drugs Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Which lipid‐lowering drugs are used in atherosclerosis management?

A

Statins – inhibit HMG-CoA reductase to lower LDL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drug inhibits cholesterol absorption in the gut?

A

Ezetimibe – blocks intestinal cholesterol absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs increase LDL clearance by inhibiting PCSK9?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors (e.g., evolocumab) – prevent LDL receptor degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drugs lower triglycerides via increased LPL activity?

A

Fibrates – activate PPAR-α to upregulate lipoprotein lipase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which β‑blockers are used for hypertension?

A

Beta‐blockers (e.g., metoprolol, propranolol) – reduce heart rate and contractility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which drugs are ACE inhibitors for hypertension?

A

ACE inhibitors (e.g., captopril, enalapril) – block angiotensin I conversion to angiotensin II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drugs are used as ARBs in hypertension?

A

ARBs (e.g., candesartan, telmisartan, irbesartan) – block angiotensin II receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drug class causes vasodilation by blocking L-type Ca²⁺ channels?

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g., amlodipine) – inhibit Ca²⁺ influx in smooth muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which anticoagulant acts as a vitamin K antagonist?

A

Warfarin – inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase to reduce clotting factor activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which anticoagulants potentiate antithrombin III activity?

A

Heparin and LMWHs (e.g., enoxaparin) – inactivate thrombin and factor Xa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) is used for infarction prevention?

A

Rivaroxaban – a direct factor Xa inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which antiplatelet drug irreversibly inhibits COX-1?

A

Aspirin – reduces thromboxane A2 synthesis, inhibiting platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antiplatelet drug blocks the P2Y₁₂ receptor?

A

Clopidogrel – prevents ADP-mediated platelet activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drugs block GP IIb/IIIa receptors to prevent aggregation?

A

GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors (e.g., tirofiban, eptifibatide) – block fibrinogen binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which fibrinolytic drug is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?

A

Alteplase – converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve clots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which fibrinolytic drug non-specifically activates plasminogen?

A

Streptokinase – promotes plasmin formation to lyse clots.

17
Q

Which AED is a sodium channel blocker used in epilepsy?

A

Phenytoin – stabilizes neuronal membranes by blocking Na⁺ channels.

18
Q

Which AED used for focal seizures also blocks sodium channels?

A

Carbamazepine – reduces repetitive firing via Na⁺ channel blockade.

19
Q

Which AED enhances GABA and also blocks sodium channels?

A

Valproate – increases GABA levels and inhibits Na⁺ channels.

20
Q

Which antiepileptic drug modulates neurotransmitter release by binding SV2A?

A

Levetiracetam – modulates synaptic vesicle protein 2A function.

21
Q

Which benzodiazepine is used as an adjunct for acute seizures?

A

Diazepam – potentiates GABA-A receptor activity.

22
Q

Which drug is the gold-standard precursor treatment for Parkinson disease?

A

L-DOPA – converted to dopamine in the brain.

23
Q

Which drug is given with L-DOPA to inhibit peripheral conversion?

A

Carbidopa – inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase peripherally.

24
Q

Which dopamine agonist is used in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Pramipexole – directly stimulates dopamine receptors.

25
Which drug is a COMT inhibitor used with L-DOPA?
Entacapone – prolongs L-DOPA action by inhibiting catechol-O-methyltransferase.
26
Which MAO-B inhibitor is indicated in Parkinson’s therapy?
Rasagiline – reduces dopamine breakdown in the brain.
27
Which drug class used in osteoporosis reduces osteoclast activity?
Bisphosphonates (e.g., zoledronic acid) – inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.
28
Which drug inhibits RANKL to prevent osteoclast formation?
Denosumab – a RANKL inhibitor used as an anti-resorptive agent.
29
Which anabolic agent for osteoporosis is a PTH analog?
Teriparatide – stimulates osteoblast activity when given intermittently.
30
Which osteoporosis treatment is an anti-sclerostin antibody?
Romosozumab – increases bone formation by inhibiting sclerostin.
31
Which estrogen therapy is used in hormone replacement for postmenopausal women?
Estrogen preparations (e.g., conjugated equine estrogens or estradiol) – support bone and muscle health.
32
Which testosterone therapy is used for hypogonadal men?
Testosterone preparations (injectable, gel) – restore normal testosterone levels.
33
Which monoclonal antibody targets CD20?
Rituximab – used for non-Hodgkin lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis.
34
Which monoclonal antibody targets HER2?
Trastuzumab – treats HER2-positive breast cancer by blocking receptor signaling.
35
Which antibody blocks CTLA-4 to treat melanoma?
Ipilimumab – enhances T-cell activation by inhibiting CTLA-4.
36
Which antibody blocks PD-1 for various cancers?
Nivolumab – promotes antitumor immunity by blocking the PD-1 receptor.
37
Which antibody-drug conjugate targets CD30?
Brentuximab vedotin – delivers cytotoxic drug to CD30-positive cells in Hodgkin lymphoma.