Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Drug List 1-5 > Flashcards

Drug List 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Ibuprofen trade name

A

Motrin Advil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Naproxen trade name

A

Aleve Naprosyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indomethacin trade name

A

Indocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Celecoxib trade name

A

Celebrex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Meloxicam trade name

A

Mobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diclofenac trade name

A

Voltaren

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Trolamine salicylate trade name

A

Aspercreme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

NSAID medications

A

Ibuprofen Naproxen Indomethacin Aspirin Celecoxib Meloxicam Diclofenac Trolamine salicylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

NSAID indications

A

analgesia antipyretic anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aspirin indications

A

analgesia antipyretic anti-inflammatory antithrombotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NSAID MOA

A

reversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes to decrease prostaglandin formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is Aspirin’s MOA different from other NSAIDS?

A

it irreversibly binds to COX enzymes, other NSAIDs reversibly bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

general NSAID’s AE

A

GI N/V dyspepsia ulcers GI bleeding increased BP nephrotoxicity CV risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rare Aspirin AE

A

skin rash photosensitivity bronchospams Raye Syndrome in Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NSAIDs common routes

A

PO topical IM IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aspirin common routes

A

PO rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Opioid drugs

A

Codeine Hydrocodone Hydrocodone w/acetaminophen Morphine Oxycodone Oxycodone w/acetminophen Fentanyl Hydromorphone Meperidine Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hydrocodone w/acetaminophen trade name

A

Vicodin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Morphine trade name

A

MS Contin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxycoden trade name

A

Oxycotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Oxycodone w/acetaminophen trade name

A

Percocet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fentanyl trade name

A

Duragesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hydromorphone trade name

A

Dilaudid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Meperidine trade name

A

Dermerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what opioid can be perscribed as an antitussive?

A

codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Opioid Indication

A

analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Opioid common routes

A

PO rectal IV topical subcutaneous intrathecal intranasal transmucosa epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Opioid MOA

A

bind to opioid receptors in the CNS to inhibit ascending pain pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Opioid AE CNS effects

A

sedation nausea respiratory depression cough suppression miosis truncal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Opioid Peripheral AE

A

constipation urinary retention bronchospasms reduced GI motility pruitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acetaminophen trade name

A

Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acetaminophen Indications

A

analgesia antipyretic combo with NSAID to reduce NSAID dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Acetaminophen Common routes

A

PO IV rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Acetaminophen MOA

A

inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Acetaminophen AE

A

hepatotoxicity (esp w/alcohol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Corticosteroids Drug List

A

Cortisone, Prednisone, Methylprednisolone, Prednisolone, Triamcinolone, Betamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Corticosteroids Indication

A

RA, anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Corticosteroids Common routes

A

PO, IV, intra-articular, topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Corticosteroids MOA

A

decrease inflammation and suppress immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Short term corticosteroid AE

A

inc blood glucose, mood changes, fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Long term Corticosteroids AE

A

osteoporosis/ increased fracture risk, thin skin, muscle wasting, poor wound healing, adrenal suppression, Cushing’s disease, increased risk of infection from immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

brand name Gabapentin

A

Neurontin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Gabapentin indication

A

neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gabapentin drug class

A

GABA analog, anticonvulsant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gabapentin common route

A

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gabapentin MOA

A

bind to alpha 2-delta subunit of a calcium channel to block its effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Gabapentin AE

A

dizziness, drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Azathioprine drug class

A

immunosuppresant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Azathioprine indication

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Azathioprine common routes

A

PO, injectible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Azathioprine MOA

A

decreases the immune response so the body doesn’t attack itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Azathioprine AE

A

N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hyaluronate trade name

A

Synvisc, Gel-One, Orthovisc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hyaluronate indication

A

OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hyaluronate common route

A

injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hyaluronate MOA

A

viscoelastic solution to provide joint lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hyaluronate AE

A

injection site pain, swelling, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lidocaine drug class

A

anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

propofol drug class

A

anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

anesthetic drugs

A

lidocaine, propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

anasthetic drugs indications

A

patient controlled analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

general anasthetic common routes

A

IV, inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

regional anasthetic common routes

A

intrathecal, epidural, inflitration anesthesia, peripheral nerve block, IV, regional block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

local anasthetic common routes

A

injection, topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

which antibiotic classes inhibit cell walls?

A

Penecillins, Cephalosporins Glycopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

which antibiotic classes inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Aminoglycides Tetracyclines Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

which antibiotic classes inhibit DNA/RNA?

A

Fluoroquinolones, Nitroimidazole Antifolates

68
Q

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit cell wall?

