EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards by Bspharm 2025

The science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects and other medicine-related problems:

A. Pharmacology
B. Pharmacoepidemiology
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Pharmacovigilance

D. Pharmacovigilance

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Any adverse effect or injury associated with use of drugs in humans whether or not considered to be drug-related:

A. Adverse drug reaction
B. Adverse drug event
C. Medication error
D. None of the above

B. Adverse drug event

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A noxious and unintended reaction which occurs at toxic doses in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, and therapy of disease

A. Adverse drug reaction
B. Adverse drug event
C. Medication error
D. None of the above

D. None of the above

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Medication errors are preventable. All medication errors lead to patient harm.

A. Only the first statement is true.
B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

A. Only the first statement is true.

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Safety information that gives strong advice or statement of danger to the consumer:

A. Contraindication
B. Precaution
C. Warning
D. Directions for use

C. Warning

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“Do not refrigerate.”

A. Contraindication
B. Precaution
C. Warning
D. Directions for use

B. Precaution - Special Care Necessary For Safe And Effective Use Of Drug

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The following are risk factors for adverse drug reactions, except:

A. Being an elderly patient
B. Medication adherence
C. Kidney disease
D. Long-term therapy

B. Medication adherence

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Which of the following statements are true regarding risk factors for ADRs?

A. The duration of therapy does not lead to an increased risk for ADR as long as the proper dose is administered
B. Females are more at risk for ADRs than males.
C. Caucasians are resistant to malaria because they do not possess the Duffy antigen
D. None of the above

B. Females are more at risk for ADRs than males.

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Pediatric classification: 1-3 years old

A. Infant
B. Toddler
C. Preschooler
D. School age

B. Toddler

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Pediatric classification: 6-12 years old

A. Infant
B. Toddler
C. Preschooler
D. School age

D. School age

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An ADR that requires either a change in therapy or additional hospitalization:

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Lethal

B. Moderate

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Severity of ADR: respiratory depression

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Lethal

C. Severe

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Severity of ADR: disturbing skin allergies

A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Lethal

B. Moderate

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An allergic reaction to peanuts belongs to Type B-I ADR. The harmful effects of carcinogens belong to Type B-IV ADR.

A. Only the first statement is true.
B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

A. Only the first statement is true.

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Type A ADRs are detected during what drug development stage?

A. Research phase
B. Pre-clinical studies
C. Early clinical trials
D. Post-marketing phase

C. Early clinical trials

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An exaggerated response by the immune system:

A. Extension effect
B. Side effect
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
D. Hypersensitivity reaction

D. Hypersensitivity reaction

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Drug response may vary from person to person due to genetic factors. Some people may be allergic to a drug, while some are not. This is an example of a/an:

A. Extension effect
B. Side effect
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
D. Hypersensitivity reaction

C. Idiosyncratic reaction

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The extension effect of NSAIDs is GI bleeding. The effect of continuous NSAID use is GI irritation.

A. Only the first statement is true.
B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

D. Both statements are false.

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What is the most common extension effect of nitrates as vasodilators?

A. Headache
B. Hypertension
C. Dizziness
D. Bleeding

A. Headache

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What will likely happen to a person taking steroids long term to treat his/her autoimmune disease?

A. Increased immune system response
B. Increased risk for infections
C. Increased production of antibodies
D. Both A and C

B. Increased risk for infections

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A person taking opioids may feel this side effect:

A. Pain reduction
B. Diarrhea
C. Constipation
D. Thirst

C. Constipation

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The most toxic aminoglycoside:

A. Neomycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tobramycin
D. Amikacin

C. Tobramycin

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Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause deafness?

A. Neomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Streptomycin

A. Neomycin

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The renal function of a patient taking this aminoglycoside must be monitored closely:

A. Tobramycin
B. Amikacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Kanamycin

A. Tobramycin

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Identify the type of ADR: aplastic anemia A. Type B-I B. Type B-II C. Type B-III D. Type B-IV

B. Type B-II

Identify the type of ADR: Stevens-Johnson syndrome A. Type B-I B. Type B-II C. Type B-III D. Type B-IV

D. Type B-IV

Identify the type of ADR: rashes due to paracetamol allergy A. Type B-I B. Type B-II C. Type B-III D. Type B-IV

A. Type B-I

What are the symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction? A. Bronchodilation, vasodilation B. Bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction C. Bronchodilation, vasoconstriction D. Bronchoconstriction, vasodilation

D. Bronchoconstriction, vasodilation

Immunoglobulins that are bound to mast cells: A. IgG B. IgA C. IgE D. IgD

C. IgE

Which anti-TB medication causes reversible blindness? A. Rifampicin B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

D. Ethambutol

FDA pregnancy category: safe for humans, unsafe for animals A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

