MB24 Flashcards
(92 cards)
1
Q
How many proof gallons are contained
in 15 wine gallons of 40% alcohol?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
A
C. 12
2
Q
The adult dose of a drug is 350 mg. What would be the approximate dose for an 8-year-old child weighing 60 lb using Young’s Rule?
A. 320 mg
B. 87.5 mg
C. 200 mg
D. 140 mg
A
D. 140 mg
3
Q
What is the most appropriate unit for
density?
A. g/L
B. mg/mL
C. mg/cc
D. g/cc
A
D. g/cc
4
Q
Drug K 400 mg in 900 mL of normal
saline at 5 mcg/kg/min is ordered for a
155-lb patient. At what rate (mL/min)
should the solution be infused to deliver
the desired dose?
A. 0.58 mL/min
B. 0.79 mL/min
C. 1.2 mL/min
D. 2.5 mL/min
A
B. 0.79 mL/min
5
Q
Lagundi syrup is to be taken as 2 tsp.
twice a day for 7 days. How many mL of
syrup were given to the patient for the
entire regimen?
A. 20 mL
B. 40 mL
C. 140 mL
D. 220 mL
A
C. 140 mL
6
Q
Potassium chloride dissociated to 40% in
a certain concentration. Calculate the
dissociation (i) factor.
A. 1.4
B. 1.8
C. 2.2
D. 3.0
A
A. 1.4
7
Q
How many g of dextrose are required to
prepare 4,000 mL of a 5% solution?
A. 100 g
B. 150 g
C. 200 g
D. 250 g
A
C. 200 g
8
Q
When the maximum potential error is ±4
mg in a total of 100 mg, what is the
percentage error?
A. 96%
B. 4%
C. 40%
D. None of the above
A
B. 4%
9
Q
A 45 year old pregnant patient weighing
182 lbs. was admitted to the hospital
due to an infection. The doctor ordered
to start Cefepime to be given intravenously.
The SCr of the patient is 3.42 mg/dL. What
will be the appropriate dose for the patient.
A. <11 mL/min: 250 – 500 mg q24h
B. 11-29 mL/min: 500 mg – 1 gram q24h
C. 30-60 mL/min: 500 mg – 2 grams q24h
D. 70-90 mL/min: 1-2 grams q24h
A
B. 11-29 mL/min: 500 mg – 1 gram q24h
10
Q
Based on the CKD stage of the patient,
which drug has the highest potential to
worsen the patient’s condition?
A. Kanamycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Neomycin
A
D. Neomycin
11
Q
What is the proof strength of a 40%
(v/v) solution of alcohol?
A. 20 proof
B. 40 proof
C. 80 proof
D. 120 proof
A
C. 80 proof
12
Q
The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body
weight. What dose should be given to a
125-lb female patient:
A. 624 mg
B. 304 mg
C. 284 mg
D. 264 mg
A
C. 284 mg
13
Q
How many mL will you dispense for a
prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid
substance with a specific gravity of 1.25?
A. 75 mL
B. 80 mL
C. 85 mL
D. 90 mL
A
B. 80 mL
14
Q
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the
active drug, how many inhalation doses
can be delivered, if each inhalation dose
contains 90 micrograms?
A. 1,800 doses
B. 22 doses
C. 180 doses
D. 222 doses
A
D. 222 doses
15
Q
A patient states that he has smoked 60
sticks of cigarette a day for 10 years.
What is the patient’s pack year history?
A. 300 pack years
B. 30 pack years
C. 60 pack years
D. 6 pack years
A
B. 30 pack years
16
Q
A patient weighing 132 lb. was
administered 9 g of a drug supposed to
be dosed at 15 mg/kg. This is a case of:
A. Underdose
B. Correct dose
C. Overdose
D. Double dose
A
C. Overdose
17
Q
A prescription calls for the dispensing of
a 4% Pilocarpine hydrochloride solution
with the directions of “gtt i OU tid.” How
many mg of Pilocarpine is being used per
day? Assume that the dropper is
calibrated to deliver 20 drops per mL.
A. 4 mg
B. 12 mg
C. 24 mg
D. 60 mg
A
B. 12 mg
18
Q
If 500 mL of a 15% v/v solution are
diluted to 1,500 mL. What will be the
percentage strength (v/v%)?
A. 0.5%
B. 5%
C. 5.50%
D. 50%
A
B. 5%
19
Q
How many grams of a drug substance
are required to make 120 mL of a
solution, each teaspoonful of which
contains 3 mg of the drug?