A

-cillin, ceph-, -vancin

69
Q

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

A

-mycin -micin -cyclin

70
Q

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit DNA/RNA?

A

-floxacin -idazole Sulfa-

71
Q

Penecillins, Cephalosporins Glycopeptides

A

which antibiotic classes inhibit cell walls?

72
Q

Aminoglycides Tetracyclines Macrolides

A

which antibiotic classes inhibit protein synthesis?

73
Q

Fluoroguinolones, Nitroimidazole Antifolates

A

which antibiotic classes inhibit DNA/RNA?

74
Q

-allin ceph- -vancin

A

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit cell wall?

75
Q

-mycin -micin -cyclin

A

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

76
Q

-floxacin -idazole Sulfa-

A

what pre/suffixes are associated with antibiotics that inhibit DNA/RNA?

77
Q

which antibiotic drug classes are gram +/-

A

Penecillins,

Tetracyclines

Macrolides

Antifolates

78
Q

C-diff infection is treated using what antibiotic?

A

metronidazole

vancomycin

79
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat respiratory infection?

A

macrolides

80
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat community based pnemonia?

A

fluoroquinolones

81
Q

what antibiotics are used to treat MRSA and Staph infections?

A

Linozolid

82
Q

AE of antifolates

A

steven-johnson syndrome

allergies

83
Q

AE of fluoroquinolones

A

Tendon rupure

hypoglycemia

84
Q

AE of Penecillins

A

Allergies, GI distress

85
Q

AE of cephalosporins

A

GI hypersentivity

86
Q

AE of aminoglycides

A

ototoxicity

nephrotoxicity

photosensitivity

87
Q

Macrolides AE

A

N/V/D

drug/drug interactions

88
Q

AE Glycopeptides

A

hypotension (fall risk)

nephrotoxicity

redman syndrome

89
Q

which antiobiotics can be administered as eye drops (opthalmic)?

A

Aminoglycocides

Fluoroquinolones

Macrolides

90
Q

Nitroimidazole AE

A

GI

metallic taste

nausea

headache

91
Q

which antiobiotics can rarely cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Nitroimadzaole

92
Q

How would aminoglycocides increase fall risk?

A

affects vestibular function (ototoxicity

93
Q

potential AE of Linozolid

A

serotonin syndrome

thrombocytopenia

94
Q

PT specific pertaining to TB trx

A

CN VIII damage - increases fall risk

95
Q

tetracycline AE

A

GI distress, photosensitivity

96
Q

what broad AE should you be concerned about concerning antibiotics?

A

GI distress (specifically diarrhea)

97
Q

basic pathophysiology of cancer

A

uncontrolled cell growth

98
Q

causes of cancer

A

1). extrinsic: carcinogens 2). Intrinsic: genetic mutations/DNA sequences, viral agents, chronic irritation, genetic predisposition, oncogenes

99
Q

General stages of cell lifecycle

A

G0: cell at rest G1: Pre-DNA S: DNA synthesis G2: pre-mitosis Mitosis

100
Q

cell-cycle-specific (CCS) agents do what?

A

target specific phase of cell cycle

101
Q

what are CCS agents more effective on?

A

rapidly dividing tumors

102
Q

dose frequency of CCS agents

A

continuous infusion or frequent doses

103
Q

cell-cycle nonspecific (CCN) agents do what?

A

target the cell during it’s entire life cycle (including G0)

104
Q

What areas of the body are primarily adversely affected by chemotherapy?

A

bone marrow, GI, buccal mucosa, reproductive organs, hair follicles

105
Q

what are CCN agents more effective on?

A

slow large growing tumors

106
Q

dose frequency/timing of CCN agents

A

intermittently dose to reduce toxicities

107
Q

what is Nadir?

A

10-28 days when WBC is at it’s lowest, no trx given here

108
Q

what stage of the cell life cycle is chemotherapy not effective?

A

G0: cell at rest

109
Q

primary treatment (cure) for cancer

A

surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, biotherapy

110
Q

when is adjuvant therapy used?

A

after primary trx

111
Q

when is neoadjuvant therapy used?

A

before primary trx

112
Q

goals/stages of treatment

A

cure, control palliative

113
Q

what is palliative care?

A

decrease tumor burden, improve QOL, relieve pain

114
Q

Types of cancer trx

A

radiation, surgery, pharmacotherapy,

115
Q

what is used to treat almost every solid tumor?