B. Category B

Which of the following congenital anomalies is most commonly associated with thalidomide exposure during pregnancy? A. Anencephaly B. Spina bifida C. Phocomelia D. Cleft palate

C. Phocomelia

A pregnant woman exposed to lithium predisposes her unborn child to: A. Renal dysgenesis B. Fetal hydantoin syndrome C. Precious Moments Doll syndrome D. Ebstein’s anomaly

D. Ebstein’s anomaly

What is the main cause of Type F ADRs? A. Using expired medications B. Storing drugs incorrectly, leading to instability C. Misusing antibacterials D. Using non-FDA-approved medications

C. Misusing antibacterials

A doctor prescribes 10 mg of a drug, but the nurse transcribes it as 100 mg on the patient’s chart: A. Prescribing error B. Transcription error C. Dispensing error D. Administration error

B. Transcription error

Medication error: The pharmacy aid got cyclosporin from the shelf instead of cycloserine, but the chief pharmacist noticed the error and dispensed the correct medicine to the patient. A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D

B. Type B

The following are chemical incompatibilities, except: A. Isomerization B. Leaching C. Gelatinization D. Oxidation

B. Leaching

Silica gel and desiccants show: A. Hygroscopy B. Deliquescence C. Efflorescence D. Eutexia

A. Hygroscopy

The movement of drug particles into the container is called leaching. The manifestation of insolubility is the formation of multiple layers. A. Only the first statement is true. B. Only the second statement is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

D. Both statements are false.

Which of the following manifestations of oxidation is true? A. Volatile oils: rancidity B. Vitamin C: light yellow discoloration C. Epinephrine: pink discoloration D. Fixed oils: solidification

C. Epinephrine: pink discoloration

Which herb antagonizes the effect of Losartan®? A. Valerian B. Licorice C. Garlic D. Echinacea

B. Licorice

Patients taking tetracycline should not take metal containing drugs or substances because: A. The patient may experience metal toxicity B. The patient’s infection would be harder to treat C. The patient may feel an increased effect of the antibiotic D. All of the above

B. The patient’s infection would be harder to treat

Which statement is correct regarding Question 42? A. Tetracycline is the object drug, while metal containing drugs are the precipitant drug B. Tetracycline is the precipitant drug, while metal containing drugs are the object drug C. Both mentioned drugs are object drugs in the situation D. Both mentioned drugs are precipitant drugs in the situation

A. Tetracycline is the object drug, while metal containing drugs are the precipitant drug

Patients taking digoxin may have increased risk to toxicity due to: A. Sodium supplements B. Calcium supplements C. A potassium-rich diet D. All of the above

B. Calcium supplements

What will happen when aspirin and antacids are taken together? A. Increased excretion of aspirin B. Increased absorption of aspirin C. Increased excretion of the antacid D. Increased absorption of the antacid

A. Increased excretion of aspirin

Which of the following does not describe an ambulatory patient? A. Able to walk B. Has undergone invasive procedures C. Treated in an outpatient setting D. No prolonged medical supervision

B. Has undergone invasive procedures

The following are major functions of a hospital, except: A. Provision of patient care B. Promotion of public health C. Encouragement for alternative medicines and methods D. Innovation of hospital methods

C. Encouragement for alternative medicines and methods

A minimum of how many beds is required in a hospital? A. 5 B. 10 C. 6 D. 8

C. 6

What is the most important requirement in a hospital? A. Patients B. Patient services C. Medical staff D. Pharmacy services

B. Patient services

The primary source of income of a hospital: A. Gift shop B. Pharmacy C. Patient bills D. Clinic rentals

C. Patient bills

The following are classifications of a hospital, except: A. Ownership B. Bed capacity C. Location D. Types of services

C. Location

A short-term stay in a hospital is typically: A. Less than a day B. Less than a week C. Less than a month D. Less than a year

C. Less than a month

A type of hospital the caters to all kinds of diseases: A. Open B. Liberal C. General D. Special

C. General

A secondary clinical laboratory can be found in what category of general hospitals? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

A. Primary

A mobile x-ray unit can be found in what category of general hospitals? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

B. Secondary

A histopathology laboratory can be found in what category of general hospitals? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

C. Tertiary

Fabella Memorial Hospital specializes in: A. Tuberculosis B. Maternal and neonatal care C. Infectious diseases D. Cardiology

B. Maternal and neonatal care

Classification of healthcare facilities: radiology department A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

C. Category C

Classification of healthcare facilities: dialysis clinic A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

D. Category D

Classification of healthcare facilities: nursing homes A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D

B. Category B

Eosinophils are elevated during which conditions? I.Hypersensitivity reactions II.Acute fungal infections III.Parasitic infections IV.Acute bacterial infections A. I B. I, III C. I, IV D. I, II, IV

B. I, III

Which of the following statements are true regarding expectorants and mucolytics? I.Both reduce the viscosity of mucus, making it easier to expel. II.Expectorants target disulfide bonds in mucus. III.Expectorants increase the water content of mucus, reducing its viscosity. IV.Mucolytics target gastric vagal receptors. A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV

B. I and III

Which of the following event occurs during acetaminophen toxicity? I.Depleted glutathione stores II.Increased NAPQI concentrations III.Increased conjugation with glucuronic acid IV.Replenishment of cysteine sources A. I, II B. II, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV

A. I, II

It is a specific COX2-inhibitor that was withdrawn from the market due to occurrence of cardiovascular events: I.Rofecoxib II.Celecoxib III.Celebrex® IV.Vioxx® A. I, III B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, IV

B. I, IV

Which of the following statements are incorrect? I. A child recovering from chickenpox may be given aspirin. II. A patient with gout may take tolmetin for pain. III. Ibuprofen is the safest NSAID for children. IV. Phenylephrine use must be monitored in hypotensive patients. A. I, II B. III, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

C. I, II, IV

Which of the following urinalysis interactions is/are correct? I. Vitamin C: false-positive glucose test II. Vitamin B5-complex: deep yellow urine III. Dapagliflozin: false-negative glucose test A. I B. I, II C. I, III D. I, II, IIl

B. I, II

Which of the following definitions are incorrect? I. Pharmacology: The study of drugs and its use across large numbers of people II. Pharmacovigilance: The science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention drugrelated problems III. Adverse drug effect: Any adverse effect or injury associated with use of drugs in humans whether or not considered to be drug-related IV. Medication error: Any preventable event that inevitably leads to inappropriate drug use or patient harm A. I, IV B. II, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, III, IV

D. I, III, IV

Phase 3 clinical trials evaluate the drug’s ________. I.Efficacy II.Safety III.Rare adverse drug reactions IV.Common adverse drug reactions A. III B. IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, IV

D. I, II, IV

A prospective evaluation of the disease and its progression: I.Case-control II.Cohort III.Longitudinal IV.Cross-sectional A. I B. IV C. I, III D. II, IIl

D. II, IIl

Which of the following may be purchased without a doctor’s prescription? I.Dolfenal® 250 mg II.Flanax® 500 mg III.Skelan® 220 mg IV.Cataflam® 50 mg A. I, III B. I, II, III C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV

A. I, III

Which of the following drugs must be taken on an empty stomach? I.Celecoxib II.Pantoprazole III.Alendronate IV.Esomeprazole A. I, III B. III, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

B. III, IV

Which of the following statements are false? I.Cardiotoxicity of dexrazoxane can be treated with doxorubicin. II.The rescue drug for cyclophosphamide is acrolein. III.Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity and myelosuppression. IV.The side effects of pralatrexate is treated with B12 supplementation. A. I, II B. II, III C. II, IV D. III, IV

A. I, II

Which of the following condition/s indicate renal damage? I.High serum creatinine II.Low serum creatinine III.High GFR IV.Low GFR A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

B. I and IV

Which of the following procedures/equipment is used to determine pulmonary function? I. Spirometry test II. Hydrogen breath test III. Peak flow measurement IV. Tensilon test A. I, III B. II, IV C. I, II, III D. I, III, IV

A. I, III

A patient received a prescription for Lipitor®. What parameter/s must be continuously monitored in relation to a known adverse effect of the drug? I. Liver function test II. Creatine kinase III. Serum creatinine IV. LDL levels A. I, II B. I, III C. I, IV D. I, II, IV

A. I, II

Which of the following are correctly matched? I. S2: legally dispense dangerous drugs II. S2: legally prescribe dangerous drugs III. S3: legally dispense dangerous drugs IV. S3: legally prescribe dangerous drugs A. I B. III C. I, IV D. II, III

D. II, III

Which of the following translation/s of the Latin phrases is/are correct? I.Placebo: I shall please II.Recipere: To take III.Nocebo: I shall do no harm A. I B. I, II C. II, III D. I, II, IIl

B. I, II

Which of the following are false regarding the dispensing of dangerous drugs? I. Partial filling is not allowed II. Refills are not allowed III. Not all dangerous drugs require a yellow prescription IV. Brand name is required in prescribing dangerous drugs A. I, II B. I, IV C. II, III D. I, II, IIl

B. I, IV

Which of the following should be included in the auxiliary labels of omeprazole? I. Refrigerate II. Do not chew or crush III. Must be taken with meals A. II B. III C. II, III D. I, II, IIl

A. II

Administrative order for the licensing requirements of drug establishments: A. AO 55 B. AO 56 C. AO 62 D. AO 63

B. AO 56

What is the first and the last step of dispensing, respectively? A. Interpreting, recording B. Interpreting, counseling C. Receiving, recording D. Receiving, counseling

C. Receiving, recording

Medications that may be dispensed legally only on prescription: A. Over-the-counter drugs B. Sample drugs C. Investigational drugs D. Legend drugs

D. Legend drugs

Which government agency issues yellow prescriptions? A. PDEA B. DOH C. FDA D. DDB

B. DOH

Dangerous drug prescriptions are kept for how many years? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

A. 1

Ordinary drug prescriptions are kept for how many years? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

B. 2

How many milligrams of a drug will be needed to prepare 74 dosage forms if each is to contain 1/10 gr (apoth.)? A. 6.5 mg B. 481 mg C. 48,100 mg D. 48.1 mg E. 4,810 mg

B. 481 mg

One-half liter of solution for intravenous infusion contains 2 g of drug. How many milliliters of the solution would contain 0.5 mg of the drug? A. 0.125 mL B. 200 mL C. 125 mL D. 5.125 mL E. 12.5 mL

A. 0.125 mL

The number of tablets required to fulfill the following prescription: Prednisolone 5 mg enteric coated (E/C) tablets Take 25 mg daily for 4 days, then reduce by 5 mg every 4 days until the course is finished (total course: 20 days) A. 60 tablets B. 30 tablets C. 40 tablets D. 75 tablets E. 50 tablets

A. 60 tablets

Arnold, a 5-year-old boy (weight 18 kg) with epilepsy, currently takes Epanutin suspension (phenytoin 30 mg/5 mL) at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice daily. How many milliliters of Epanutin suspension will Arnold take during the month of October? You can assume that he is fully compliant, and no spillages or medication loss occurs during the month of October. A. 850 mL B. 875 mL C. 890 mL D. 900 mL E. 930 mL

E. 930 mL

What is the weight, in kilograms, of 3.75 liters of sulfuric acid with a specific gravity of 1.84? A. 2.04 kg B. 0.49 kg C. 6.9 kg D. 2,038.04 kg E. 6,900 kg

C. 6.9 kg

From the following formula for 40 sertraline hydrochloride capsules, calculate the quantity (in grams) of sertraline HCl needed to prepare 360 such capsules. Sertraline HCl 300 mg Silica gel 6 g Calcium citrate 4 g A. 2,700 g B. 92.7 g C. 117 g D. 27 g E. 2.7 g

E. 2.7 g

Sulfated cough syrup contains 0.09 g of dextromethorphan hydrobromide is each fluidounce. How many milligrams of this agent would be present in each teaspoonful dose? A. 10 mg B. 12 mg C. 15 mg D. 20 mg

C. 15 mg

From the following formula, calculate the quantity bismuth subcarbonate (in g) required to make 1250 g of the powder. Calcium carbonate - 5 parts Magnesium oxide - 1 part Sodium bicarbonate - 4 parts Bismuth subcarbonate - 3 parts A. 288.46 g B. 96.15 g C. 480.77 g D. 384.62 g E. 5,416.67 g

A. 288.46 g

How many mL of methyl salicylate should be used to prepare 1 pint of a 5% (v/v) solution? A. 24.10 mL B. 23.65 mL C. 25.36 mL D. 24.70 mL E. 23.10 mL

B. 23.65 mL

A vaginal foam contains 0.01% (w/v) of dienestrol. Express this concentration as ratio strength. A. 1:100 B. 1:10,000 C. 1:1000 D. 1:100,000 E. 1:10

B. 1:10,000

A homeopathic teething gel states on its product label that it contains 0.0000003% alkaloid. Express the alkaloid content in ppm. A. 0.3 ppm B. 0.03 ppm C. 3 ppm D. 0.003 ppm E. None of the above

D. 0.003 ppm

Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive agent administered before and after organ transplantation at a single dose of 15 mg/kg. How many milliliters of a 50-mL bottle containing 100 mg of cyclosporine per milliliter would be administered to a 140-lb. kidney transplant patient? A. 21 mL B. 47.73 mL C. 477.27 mL D. 9.55 mL E. 95.50 mL

D. 9.55 mL

If the pediatric dose of dactinomycin is 15 mcg/kg/day for 5 days, how many milligrams should be administered to a 40 lb. child over the course of treatment? A. 27.27 mg B. 272.73 mg C. 13.64 mg D. 1,363.64 mg E. 136.36 mg

D. 1,363.64 mg

If the dose of a drug is 10 mg/m2 BID, what would be the daily dose, in milligrams, for a child weighing 30 lb. and measuring 26 inches in height? A. 0.05 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 10 mg D. 5 mg E. 15 mg

D. 5 mg

The drug cabazitaxel is used in treating prostate cancer in doses of 25 mg/m2. Calculate the dose for a patient measuring 73 in. in height and weighing 190 lb. A. 2.1 mg B. 52.62 mg C. 1.96 mg D. 49.07 mg E. 25 mg

B. 52.62 mg

EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards

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