A. 0.0072 g
B. 0.072 g
C. 0.72 g
D. 7.2 g
A
B. 0.072 g
20
Q
A Paracetamol tablet contains 1 1/5
grains. How many grams of Paracetamol
are needed to make 1,000 tablets?
A. 70 g
B. 72 g
C. 76 g
D. 78 g
A
D. 78 g
21
Q
What is the concentration, in g/mL, of a
solution containing 2 mEq of KCl per mL?
A. 169 mg/mL
B. 149 mg/mL
C. 0.1649 g/mL
D. 0.149 g/mL
A
D. 0.149 g/mL
22
Q
The cost of 100 antacid tablets is Php
68.50. What should be the selling price
per hundred tablets to yield a 40% gross
profit on the selling price?
A. 114
B. 210
C. 75
D. 96
A
D. 96
23
Q
If five gallons of lotion contains one
pound of talc, what is the percentage
strength?
A. 2.4%
B. 6.7%
C. 8.3%
D. 10.5%
A
A. 2.4%
24
Q
If 800 g of a 5% coal tar ointment is
mixed with 1,200 g of a 10% coal tar
ointment, what is the concentration of
coal tar in the finished product?
A. 8%
B. 8.5%
C. 9%
D. 9.5%
A
A. 8%
25
The following pairs are true, except:
I. Type I Hypersensitivity – Allergy
II. Type II Hypersensitivity – Immune Complex
Reaction
III. Type III Hypersensitivity – Cytotoxic Reaction
IV. Type IV Hypersensitivity – Delayed Reaction
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. II, IV
B. II, III
26
Compulsion to take the drug repeatedly
and experiences unpleasant symptoms if
discontinued.
A. Tolerance
B. Dependence
C. Addiction
D. Two of the given choices
A. Tolerance
27
Pregnancy category where animal and
human studies show harm to their
babies. However, doctors may prescribe
these medicines in serious situations
wherein the benefits are greater than
the risks.
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D
D. Category D
28
Lisinopril causes cough because of the
production of:
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Serotonin
D. Epinephrine
B. Bradykinin
29
The following statements are true, except:
I. Heparin can be administered orally.
II. The MOA of Warfarin targets extrinsic pathway.
III. The monitoring parameter of Heparin is PT-INR.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
B. I, III
30
This refers to a prospective observational study that evaluates the presence or absence of risk factors and follows patients over time.
A. Meta Analysis
B. Systematic Review
C. Case Control
D. Cohort
D. Cohort
31
The following pairs of teratogenic agents are incorrect, except:
I. Tetracycline – Enamel hypoplasia
II. Propranolol – Renal dysgenesis
III. Carbimazole – Aplasia cutis
IV. Diethylstilbestrol – Vaginal adenocarcinoma
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
32
Only insulin that can be given intravenously.
A. Lente
B. Isophane
C. Ultra-lente
D. Regular
D. Regular
33
Treatment for malignant hyperthermia caused by succinylcholine.
A. Dantrolene
B. Atropine
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Sodium bicarbonate
A. Dantrolene
34
A 250 mL infusion bottle contains 3.0
mEq of Calcium per mL. How much
Calcium in grams does it contain? The
MW of Calcium is 40 g/mol.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
B. 15
35
The following are sign of intoxication of physostigmine, except:
A. Diarrhea
B. Lacrimation
C. Miosis
D. Bronchodilation
D. Bronchodilation
36
Aloe, cascara, and senna is classified as _________ laxative:
A. Bulk-forming
B. Lubricant
C. Emollient
D. Stimulant
D. Stimulant
37
Which of the following are closely
related to Nalidixic acid?
A. Cefuroxime
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin
38
Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid
A. Additive – 1 + 1 = 2
B. Synergism – 1 + 1 = >2
C. Antagonism – 1 + 1 = 0
D. Potentiation – 1 + 0 = 2
D. Potentiation – 1 + 0 = 2
39
Most advantageous delivery system in the hospital.
A. Floor Stock System
B. Individual In-Patient Prescription System
C. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System
D. All of the above
C. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System
40
At what number is degrees Fahrenheit
and degrees Celsius the same?
A. 10
B. 0
C. -60
D. -40
D. -40
41
This can result to explosion when mixed
with potassium permanganate.