A

radiation

116
Q

Radiation trx AE

A

1). significant damage to all tissues 2). can result in fibrosis of lungs (location dependent) 3). fatigue

117
Q

PT concerns for radiation

A

fatigue, location of tissue damage

118
Q

Cancer trx used to maximize tumor eradication

A

surgery

119
Q

PT considerations for surgery trx

A

wound complications, lymphedema, general post-op concerns

120
Q

what are the 3 types of pharmacotherapy?

A

1). chemotherapy 2). targeted therapy 3). immunotherapy

121
Q

chemotherapy

A

drugs that inhibit growth and replication of cancer cells

122
Q

targeted therapy

A

blocks genes/proteins, specific genetic mutations

123
Q

immunotherapy

A

hormones and drugs that use the immune system to trx cancer

124
Q

majority of immunotherapy drugs utilize what?

A

antibodies that end in -mab, interferon, interleukins (non-specific immunotherapy)

125
Q

what cancer AE should we be most concerned with?

A

1). thrombocytopena 2). neutropenia 3). peripheral neuropathy 4). pain 5). infection 6). mouth/throat

126
Q

special precautions for oral chemotherapy

A

wear gloves when touching laundry or bodily fluids (specific to the oral med)

127
Q

suffix associated with most antiviral drugs

A

-vir

128
Q

AE influenza A & B

A

N/V/D, fever (the flu)

129
Q

which forms of Hepatitis do not have a vaccine?

A

C, D, E

130
Q

T/F: hepatitis D and E are common in the US

A

False

131
Q

how is hepatitis B treated?

A

1). Interferon (weekly injection) 2). Nucleoside/Nucleotide analog (better, PO)

132
Q

AE of Interferon

A

flu-like symptoms

133
Q

common AE for DAAs

A

fatigue, weakness, headache, nausea

134
Q

PT concern with DAAs + corticosteroids

A

Bradycardia

135
Q

what does HIV target?

A

immune system -> CD4 T cells

136
Q

result of HIV progression?

A

decreased CD4 count leading to AIDS

137
Q

how is HIV treated?

A

HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Treatment)

138
Q

what is HAART?

A

combo therapy to increase efficacy and decrease resistance

139
Q

patient specific factor in successful management of HIV

A

ADHERENCE

140
Q

MOA of antivirals

A

target different points in lifecycle

141
Q

Rehab concerns specific to HIV

A

1). opportunistic infections 2). Neuromuscular problems (myopathy, peripheral neuropathy) 3). pt trx include pain management

142
Q

types of fungal infections

A

1). superficial 2). systemic

143
Q

patients at risk for fungal infections

A

immunosuppression, antibacterial, diabetics, burn victims

144
Q

*antifungal drugs basic MOA

A

alter cell membrane permeability

145
Q

2 antifungal classes

A

1). polyenes, 2). azoles

146
Q

which antifungal drug class is broad spectrum

A

azoles

147
Q

PD implications of azoles

A

common CYP interactions

148
Q

which antifungals commonly have DDI?

A

Azoles

149
Q

Polyene drugs

A

Nystatin, Amphotericin B

150
Q

Nystatin AE

A

N/V/D, cramps (PO), rash, urticaria (topical)

151
Q

Azole drugs

A

Fluconazole, ketoconazole

152
Q

Azole drugs AE

A

N/V, photophobia, cardiac arrhythmia, menstrual irregularities,

153
Q

primary concern with antifungals

A

liver damage, elevated serum transaminase kidney damage

154
Q

What are the types of vaccines?

A

1). inactivated 2). subunit/conjugated 3). attenuated 4). toxoid

155
Q

what is in an inactivated vaccine?

A

killed pathogen

156
Q

what is in a conjugated vaccine?

A

piece of the pathogen

157
Q

what is in a live attenuated vaccine?

A

weakened pathogen

158
Q

what is in a toxoid vaccine?

A

pathogen toxin instead of actual pathogen

159
Q

which vaccine is good for life?

A

life attenuated

160
Q

which vaccine should be avoided in immunocompromised populations?

A

life attenuated

161
Q

areas of virus lifecycle that a virus can impact

A

1). going into and out of cell (binding/budding) 2). movement in cell (uncoating) 3). replication (translation/transcription/assembly)

162
Q

what is used to treat Hepatitis C?

A

DAA

163
Q

What is a therapeutic concern when treating a patient with hepatitis C?

A

bradycardia

164
Q

for an acute infection of of Hepatitis A what is recommended?

A

rest, hyrdate, antipyretic drugs, AVOID acetaminophen, typically takes 2-6 months to recover

165
Q

name all the categories of antiviral drugs

A

antiherpes, anti-influenza, antihepatitis, miscellanis

Pharmacology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions