. Pharmacist D. NOTA

Answer 130

D. NOTA

Question 131

Secretary of the PTC: A. Pharmacist B. Physician C. Nurses D. Any of the above

Answer 131

A. Pharmacist

Question 132

An obligation to respect patient as individuals and to honor their preference in medical care: A. Autonomy B. Nonmaleficence C. Beneficence D. Confidentiality

Answer 132

A. Autonomy

Question 133

Medical practitioners who have passed the specialty boards and members of the specialty organization A. Resident medical staff B. Associate medical staff C. Consulting medical staff D. Attending medical staff

Answer 133

C. Consulting medical staf

Question 134

A type of formulary that limits certain classes of drugs: A. Open B. Close C. Restricted D. Negative

Answer 134

C. Restricted

Question 134

In the classification of drugs in the formulary, which of the following will not be included in the list under “anti-cancer drugs?” A. Goserelin B. Bevacizumab C. Sirolimus D. Asparaginase

Answer 134

C. Sirolimus

Question 135

Classification of dangerous drugs: Flunitrazepam A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV

Answer 135

A. Schedule I

Question 136

The immunoglobulin that is present during allergy of parasitic infestations: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

Answer 136

D. IgE

Question 137

Any substance that may be considered food or part of food and provides medical or health benefits, including the prevention and treatment of disease: A. Nutraceutical B. Phytochemical C. Designer food D. Chemopreventive agent

Answer 137

A. Nutraceutical

Question 138

Hospital department responsible for the procurement, planning, and preparation of food of staff and patients: A. Medical social service B. Central supply service C. Nursing service D. Dietary service

Answer 138

D. Dietary service

Question 139

Arrange the following drug management cycle process in order: I. Use II. Procurement III. Selection IV. Distribution A. I, II, III, IV B. II, I, IV, III C. III, II, IV, I D. IV, I, II, III

Answer 139

C. III, II, IV, I

Question 140

Which of the following refers to the cost of storing inventory? A. Acquisition cost B. Procurement cost C. Opportunity cost D. Carrying cost

Answer 140

D. Carrying cost

Question 141

Which of the following transactions will decrease the “stock-on-hand” of a certain drug? I. Receiving a delivery from the supplier Il. Dispensing the drug to the patient Ill. Returning the drug to the supplier after a recall order A. I B. I, III C. II, III D. I, II, III

Answer 141

C. II, III

Question 142

Inventory control that uses prioritization based on commonly used products: A. ABC control B. Pareto control C. Visual inspection D. Periodic inspection

Answer 142

A. ABC control

Question 143

Senolytic drugs are simply known as: A. Anti-aging drugs B. Anti-cancer drugs C. Anti-flatulent drugs D. Anti-parkinsonism drugs

Answer 143

A. Anti-aging drugs

Question 144

In which section of the hospital services would you find the use of methoxypolyethylene glycol- epoetin beta (Micera®)? A. Cardiovascular section B. Chemotherapeutic section C. Hemodialysis section D. Hepatic section

Answer 144

C. Hemodialysis section

Question 145

U-100 insulin: A. White B. Orange C. Red D. Violet

Answer 145

B. Orange

Question 146

3-in-1 admixture: I. Carbohydrates II. Lipids III. Amino acids IV. Vitamins A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

Answer 146

A. I, II, III

Question 147

Which of the following drug distribution systems follows a procedure in which each peripheral facility identifies the drug quantities to be requisitioned from the procurement unit or warehouse? A. Push system B. Pull system C. UDDS D. Direct purchase from suppliers

Answer 147

B. Pull system

Question 148

The ideal drug distribution system: A. UDDS B. Individual prescription system C. Complete floor stock system D. NOTA

Answer 148

A. UDDS

Question 149

Advantage of floor stock or bulk ward system: A. Decreased medication error B. Additional workload for nurses C. Decreased pilferage D. Readily available supply

Answer 149

D. Readily available supply

Question 150

DOH hospital level that is departmentalized: A. Level 0 B. Level 1 C. Level 2 D. Level 3

Answer 150

C. Level 2

Question 151

For medical information sources, what category would textbooks belong to? A. Primary literature B. Secondary literature C. Tertiary literature D. Company-provided literature

Answer 151

C. Tertiary literature