A. PEG (RA) – Result: cleavage of PEG or split chemical bonds
B. Kaolin
C. Sodium oxalate (RA) – result: formation of CO2 and Mn
D. Glycerin
D. Glycerin
42
Neurobion® contains:
I. Vitamin B1
II. Vitamin B2
III. Vitamin B6
IV. Vitamin B12
A. I, II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV
43
Can cause false positive result in glucose testing:
A. Allopurinol
B. Vitamin C
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Rifampicin
B. Vitamin C
44
Validation of HEPA filter efficiency can be done through:
A. Water attack test
B. Leaker’s test – test for ampules
C. Bubble point test - Bubble Point Test - to test efficiency of membrane filter
D. Dioctylphthalate test
D. Dioctylphthalate test
45
HRZE
A. As please
B. Powder
C. Anti-TB agents
D. Anti-ulcer drug
C. Anti-TB agents
46
The following is/are causes of megaloblastic anemia, except:
I. Pyridoxine deficiency – peripheral sensory
neuropathy
II. Iron deficiency – causes IDA
III. Folic acid deficiency (B9)
IV. Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, III
D. II, IV
A. I, II
47
The vital signs include:
I. Pulse rate
II. Respiratory rate
III. Blood count
IV. Respiratory volume
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, III
D. I, II, IV
A. I, II
48
Which of the following branded
medicines is not a modified-release
preparation?
A. Diamicron® MR
B. Depakote® XR
C. Ponstan® SF
D. Aspilets® EC
C. Ponstan® SF
49
Which of the following statements are true regarding palliative care for cancer patients?
I. Provide relief from pain and other distressing
symptoms.
II. Integrates the psychological and spiritual aspects of patient care.
III. Addresses cure for the disease such as the
surgical removal of the tumor.
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. II, III
D. I, III
A. I, II
50
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and food
rich in tyramine will lead to _________________.
I. Accumulation of pressornamines
II. Increase in blood pressure
III. Non-metabolism of Tyramine
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. II, III
A. I, II, III
51
Which of the following is/are valid therapeutic uses/s of a drug interaction?
I. Giving aspirin with warfarin to enhance
anticoagulation.
II. Giving multiple anti-hypertensive drugs to control hypertension.
III. Taking levofloxacin with antacid to decrease GI intolerance to oral therapy.
A. I, III
B. I, II, III
C. I only
D. II only
D. II only
52
Which of the following statements are
true regarding creatinine?
I. It is produced during skeletal muscle
contraction.
II. It is excreted by the kidneys.
III. Its level in the blood decreases if renal function diminishes.
A. I, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. II, III
B. I, II
53
The healthcare provider administered
Naloxone for a patient at the emergency
room. Which of the following physical
assessment data would be most
important to indicate that the drug has
been effective?
A. Absence of fever
B. Seizure activity has stopped
C. Chest pain is better
D. Respiratory rate has normalized
D. Respiratory rate has normalized
54
Which of the following is/are true
regarding Celecoxib (Celebrex®)?
I. Is a sulfonamide
II. It is a COX-1 selective inhibitor
III. It is associated with a higher incidence of
cardiovascular thrombotic events.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
B. I, III
55
The pharmacist was asked to explain the
difference between thrombolytics and
anti-thrombotic agents and give an
example. Which of the following is the
correct response?
A. Thrombolytic dissolves clots example isnAspirin while anti- thrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Reteplase.
B. Thrombolytic dissolves clots example is Reteplase while anti-thrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin.
C. Thrombolytic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin while anti- thrombotic dissolves clots example is Reteplase.
D. Thrombolytic reduces thrombus formation example is Reteplase while antithrombotic dissolves clots example is Aspirin.
B. Thrombolytic dissolves clots example is Reteplase while anti-thrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin.
56
Which of the following are true regarding Streptomycin?
I. Mechanism of action is similar to Erythromycin
II. Belongs to aminoglycosides group
III. Has an activity against Mycobacterium
tuberculosis .
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, II, III
D. II, III
D. II, III
57
An in-patient in a hospital was given a medication order to take Levodopa/Carbidopa 250mg/25mg. The dosing schedule was ½ tablet at 7 am, ¼ tablet + 1/8 tablet at 11am, ¼ + ½ tablet at 3pm, ½ tablet at 7pm, and ¼ + 1/8 at 11pm. What is the total dose needed by the patient per day?
A. 312.5 mg/31.25 mg
B. 50 mg/75 mg
C. 531.2 mg/62.5 mg
D. 625 mg/62.5 mg
D. 625 mg/62.5 mg
58
Which of the following is needed to
produce a positive inotropic effect?
A. Actilyse®
B. Isoproterenol® - beta non-
selective
C. Plavix®
D. Lanoxin®
D. Lanoxin®
59
Which of the following is not a diuretic?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Desmopressin
D. Desmopressin
60
Which of the following should be part of
the list of dangerous drugs monitored by
the pharmacist?
I. Tramadol
II. Morphine
III. Naloxone – opioid antagonist
IV. Fentanyl
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III
D. II, IV
D. II, IV
61
A 30 yr. old female with UTI is being
treated with Ciprofloxacin but has not
been responsive to the antibiotic. Which
of the following drugs that she is taking
for other reasons could have decreased
the effectiveness of Ciprofloxacin?
A. Ferrous sulfate tablet
B. Levocetirizine
C. B-complex vitamin tablet
D. Levetiracetam
A. Ferrous sulfate tablet
62
Which of the following is classified as a urinary antiseptic?
A. Povidone iodine: BD: Betadine
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Hexetidine – BD: Bactidol
C. Nitrofurantoin
63
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding Co- trimoxazole?
I. It is a combination of Trimethoprim & Sulfisoxazole.
II. The individual agents both exert antibacterial
effect.
III. Topical preparations arencommercially available locally.
A. I, II
B. II only
C. I only
D. I, II, III
B. II only
64
Which of the following statements regarding drug interaction are true?
I. Drug interaction may result to different responses of the patient for what the drug is
primarily intended.
II. Drug interaction may be beneficial.
III. Drug interaction may be intentional.
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, III
D. II, III
A. I, II, III
65
What antibiotic belongs to the same
classification of Clarithromycin?
A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
A. Azithromycin
66
Which of the following statements are true?
I. Levodopa inhibits peripheral metabolism of Carbidopa
II. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral metabolism of
Levodopa
III. Immediate release tablets can be crushed via NGT administration.
IV. Immediate release tablets cannot be crushed via NGTnadministration.
A. I, IV
B. II, III
C. II, IV
D. I, III
B. II, III
67
Which of the following components of parenteral nutrition is/are micronutrients?
I. Electrolytes
II. Dextrose
III. Triglycerides
A. III only
B. I, II, III
C. II, III
D. I only
D. I only
**
II, III – MACROnutrients
68
Which of the following medications was
prescribed for immediate relief for her
difficulty of breathing?
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Montelukast
C. Ipratropium bromide
**
C. Ipratropium bromide
A – dry cough
B – vasodilator; vs. angina pectoris
D – leukotriene receptor antagonist; vs. NSAID-induced asthma; vs. SRSA
(slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis)
69
Trituration of camphor and methanol results in:
A. Solidification
B. Antagonistic effect
C. Eutectic mixture
D. Synergistic effect
C. Eutectic mixture
70
Based on USP, what is the
beyond-use-date (BUD) for water
containing oral preparations at
controlled cold temperatures?
A. No longer than 7 days
B. No longer than 14 days
C. No longer than 24 days
D. No longer than 30 days
B. No longer than 14 days
71
Advantages of Individual Prescription Order System.
I. There is interdisciplinary interaction
II. Decreased cost to the patient
III. Medications are easily delivered to the patient
IV. Less responsibilities for the pharmacist
A. Only one statement is correct
B. Two statements are correct
C. Three statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
A. Only one statement is correct
72
Which drug is indicated for the
treatment of Cisplatin toxicity?
A. Amifostine
B. MESNA
C. Dexrazoxane
D. Leucovorin
A. Amifostine
**
MESNA –Cyclophosphamide TOXICITY
Dexrazoxane – Doxorubicin TOXICITY
Leucovorin – Methotrexate TOXICITY
Filgrastim – Chemotherapy-associated neutropenia TOXICITY
73
A continually revised compilation of
pharmaceuticals that reflects the current
clinical judgment of the medical staff; it
also refers to lists of drugs that are
covered by a specific health care plan or
that are allowed in an institutional pharmacy.
A. Drug monograph
B. Formulary
C. Formulary system
D. Standard operating procedure
B. Formulary
74
Patient FGB was known to be pre- hypertensive. His blood pressure may be:
A. 121/90 mmHg
B. 143/100 mmHg
C. 138/89 mmHg
D. 135/90 mmHg
C. 138/89 mmHg
**
Normal <120 & <80
Pre-hypertension 120-139 or 80-89
Stage 1 140-159 or 90-99
Stage 2 >160 or >100
75
76
In order for a hospital to be considered
a Level 3 hospital, one of the services
that must be present is:
A. Rehabilitation clinic
B. Neonatal ICU
C. Blood station
D. High risk pregnancy unit
A. Rehabilitation clinic
**
B – Level 2
C – Level 1 & 2
D – Level 2
77
Hospitals may be classified with respect to its:
I. Functional capacity
II. Type of service
III. Ownership
IV. Bed capacity
V. Length of stay
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. I, III, IV, V
D. I, III, IV
E. II, IV, V
B. I, II, III, IV, V
78
This compared the treatment
alternatives with cost measured and
treatment outcomes expressed in terms
of therapeutic objective.
A. Cost of Illness Evaluation
B. Cost Minimization Analysis
C. Cost Utility Analysis
D. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
D. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
79
If 700 g of a 6% coal tar ointment is
mixed with 1,100 g of a 13% coal tar
ointment, what is the concentration of
coal tar in the finished product?
A. 6.36%
B. 10.3%
C. 19%
D. 18.5%
B. 10.3%
80
Acacia, when mixed with bismuth salts,
will lead to a formation of a hard, cake-
like substance. On the other hand,
acacia with iron salts will produce a gel.
A. Only the first statement is correct
B. Only the second statement is correct
C. Both statements are incorrect
D. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are correct
81
Interaction between Penicillin G and Tetracycline.
I. Tetracycline is bacteriostatic and can only slow down the growth of bacteria.
II. Penicillin is most active against rapidly dividing
bacteria.
III. The interaction is a type of therapeutic
incompatibility.
IV. The bacteriostatic effect of Penicillin G is diminished when Tetracycline is administered.
A. Only one statement is correct
B. Two statements are correct
C. Three statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
C. Three statements are correct
82
What type of ADR is present when a man
developed Red Man Syndrome after
taking Vancomycin?
A. Type A - augmented
B. Type B – bizarre (abnormal/uncommon/
C. unpredictable)
D. Type C - continuous
E. Type D – delayed
B. Type B – bizarre
83
Kernicterus is a drug-induced disorder
that may occur in the neonate following
therapy with which of the following
drugs?
A. Isoniazid
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Phenytoin
D. Promethazine
B. Sulfisoxazole
**
Any sulfonamide containing drug could lead to kernicterus/bilirubin encephalopathy.
Kernicterus is a bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction in babies.
Unconjugated bilirubin (nonpolar) is displaced from protein binding à since nonpolar, it will not be excreted. Iikot lang sa loob ng katawan until it reaches and becomes stagnant sa brain causing kernicterus
84
Which of the following is are false about heparin?
A. It prevents coagulation by binding to and activating antithrombin III.
B. It is administered through intravenous bolus,
intravenous infusion, and intramuscular route.
C. Exogenous heparin is derived from porcine intestine or bovine.
D. The unfractionated form of heparin is safe for pregnant women.
B. It is administered through intravenous bolus,
intravenous infusion, and intramuscular route.
85
Which of the following are true regarding the dispensing of dangerous drugs?
I. Partial filling is allowed.
II. Not all dangerous drugs require a yellow
prescription for it to be dispensed.
III. Brand name is required in prescribing dangerous drugs.
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, II
D. I, II, III
C. I, II
86
This/these drugs is/are indicated for the
treatment of motion sickness.
I. Dimenhydrinate
II. Meclizine
III. Memantine
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. II only
D. III only
B. I, II
**
III – vs. Alzheimer’s disease
87
A patient with pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a beta-lactamase positive staphylococcal strain. What is the best choice of Penicillin therapy for this patient?
A. Oxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Penicillin G
D. Ampicillin
A. Oxacillin
88
Increased levels of this lipoprotein is
associated with decreased risk of
Atherosclerosis?
A. Very low density
B. Low density
C. High density
D. Triglycerides
C. High density
89
Iopamidol, an iodine containing
compound, is used as a ___________.
A. Household chemical
B. Disinfectant
C. Food supplement
D. Contrast media
D. Contrast media
90
Glutathione is an antioxidant commonly
used today as a skin lightening agent.
Which of the following is/are true
regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy.
III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening.
A. III only
B. I, II
C. II only
D. I, II, III
C. II only
91
Which of the following is/are non-opioids
IV preparation that can be used to produce general anesthesia?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
A. I, II
B. II only
C. II, III
D. I only
C. II, III
92
Indication for prescribing the drug
Febuxostat to a patient.
A. High uric acid
B. Low hemoglobin
C. High low density lipoprotein
D. High triglyceride
A. High uric acid
**
C – -statins
D – fibric acid derivatives
